GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 3

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative charge of 0 and a relative mass of 1?

(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Electron
(D) Nucleus
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The neutron has no charge and a relative mass of 1; a proton has charge +1 and an electron has charge -1 with almost zero mass.

Q2A sodium atom has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?

(A) 11
(B) 23
(C) 12
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.

Q3Isotopes of the same element have the same number of protons but a different number of what?

(A) Neutrons
(B) Electrons in compounds
(C) Electron shells
(D) Charges
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Isotopes have the same atomic number (protons) but different mass numbers because their nuclei contain different numbers of neutrons.

Q4Magnesium has atomic number 12. What is its electronic structure?

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,2,8
(C) 8,2,2
(D) 2,8,2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

12 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 2 in the third shell.

Q5Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his periodic table?

(A) So that the table would look symmetrical
(B) He predicted that new elements would be discovered to fill them
(C) He had run out of ideas for that row
(D) The elements in the gaps were too reactive to include
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements and correctly predicted their properties, which is why his table was accepted.

Q6The reactivity of Group 1 metals increases down the group because…

(A) the outer electron is further from the nucleus, so the attraction is weaker and it is lost more easily
(B) the atoms become smaller down the group
(C) the outer electron is held more strongly down the group
(D) the metals have more electron shells filled completely
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Down the group the outer electron is in a shell further from the nucleus and is shielded more, so it is lost more easily and reactions are more vigorous.

Q7A chloride ion, Cl-, is formed from a chlorine atom with atomic number 17. How many electrons does the chloride ion have?

(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The atom gains one electron to form the negative ion: 17 + 1 = 18 electrons.

Q8Which statement describes a property of transition metals?

(A) They form only colourless compounds
(B) They all have a charge of +1 on their ions
(C) They are soft and can be cut with a knife
(D) They form ions with different charges and many of their compounds are coloured
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition elements form coloured compounds and their ions can have variable charges, unlike Group 1 metals.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Why does solid sodium chloride not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does?

(A) In the solid the ions are locked in a lattice and cannot move; when molten the ions are free to move to the electrodes
(B) The solid has no charged particles in it
(C) Melting turns the ions into electrons
(D) The solid conducts only at very low temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ionic compounds conduct when their ions are free to move, which happens when the compound is molten or dissolved, not in the solid lattice.

Q10Diamond is one of the hardest known substances because…

(A) it contains delocalised electrons between the atoms
(B) each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a giant structure
(C) the atoms are held together by weak intermolecular forces
(D) it is made of separate small molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In diamond every carbon atom is joined to four others by strong covalent bonds in a rigid giant lattice, so a large force is needed to break it.

Q11Graphite can conduct electricity because…

(A) its layers slide over each other carrying a current
(B) it contains metal impurities
(C) each carbon atom has one delocalised electron that can move through the structure
(D) it dissolves in water to form ions
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each carbon atom in graphite forms three bonds, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that is free to move and carry charge.

Q12Buckminsterfullerene (C60) is best described as…

(A) a giant ionic lattice
(B) a sheet of carbon one atom thick
(C) a long chain polymer
(D) a hollow sphere of carbon atoms forming rings
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Fullerenes are molecules of carbon atoms arranged in closed cages; C60 forms a spherical cage of hexagonal and pentagonal rings.

Q13What is metallic bonding?

(A) A pair of electrons shared between two atoms
(B) A lattice of positive metal ions surrounded by a sea of delocalised electrons
(C) Electrons transferred from a metal to a non-metal
(D) Weak forces between separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metallic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between positive metal ions and the delocalised electrons around them.

Q14What is the approximate size range of nanoparticles?

(A) 1 to 100 nm
(B) 1 to 100 mm
(C) 0.01 to 0.1 nm
(D) 1000 to 10000 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nanoparticles are structures between 1 nm and 100 nm in size, containing a few hundred atoms.

Q15Alloys are harder than pure metals because…

(A) alloys contain no delocalised electrons
(B) atoms of different sizes distort the layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other as easily
(C) alloys always have a higher density
(D) the atoms in alloys are joined by covalent bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a pure metal the regular layers slide easily; in an alloy, different-sized atoms disrupt the layers and stop them sliding, making the alloy harder.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 68
(B) 98
(C) 100
(D) 116
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.

Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.5 mol
(B) 2 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 4.8 g of magnesium? (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr of MgO = 40)

(A) 4.8 g
(B) 2.4 g
(C) 9.6 g
(D) 8.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of Mg = 4.8 / 24 = 0.2 mol, so 0.2 mol of MgO is formed. Mass = 0.2 × 40 = 8.0 g.

Q19A student dissolves 0.50 mol of sodium hydroxide in water and makes the volume up to 250 cm^3. What is the concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(B) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 0.20 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Volume = 250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3. Concentration = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q20A reaction should produce 40 g of a product but only 32 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 8%
(B) 125%
(C) 80%
(D) 32%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage yield = (32 / 40) × 100 = 80%.

Q21Calcium carbonate is heated: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What is the atom economy for making calcium oxide, CaO? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56, CO2 = 44)

(A) 44%
(B) 56%
(C) 100%
(D) 36%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Atom economy = Mr of desired product / Mr of all products × 100 = 56 / 100 × 100 = 56%.

Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of oxygen gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at r.t.p.)

(A) 96 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 12 dm^3
(D) 6 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23A solution has a pH of 7. This means the solution is…

(A) a strong acid
(B) a weak acid
(C) neutral
(D) a strong alkali
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

pH 7 is neutral; below 7 is acidic and above 7 is alkaline.

Q24Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. The products are…

(A) calcium hydroxide, hydrogen and water
(B) calcium sulfate and water
(C) calcium chloride and carbon dioxide only
(D) calcium chloride, water and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide, so the products are calcium chloride, water and carbon dioxide.

Q25Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Lead metal
(B) Bromine gas
(C) Hydrogen gas
(D) Oxygen gas
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Positively charged lead ions (Pb^2+) move to the negative cathode, gain electrons and form lead metal.

Q26During the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution, hydrogen is produced at the cathode instead of sodium because…

(A) hydrogen ions are already present in the solid salt
(B) sodium is a gas at room temperature
(C) sodium is more reactive than hydrogen, so hydrogen ions are discharged in preference
(D) chlorine neutralises the sodium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the cathode the less reactive element is discharged; hydrogen is less reactive than sodium, so H^+ ions form hydrogen gas and sodium stays in solution.

Q27Which metal will displace copper from a solution of copper sulfate?

(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper itself cannot be displaced
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its compound; zinc is above copper in the reactivity series.

Q28A student makes copper sulfate crystals by adding excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. Why is the copper oxide added in excess?

(A) To make sure all of the sulfuric acid reacts (is used up)
(B) To make the solution turn blue faster
(C) To stop the acid from evaporating
(D) To increase the temperature of the acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Excess insoluble base ensures every bit of acid is neutralised; the leftover solid is then removed by filtration.

Q29Which ion is present in all acidic solutions?

(A) OH-
(B) H+
(C) Cl-
(D) SO4^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acids release hydrogen ions, H^+, in aqueous solution, and it is these ions that make solutions acidic.

Q30Cryolite is added to aluminium oxide before electrolysis in the extraction of aluminium in order to…

(A) make the aluminium purer
(B) act as the positive electrode
(C) lower the melting temperature of the mixture so less energy is needed
(D) supply extra oxygen for the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Aluminium oxide melts at over 2000 °C; dissolving it in cryolite lowers the working temperature and greatly reduces the energy cost.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which observation shows that a reaction is exothermic?

(A) The temperature of the surroundings falls
(B) The reaction mixture becomes colder
(C) Energy is taken in from the surroundings
(D) The temperature of the surroundings rises
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In an exothermic reaction energy is transferred to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings increases.

Q32Use the bond energies (H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol) to calculate the energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.

(A) -184 kJ/mol
(B) +184 kJ/mol
(C) -862 kJ/mol
(D) -243 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. Overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol (exothermic).

Q33On a reaction profile, the level of the products is lower than the level of the reactants. The reaction is…

(A) endothermic, because energy is absorbed overall
(B) exothermic, because energy is released overall
(C) at equilibrium
(D) a neutralisation
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

If the products have less energy than the reactants, the difference has been released to the surroundings, so the reaction is exothermic.

Q34In a simple cell made from two different metals dipped into an electrolyte, the size of the voltage depends mainly on…

(A) the colour of the metals
(B) the volume of the electrolyte
(C) the difference in reactivity between the two metals
(D) the shape of the container
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The further apart the two metals are in the reactivity series, the greater the voltage produced by the cell.

Q35A hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity from hydrogen and oxygen. The overall chemical change in the cell is…

(A) hydrogen + oxygen → carbon dioxide
(B) hydrogen → oxygen + water
(C) water → hydrogen + oxygen
(D) hydrogen + oxygen → water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The fuel cell combines hydrogen with oxygen to form water, releasing energy as electricity.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because the particles…

(A) collide more frequently and a greater proportion of the collisions have at least the activation energy
(B) move more slowly so they meet more gently
(C) have a smaller total surface area
(D) no longer need any activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At a higher temperature particles move faster, collide more often, and more of the collisions have enough energy to react.

Q37A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…

(A) increasing the temperature of the mixture
(B) providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) being used up slowly during the reaction
(D) increasing the concentration of the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst offers a different route for the reaction with a lower activation energy, so more collisions succeed; the catalyst is not used up.

Q38A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 30 cm^3/s
(C) 2 cm^3/s
(D) 1800 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mean rate = quantity of product formed / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.

Q39A reversible reaction in a closed system is at equilibrium when…

(A) all of the reactants have been used up
(B) the concentrations of reactants and products are exactly equal
(C) the chemical reaction has completely stopped
(D) the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At equilibrium both reactions continue at the same rate, so there is no overall change in the amounts of substances.

Q40Ammonia is made by the reversible reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, which is exothermic in the forward direction. What happens to the yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?

(A) The yield decreases because the equilibrium shifts in the endothermic direction
(B) The yield increases because the molecules collide harder
(C) The yield is unchanged
(D) The yield increases because the equilibrium shifts to the right
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Increasing the temperature favours the endothermic (reverse) reaction, so the equilibrium moves left and less ammonia is present at equilibrium.

Q41For a reversible reaction involving gases, increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards…

(A) the side with more gas molecules
(B) the side with fewer gas molecules
(C) the products in every case
(D) neither side; pressure never has an effect
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Increasing the pressure favours the side with fewer molecules of gas, because that side occupies a smaller volume.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Crude oil is best described as…

(A) a pure element
(B) a single pure compound
(C) a mixture of hydrocarbons, most of which are alkanes
(D) a mixture of dissolved metals
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Crude oil is a finite resource containing a mixture of many different hydrocarbon compounds, mainly alkanes.

Q43In the fractional distillation of crude oil, the fractions are separated because the hydrocarbons have different…

(A) colours
(B) densities in the solid state
(C) melting points only
(D) boiling points (boiling ranges)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column according to its boiling point range; shorter chains have lower boiling points and rise further.

Q44What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn+2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2; for example propane is C3H8.

Q45Which test shows that a hydrocarbon is an alkene rather than an alkane?

(A) It burns with a blue flame
(B) It turns bromine water from orange to colourless
(C) It turns limewater milky
(D) It produces a pop with a lighted splint
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkenes are unsaturated and react with bromine in an addition reaction, decolourising bromine water; alkanes do not.

Q46Ethanol for drinks and biofuels can be produced by fermentation. The conditions needed are…

(A) high pressure and a catalyst
(B) steam at 300 °C
(C) glucose solution with yeast, in anaerobic conditions at about 37 °C
(D) electrolysis of water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Yeast enzymes convert sugars such as glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide without oxygen, most effectively at around 37 °C.

Q47Poly(propene) is made by joining together many propene molecules. This type of polymerisation is called…

(A) condensation polymerisation
(B) cracking
(C) fermentation
(D) addition polymerisation
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In addition polymerisation the C=C double bonds in the monomers open up and the monomers add together to form one long polymer molecule, with no other product.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48In a chromatography experiment, a dye moves 4.0 cm while the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?

(A) 0.4
(B) 2.5
(C) 0.04
(D) 4.0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rf = distance moved by the substance / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 10.0 = 0.4.

Q49Chlorine gas is tested for by holding damp litmus paper in the gas. What is observed?

(A) The paper turns blue
(B) The paper is bleached white
(C) The paper turns red and stays red
(D) The paper catches light
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper white (it may turn red briefly first because chlorine water is acidic).

Q50A flame test is carried out on a compound containing lithium ions. The flame colour is…

(A) lilac
(B) orange-yellow
(C) crimson red
(D) blue-green
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Lithium compounds give a crimson red flame (potassium gives lilac, sodium gives yellow and calcium gives orange-red).

Q51To test a solution for sulfate ions, dilute hydrochloric acid is added, followed by barium chloride solution. A positive result is…

(A) a yellow precipitate
(B) bubbles of carbon dioxide
(C) a cream precipitate
(D) a white precipitate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Barium sulfate is insoluble and forms a white precipitate; the acid is added first to remove carbonate ions that would also give a white precipitate.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of…

(A) carbon dioxide, with water vapour and small amounts of other gases
(B) oxygen and nitrogen, like today
(C) pure methane
(D) hydrogen only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volcanic activity released gases; the early atmosphere was mostly carbon dioxide, like that of Mars and Venus today, with nitrogen and water vapour.

Q53Which pair of gases are both greenhouse gases?

(A) Oxygen and nitrogen
(B) Carbon dioxide and methane
(C) Argon and methane
(D) Nitrogen and carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon dioxide and methane absorb infrared radiation radiated by the Earth and are the main greenhouse gases linked to human activity.

Q54The carbon footprint of a product is defined as…

(A) the mass of soot the product produces
(B) the amount of carbon in the product itself
(C) the total amount of greenhouse gases emitted over the whole life cycle of the product
(D) the size of the factory that makes the product
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The carbon footprint measures all greenhouse gas emissions (expressed as carbon dioxide equivalents) from making, using and disposing of a product.

Q55Which pollutant gas from burning fossil fuels is the main cause of acid rain?

(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon particulates
(D) Sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur dioxide, formed from sulfur impurities in fossil fuels, dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Potable water is made safe by sterilisation (for example with chlorine). The purpose of sterilisation is to…

(A) kill microbes in the water
(B) remove dissolved salts
(C) improve the flavour of the water
(D) remove solid particles
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sterilising agents such as chlorine, ozone or ultraviolet light kill harmful microorganisms, making water safe to drink; insoluble solids are removed by filtration and sedimentation beforehand.

Q57Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?

(A) 25 °C, 1 atmosphere, no catalyst
(B) 450 °C, 200 atmospheres pressure, iron catalyst
(C) 1000 °C, low pressure, nickel catalyst
(D) 150 °C, 500 atmospheres, platinum catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The Haber process uses a temperature of about 450 °C (a compromise for rate and yield), 200 atmospheres pressure and an iron catalyst.

Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product considers…

(A) only the cost of manufacture
(B) only how the product is used
(C) the environmental impact at every stage of the product's life
(D) only the advertising of the product
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An LCA assesses environmental impact when obtaining raw materials, during manufacture, during use and during disposal of the product.

Q59Recycling metals such as aluminium is important because it…

(A) makes the metal stronger
(B) increases the amount of metal ore available underground
(C) creates new metal atoms
(D) saves energy and conserves the limited supplies of metal ores
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Recycling uses far less energy than extracting metals from ores and preserves finite resources, as well as reducing waste and pollution.

Q60Bioleaching is a method of extracting a metal from a low-grade ore. It uses…

(A) plants that absorb the metal
(B) bacteria that produce a solution (leachate) containing metal ions
(C) strong magnets to attract the metal
(D) electrolysis of the solid ore
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In bioleaching, bacteria digest the ore and produce a leachate solution of metal ions, from which the metal is then obtained by displacement or electrolysis.