GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 20

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom has a mass number of 39 and an atomic number of 19. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 19
(B) 58
(C) 20
(D) 39
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 39 – 19 = 20.

Q2The atomic number of an element is the number of…

(A) protons in each atom
(B) neutrons in each atom
(C) electrons in each ion
(D) protons and neutrons in each atom
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The atomic number (proton number) defines the element; every atom of the same element has the same number of protons.

Q3An atom has the electronic structure 2,8,7. To which group of the periodic table does it belong?

(A) Group 1
(B) Group 2
(C) Group 0
(D) Group 7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

There are 7 electrons in the outer shell, so the element is in Group 7 (the halogens).

Q4A magnesium atom forms a magnesium ion, Mg^2+. The atom does this by…

(A) gaining two electrons
(B) losing two electrons
(C) gaining two protons
(D) losing two neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metals lose electrons to form positive ions; losing two electrons gives an overall charge of 2+.

Q5The Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because…

(A) the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily
(B) the atoms become smaller down the group
(C) the atoms have fewer electron shells down the group
(D) the melting points increase down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Down the group the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is attracted less strongly and lost more easily.

Q6The noble gases are very unreactive because their atoms…

(A) are all gases at room temperature
(B) have very low boiling points
(C) contain no electrons
(D) have a full outer shell of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With a complete outer shell, noble gas atoms do not need to gain, lose or share electrons, so they are stable and unreactive.

Q7Magnesium has three isotopes: magnesium-24 (80%), magnesium-25 (10%) and magnesium-26 (10%). What is the relative atomic mass of magnesium?

(A) 24.0
(B) 25.0
(C) 24.3
(D) 24.5
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

(80 × 24 + 10 × 25 + 10 × 26) / 100 = (1920 + 250 + 260) / 100 = 24.3.

Q8Which statement describes the transition elements?

(A) They form only colourless compounds
(B) They form coloured compounds and many act as catalysts
(C) They react violently with cold water
(D) They have very low melting points
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Transition elements form coloured compounds, have ions with different charges, and several (such as iron) are used as catalysts.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Calcium ions have a charge of 2+ and chloride ions a charge of 1-. What is the formula of calcium chloride?

(A) CaCl
(B) CaCl2
(C) Ca2Cl
(D) CaCl3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Two chloride ions are needed to balance the 2+ charge of one calcium ion, giving CaCl2.

Q10The bonds in an ammonia molecule, NH3, are…

(A) ionic
(B) metallic
(C) giant covalent
(D) covalent
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Nitrogen and hydrogen are non-metals that share pairs of electrons, forming covalent bonds in simple molecules.

Q11Graphite is used as a lubricant because…

(A) the layers of atoms can slide over each other, as the forces between layers are weak
(B) it is the hardest natural substance
(C) it contains free-moving ions
(D) it has a very high melting point
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The layers in graphite are held together only by weak forces, so they slide over each other easily.

Q12Metals are good conductors of electricity because…

(A) their ions can move freely in the solid
(B) their atoms share electrons in pairs
(C) delocalised electrons can move through the structure
(D) their protons can move through the structure
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The outer electrons of metal atoms form a sea of delocalised electrons that can move and carry charge.

Q13Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does. This is because in the molten state…

(A) the electrons become delocalised
(B) the ions are free to move
(C) the ions join into molecules
(D) the bonds become covalent
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In the solid the ions are locked in the lattice; when molten (or dissolved) the ions can move to the electrodes and carry charge.

Q14Buckminsterfullerene has the formula C60. Its structure is…

(A) flat layers of atoms
(B) a giant lattice of ions
(C) a long tube of atoms
(D) a hollow sphere of carbon atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

C60 is a spherical fullerene in which 60 carbon atoms form a hollow ball; long tubes describe nanotubes instead.

Q15Silicon dioxide (sand) has a very high melting point because it has…

(A) a giant covalent structure with strong bonds throughout
(B) weak forces between small molecules
(C) ionic bonds involving small ions
(D) delocalised electrons throughout
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Every silicon and oxygen atom is joined by strong covalent bonds in a giant network, so a large amount of energy is needed to break it down.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 49
(B) 82
(C) 66
(D) 98
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

(2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.

Q17How many moles are there in 11 g of carbon dioxide, CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44)

(A) 4 mol
(B) 0.5 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 484 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = mass / Mr = 11 / 44 = 0.25 mol.

Q18How many moles of sodium hydroxide are there in 25 cm^3 of a 0.4 mol/dm^3 solution?

(A) 0.1 mol
(B) 0.01 mol
(C) 10 mol
(D) 0.016 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = concentration × volume in dm^3 = 0.4 × 0.025 = 0.01 mol.

Q19A student dissolves 20 g of sodium chloride in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 40 g/dm^3
(B) 10 g/dm^3
(C) 20 g/dm^3
(D) 0.04 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3, so concentration = 20 / 0.5 = 40 g/dm^3.

Q20A reaction has a theoretical yield of 6.0 g. The actual yield obtained is 4.5 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 45%
(B) 60%
(C) 133%
(D) 75%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (4.5 / 6.0) × 100 = 75%.

Q21Copper carbonate decomposes when heated: CuCO3 → CuO + CO2. Copper oxide is the desired product. Approximately what is the atom economy? (Mr: CuCO3 = 124, CuO = 80)

(A) 35%
(B) 100%
(C) 65%
(D) 44%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Atom economy = (80 / 124) × 100 = 64.5%, approximately 65%.

Q22A piece of magnesium weighing 2.4 g (0.1 mol) reacts with excess acid to produce hydrogen: Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2. What volume of hydrogen is produced at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3.)

(A) 0.24 dm^3
(B) 2.4 dm^3
(C) 24 dm^3
(D) 1.2 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

0.1 mol of Mg produces 0.1 mol of H2; volume = 0.1 × 24 = 2.4 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid. The products are…

(A) magnesium chloride and hydrogen
(B) magnesium chloride and oxygen
(C) magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen
(D) magnesium chloride and chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen; hydrochloric acid gives chloride salts.

Q24Which ion is released by all alkalis in aqueous solution?

(A) H^+
(B) Na^+
(C) Cl^-
(D) OH^-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkalis are soluble bases that release hydroxide ions, OH^-, in solution, giving pH values above 7.

Q25To prepare pure crystals of a soluble salt from an acid and an insoluble base, the excess base is removed from the mixture by…

(A) titration
(B) distillation
(C) filtration
(D) electrolysis
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Excess insoluble base is added to warm acid, the leftover solid is filtered off, and the filtrate is then crystallised.

Q26Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite. The cryolite is used to…

(A) act as the positive electrode
(B) lower the melting point of the aluminium oxide
(C) make the aluminium more reactive
(D) supply the oxygen for the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Cryolite lowers the melting point (to about 950°C), reducing the energy needed compared with melting pure aluminium oxide at over 2000°C.

Q27Which of these metals is the most reactive?

(A) Potassium
(B) Zinc
(C) Iron
(D) Copper
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Potassium is near the top of the reactivity series and reacts very vigorously with cold water; copper is near the bottom.

Q28Iron wool is placed in blue copper sulfate solution. The blue colour fades and a brown coating forms on the iron because…

(A) copper is more reactive than iron
(B) copper displaces iron from its compound
(C) iron sulfate solution is blue
(D) iron is more reactive than copper, so iron displaces copper
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Iron is higher in the reactivity series, so it displaces copper: Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu.

Q29Copper sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the positive electrode (anode)?

(A) Copper
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydroxide ions from the water are discharged at the anode to give oxygen; copper forms at the cathode.

Q30During electrolysis, positive metal ions move to the cathode and form metal atoms. This is a reduction because the ions…

(A) lose electrons
(B) gain electrons
(C) gain protons
(D) lose neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Reduction is the gain of electrons (OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain).

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which of these processes is endothermic?

(A) Combustion of methane
(B) Neutralisation of an acid with an alkali
(C) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(D) Condensation of steam
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings to break the compound down, so it is endothermic; combustion and neutralisation are exothermic.

Q32Use these bond energies (kJ/mol): N≡N = 941, H-H = 436, N-H = 391. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, what is the overall energy change?

(A) +97 kJ/mol
(B) -97 kJ/mol
(C) -2249 kJ/mol
(D) +2249 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy to break bonds = 941 + (3 × 436) = 2249; energy released forming bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346; ΔH = 2249 – 2346 = -97 kJ/mol.

Q33On the reaction profile for an exothermic reaction…

(A) the products have more energy than the reactants
(B) the curve rises continuously from reactants to products
(C) the activation energy is always zero
(D) the products have less energy than the reactants because energy is released to the surroundings
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In an exothermic reaction the products sit lower on the energy diagram than the reactants; the difference is given out as heat.

Q34A hydrogen fuel cell differs from a simple chemical cell because in a fuel cell…

(A) the reactants are supplied continuously from outside the cell
(B) carbon dioxide is produced as the waste product
(C) no voltage can be produced
(D) the cell must be recharged before every use
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Fuel cells are fed with hydrogen and oxygen from external supplies, so they keep working while fuel is supplied, producing only water.

Q35In a rechargeable battery…

(A) the reactions cannot be reversed
(B) the battery must be thrown away after a single use
(C) the chemical reactions are reversed when an external electric current is supplied
(D) there is no electrolyte present
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Passing a current from a charger reverses the cell reactions, restoring the original reactants so the battery can be used again.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36A reaction produces 100 cm^3 of gas in 25 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction?

(A) 0.25 cm^3/s
(B) 4 cm^3/s
(C) 25 cm^3/s
(D) 2500 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mean rate = 100 / 25 = 4 cm^3/s.

Q37Increasing the concentration of a solution increases the rate of reaction because…

(A) the activation energy decreases
(B) the particles move faster
(C) the particles become smaller
(D) there are more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A higher concentration means particles are closer together, giving more frequent collisions and a faster rate.

Q38Two reactions are compared on a graph of volume of gas against time. The faster reaction is the one with…

(A) the steepest gradient at the start
(B) the lowest final volume of gas
(C) the longest reaction time
(D) a completely flat line
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The gradient of the graph is the rate, so the steepest initial gradient shows the fastest reaction.

Q39In the Contact process reaction, 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3, the forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of sulfur trioxide if the temperature is increased?

(A) The yield increases
(B) The yield stays exactly the same
(C) The yield decreases because equilibrium moves in the endothermic direction
(D) The reaction stops completely
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Raising the temperature favours the endothermic (backward) reaction, so the equilibrium moves left and less SO3 is present.

Q40For an equilibrium in which the forward reaction is endothermic, increasing the temperature will move the position of equilibrium…

(A) to the left
(B) to the right, in the endothermic direction
(C) to neither side
(D) only towards the side with more molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An increase in temperature always favours the endothermic direction, so here equilibrium shifts to the right.

Q41What is the effect of adding a catalyst to a reversible reaction at equilibrium?

(A) It increases the yield of products
(B) It moves the equilibrium towards the products
(C) It moves the equilibrium towards the reactants
(D) It increases the rate at which equilibrium is reached but does not change the yield
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst speeds up the forward and backward reactions equally, so equilibrium is reached sooner but its position is unchanged.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42In a fractionating column used to separate crude oil, the fractions with the lowest boiling points are collected…

(A) at the top of the column
(B) at the bottom of the column
(C) halfway up the column
(D) outside the column
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The column is hottest at the bottom and coolest at the top, so the lowest-boiling fractions rise highest before condensing.

Q43Which formula represents an alkene?

(A) C2H6
(B) C3H8
(C) C3H6
(D) C4H10
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes fit the general formula CnH2n; for n = 3 this gives C3H6. The others are alkanes (CnH2n+2).

Q44Long-chain hydrocarbons are cracked to make them more useful. Cracking decane (C10H22) can produce…

(A) only shorter alkanes
(B) only alkenes
(C) only carbon and hydrogen
(D) a shorter alkane and an alkene
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cracking breaks long alkanes into shorter, more useful alkanes plus alkenes, e.g. C10H22 → C6H14 + C4H8.

Q45Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol to form an ester and water. The ester is called…

(A) ethyl ethanoate
(B) methyl ethanoate
(C) ethyl methanoate
(D) propyl ethanoate
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The ester takes its first name from the alcohol (ethyl from ethanol) and its second name from the carboxylic acid (ethanoate from ethanoic acid).

Q46Condensation polymerisation differs from addition polymerisation because in condensation polymerisation…

(A) no monomers are needed
(B) the polymer is the only product
(C) a small molecule such as water is also produced for each bond formed
(D) it can only take place in living cells
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In condensation polymerisation, monomers join together and lose small molecules such as water, as in the formation of polyesters.

Q47What are the products of the complete combustion of methane?

(A) Carbon monoxide and water
(B) Carbon and water
(C) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Complete combustion: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48A formulation, such as a paint or a medicine, is best described as…

(A) a single pure substance
(B) a mixture that has been carefully designed as a useful product
(C) any mixture found in nature
(D) a compound with a fixed chemical formula
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Formulations are mixtures mixed in carefully measured quantities so that the product has the required properties.

Q49In a chromatography experiment the solvent front moves 9.0 cm and a coloured spot moves 3.6 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?

(A) 0.4
(B) 2.5
(C) 0.9
(D) 5.4
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rf = 3.6 / 9.0 = 0.4.

Q50Which test identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) It turns limewater milky
(B) It bleaches damp litmus paper
(C) It relights a glowing splint
(D) A lit splint gives a squeaky pop
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lit splint is held at the mouth of the tube.

Q51To test for sulfate ions, dilute hydrochloric acid and then barium chloride solution are added. A positive result is…

(A) a yellow precipitate
(B) vigorous effervescence
(C) a white precipitate
(D) a deep blue solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfate ions form a white precipitate of barium sulfate with barium chloride solution (the acid removes carbonate ions that would also give a white precipitate).

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is oxygen?

(A) 21%
(B) 78%
(C) 0.04%
(D) 1%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Air contains about 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen and small amounts of argon (about 1%) and carbon dioxide (about 0.04%).

Q53The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of…

(A) oxygen
(B) nitrogen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Intense volcanic activity released gases, so the early atmosphere was mostly carbon dioxide with little or no oxygen, similar to Mars and Venus today.

Q54Much of the carbon dioxide from the early atmosphere became locked up in…

(A) the Moon
(B) sedimentary rocks, fossil fuels and the oceans
(C) clouds
(D) the ice caps only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans and was taken up by organisms; their remains formed sedimentary rocks such as limestone and fossil fuels.

Q55Carbon monoxide, formed by incomplete combustion of fuels, is dangerous because it…

(A) is toxic and reduces the amount of oxygen carried by the blood
(B) is the main cause of acid rain
(C) acts only as a greenhouse gas
(D) is the main cause of damage to the ozone layer
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon monoxide is a colourless, odourless, toxic gas that binds to haemoglobin and prevents the blood carrying enough oxygen.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Which of these is a stage in the treatment of waste water?

(A) Fractional distillation
(B) Electrolysis of the water
(C) Sedimentation to form sludge and effluent
(D) Cracking of the sludge
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Waste water is screened, then sedimentation separates sludge from effluent, which is treated by aerobic biological processes.

Q57Phytomining is a method of extracting copper compounds. It involves…

(A) heating the ore with carbon
(B) growing plants that absorb copper compounds, then burning the plants to obtain ash
(C) using bacteria to produce a leachate
(D) electrolysing seawater
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Plants absorb copper compounds from low-grade ores and concentrate them; the ash from burning the harvested plants is rich in copper. Using bacteria describes bioleaching instead.

Q58Iron rusts when it is kept in contact with…

(A) oxygen only
(B) water only
(C) carbon dioxide only
(D) both water and oxygen (air)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rusting needs both water and oxygen; iron kept in only one of them does not rust, which is why barrier coatings and galvanising work.

Q59NPK fertilisers are used in agriculture because they supply plants with the elements…

(A) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(B) nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium
(C) sodium, potassium and iron
(D) nitrogen, potassium and sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

NPK fertilisers contain compounds of nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K), the three elements plants need in the largest amounts.

Q60Sea water can be made potable by desalination using distillation or reverse osmosis. The main disadvantage of these processes is that they…

(A) do not kill microbes in the water
(B) require large amounts of energy
(C) leave the water too salty to drink
(D) add harmful chemicals to the water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Desalination works but needs a lot of energy, making it expensive and impractical in many places; the water produced is safe and drinkable.