GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 3
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative charge of 0 and a relative mass of 1?
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Correct: (B)
The neutron has no charge and a relative mass of 1; a proton has charge +1 and an electron has charge -1 with almost zero mass.
Q2A sodium atom has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?
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Correct: (C)
Neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.
Q3Isotopes of the same element have the same number of protons but a different number of what?
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Correct: (A)
Isotopes have the same atomic number (protons) but different mass numbers because their nuclei contain different numbers of neutrons.
Q4Magnesium has atomic number 12. What is its electronic structure?
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Correct: (D)
12 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 2 in the third shell.
Q5Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his periodic table?
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Correct: (B)
Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements and correctly predicted their properties, which is why his table was accepted.
Q6The reactivity of Group 1 metals increases down the group because…
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Correct: (A)
Down the group the outer electron is in a shell further from the nucleus and is shielded more, so it is lost more easily and reactions are more vigorous.
Q7A chloride ion, Cl-, is formed from a chlorine atom with atomic number 17. How many electrons does the chloride ion have?
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Correct: (C)
The atom gains one electron to form the negative ion: 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.
Q8Which statement describes a property of transition metals?
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Correct: (D)
Transition elements form coloured compounds and their ions can have variable charges, unlike Group 1 metals.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Why does solid sodium chloride not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does?
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Correct: (A)
Ionic compounds conduct when their ions are free to move, which happens when the compound is molten or dissolved, not in the solid lattice.
Q10Diamond is one of the hardest known substances because…
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Correct: (B)
In diamond every carbon atom is joined to four others by strong covalent bonds in a rigid giant lattice, so a large force is needed to break it.
Q11Graphite can conduct electricity because…
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Correct: (C)
Each carbon atom in graphite forms three bonds, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that is free to move and carry charge.
Q12Buckminsterfullerene (C60) is best described as…
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Correct: (D)
Fullerenes are molecules of carbon atoms arranged in closed cages; C60 forms a spherical cage of hexagonal and pentagonal rings.
Q13What is metallic bonding?
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Correct: (B)
Metallic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between positive metal ions and the delocalised electrons around them.
Q14What is the approximate size range of nanoparticles?
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Correct: (A)
Nanoparticles are structures between 1 nm and 100 nm in size, containing a few hundred atoms.
Q15Alloys are harder than pure metals because…
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Correct: (B)
In a pure metal the regular layers slide easily; in an alloy, different-sized atoms disrupt the layers and stop them sliding, making the alloy harder.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.
Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.
Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 4.8 g of magnesium? (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr of MgO = 40)
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Correct: (D)
Moles of Mg = 4.8 / 24 = 0.2 mol, so 0.2 mol of MgO is formed. Mass = 0.2 × 40 = 8.0 g.
Q19A student dissolves 0.50 mol of sodium hydroxide in water and makes the volume up to 250 cm^3. What is the concentration in mol/dm^3?
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Correct: (B)
Volume = 250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3. Concentration = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.
Q20A reaction should produce 40 g of a product but only 32 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (C)
Percentage yield = (32 / 40) × 100 = 80%.
Q21Calcium carbonate is heated: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What is the atom economy for making calcium oxide, CaO? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56, CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (B)
Atom economy = Mr of desired product / Mr of all products × 100 = 56 / 100 × 100 = 56%.
Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of oxygen gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23A solution has a pH of 7. This means the solution is…
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Correct: (C)
pH 7 is neutral; below 7 is acidic and above 7 is alkaline.
Q24Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. The products are…
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Correct: (D)
Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide, so the products are calcium chloride, water and carbon dioxide.
Q25Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (A)
Positively charged lead ions (Pb^2+) move to the negative cathode, gain electrons and form lead metal.
Q26During the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution, hydrogen is produced at the cathode instead of sodium because…
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Correct: (C)
At the cathode the less reactive element is discharged; hydrogen is less reactive than sodium, so H^+ ions form hydrogen gas and sodium stays in solution.
Q27Which metal will displace copper from a solution of copper sulfate?
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Correct: (C)
A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its compound; zinc is above copper in the reactivity series.
Q28A student makes copper sulfate crystals by adding excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Why is the copper oxide added in excess?
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Correct: (A)
Excess insoluble base ensures every bit of acid is neutralised; the leftover solid is then removed by filtration.
Q29Which ion is present in all acidic solutions?
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Correct: (B)
Acids release hydrogen ions, H^+, in aqueous solution, and it is these ions that make solutions acidic.
Q30Cryolite is added to aluminium oxide before electrolysis in the extraction of aluminium in order to…
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Correct: (C)
Aluminium oxide melts at over 2000 °C; dissolving it in cryolite lowers the working temperature and greatly reduces the energy cost.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?
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Correct: (D)
In an exothermic reaction energy is transferred to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings increases.
Q32Use the bond energies (H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol) to calculate the energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.
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Correct: (A)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. Overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol (exothermic).
Q33On a reaction profile, the level of the products is lower than the level of the reactants. The reaction is…
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Correct: (B)
If the products have less energy than the reactants, the difference has been released to the surroundings, so the reaction is exothermic.
Q34In a simple cell made from two different metals dipped into an electrolyte, the size of the voltage depends mainly on…
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Correct: (C)
The further apart the two metals are in the reactivity series, the greater the voltage produced by the cell.
Q35A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity from hydrogen and oxygen. The overall chemical change in the cell is…
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Correct: (D)
The fuel cell combines hydrogen with oxygen to form water, releasing energy as electricity.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because the particles…
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Correct: (A)
At a higher temperature particles move faster, collide more often, and more of the collisions have enough energy to react.
Q37A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst offers a different route for the reaction with a lower activation energy, so more collisions succeed; the catalyst is not used up.
Q38A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Mean rate = quantity of product formed / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.
Q39A reversible reaction in a closed system is at equilibrium when…
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Correct: (D)
At equilibrium both reactions continue at the same rate, so there is no overall change in the amounts of substances.
Q40Ammonia is made by the reversible reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, which is exothermic in the forward direction. What happens to the yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (A)
Increasing the temperature favours the endothermic (reverse) reaction, so the equilibrium moves left and less ammonia is present at equilibrium.
Q41For a reversible reaction involving gases, increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards…
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Correct: (B)
Increasing the pressure favours the side with fewer molecules of gas, because that side occupies a smaller volume.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42Crude oil is best described as…
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Correct: (C)
Crude oil is a finite resource containing a mixture of many different hydrocarbon compounds, mainly alkanes.
Q43In the fractional distillation of crude oil, the fractions are separated because the hydrocarbons have different…
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Correct: (D)
Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column according to its boiling point range; shorter chains have lower boiling points and rise further.
Q44What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (A)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2; for example propane is C3H8.
Q45Which test shows that a hydrocarbon is an alkene rather than an alkane?
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Correct: (B)
Alkenes are unsaturated and react with bromine in an addition reaction, decolourising bromine water; alkanes do not.
Q46Ethanol for drinks and biofuels can be produced by fermentation. The conditions needed are…
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Correct: (C)
Yeast enzymes convert sugars such as glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide without oxygen, most effectively at around 37 °C.
Q47Poly(propene) is made by joining together many propene molecules. This type of polymerisation is called…
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Correct: (D)
In addition polymerisation the C=C double bonds in the monomers open up and the monomers add together to form one long polymer molecule, with no other product.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48In a chromatography experiment, a dye moves 4.0 cm while the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?
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Correct: (A)
Rf = distance moved by the substance / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 10.0 = 0.4.
Q49Chlorine gas is tested for by holding damp litmus paper in the gas. What is observed?
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper white (it may turn red briefly first because chlorine water is acidic).
Q50A flame test is carried out on a compound containing lithium ions. The flame colour is…
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Correct: (C)
Lithium compounds give a crimson red flame (potassium gives lilac, sodium gives yellow and calcium gives orange-red).
Q51To test a solution for sulfate ions, dilute hydrochloric acid is added, followed by barium chloride solution. A positive result is…
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Correct: (D)
Barium sulfate is insoluble and forms a white precipitate; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions that would also give a white precipitate.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of…
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Correct: (A)
Volcanic activity released gases; the early atmosphere was mostly carbon dioxide, like that of Mars and Venus today, with nitrogen and water vapour.
Q53Which pair of gases are both greenhouse gases?
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Correct: (B)
Carbon dioxide and methane absorb infrared radiation radiated by the Earth and are the main greenhouse gases linked to human activity.
Q54The carbon footprint of a product is defined as…
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Correct: (C)
The carbon footprint measures all greenhouse gas emissions (expressed as carbon dioxide equivalents) from making, using and disposing of a product.
Q55Which pollutant gas from burning fossil fuels is the main cause of acid rain?
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Correct: (D)
Sulfur dioxide, formed from sulfur impurities in fossil fuels, dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Potable water is made safe by sterilisation (for example with chlorine). The purpose of sterilisation is to…
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Correct: (A)
Sterilising agents such as chlorine, ozone or ultraviolet light kill harmful microorganisms, making water safe to drink; insoluble solids are removed by filtration and sedimentation beforehand.
Q57Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?
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Correct: (B)
The Haber process uses a temperature of about 450 °C (a compromise for rate and yield), 200 atmospheres pressure and an iron catalyst.
Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product considers…
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Correct: (C)
An LCA assesses environmental impact when obtaining raw materials, during manufacture, during use and during disposal of the product.
Q59Recycling metals such as aluminium is important because it…
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Correct: (D)
Recycling uses far less energy than extracting metals from ores and preserves finite resources, as well as reducing waste and pollution.
Q60Bioleaching is a method of extracting a metal from a low-grade ore. It uses…
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Correct: (B)
In bioleaching, bacteria digest the ore and produce a leachate solution of metal ions, from which the metal is then obtained by displacement or electrolysis.
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