GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 2

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative mass of 1 and a relative charge of +1?

(A) proton
(B) neutron
(C) electron
(D) molecule
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Protons are found in the nucleus and have a relative mass of 1 and a relative charge of +1.

Q2An atom of carbon has 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons. What is its mass number?

(A) 6
(B) 18
(C) 12
(D) 36
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 6 + 6 = 12.

Q3What is the electronic structure of a chlorine atom (atomic number 17)?

(A) 2,8,5
(B) 2,8,7
(C) 2,7,8
(D) 8,7,2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine has 17 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 7 in the third shell.

Q4How does the reactivity of the Group 1 metals change down the group?

(A) It stays the same
(B) It decreases down the group
(C) It decreases then increases
(D) It increases down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Down Group 1 the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily, so the metals become more reactive.

Q5Which statement about transition metals is correct?

(A) They have low melting points
(B) Many form coloured compounds and can act as catalysts
(C) They react violently with water
(D) They have only one possible ion charge and colourless compounds
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Transition metals form coloured compounds, often have ions with different charges and are widely used as catalysts.

Q6Chlorine water is added to potassium bromide solution and the mixture turns orange. This shows that:

(A) chlorine is more reactive than bromine and displaces it
(B) bromine is more reactive than chlorine
(C) chlorine is less reactive than bromine
(D) no reaction has taken place
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine is higher in Group 7, so it displaces the less reactive bromine from its compound, forming orange bromine.

Q7A sodium atom (2,8,1) forms a sodium ion by:

(A) gaining one electron
(B) gaining seven electrons
(C) losing one electron
(D) sharing one electron
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium loses its single outer electron to gain a full outer shell, forming an Na^+ ion.

Q8A sample of magnesium contains 75% magnesium-24 and 25% magnesium-26. What is its relative atomic mass?

(A) 24.0
(B) 25.0
(C) 26.0
(D) 24.5
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ar = (75 × 24 + 25 × 26) / 100 = (1800 + 650) / 100 = 24.5.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Water has a low boiling point for its mass because:

(A) only weak intermolecular forces need to be broken between its molecules
(B) its covalent bonds are very weak
(C) it has a giant structure
(D) it contains free electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Water consists of simple molecules; boiling only overcomes the weak forces between molecules, not the strong covalent bonds within them.

Q10Silicon dioxide has a very high melting point because it has:

(A) a simple molecular structure
(B) weak intermolecular forces
(C) a giant covalent structure in which many strong bonds must be broken
(D) layers that slide easily
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silicon dioxide is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure, so a large amount of energy is needed to break its many strong covalent bonds.

Q11Alloys are harder than pure metals because:

(A) they contain covalent bonds
(B) the different sized atoms distort the layers so they cannot slide easily
(C) they have delocalised electrons
(D) they are made of molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular layers, preventing them from sliding over each other.

Q12Buckminsterfullerene, C60, is an example of a:

(A) ionic compound
(B) metal
(C) giant covalent structure
(D) fullerene – a hollow ball-shaped molecule of carbon atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

C60 is a fullerene: its carbon atoms are arranged in a hollow sphere of rings.

Q13Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does, because:

(A) in the molten state the ions are free to move and carry charge
(B) melting releases electrons from the atoms
(C) the solid contains no ions
(D) molten sodium chloride is a metal
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In the solid the ions are held in fixed positions in the lattice; when molten they can move to the electrodes.

Q14Simple molecules such as carbon dioxide do not conduct electricity because:

(A) they contain no atoms
(B) their bonds are too strong
(C) the molecules have no overall charge and there are no free electrons or ions
(D) they are gases
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

There are no charged particles free to move in simple molecular substances, so they cannot carry an electric current.

Q15Thermosoftening polymers soften when heated because:

(A) all their covalent bonds break
(B) the forces between the polymer chains are weak and are overcome by heating
(C) they contain metal ions
(D) they react with oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Thermosoftening polymers have long chains held together only by weak intermolecular forces, with no cross-links, so they melt on heating.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 49
(B) 82
(C) 66
(D) 98
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 98.

Q17How many moles are there in 11 g of carbon dioxide, CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44)

(A) 0.25 mol
(B) 4.0 mol
(C) 0.50 mol
(D) 484 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 11 / 44 = 0.25 mol.

Q1810.0 g of calcium carbonate (Mr = 100) reacts completely with excess hydrochloric acid to give carbon dioxide. What mass of CO2 (Mr = 44) is produced?

(A) 10.0 g
(B) 2.2 g
(C) 4.4 g
(D) 44 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of CaCO3 = 10.0 / 100 = 0.10 mol, so moles of CO2 = 0.10; mass = 0.10 × 44 = 4.4 g.

Q1910 g of a salt is dissolved in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution in g/dm^3?

(A) 5 g/dm^3
(B) 20 g/dm^3
(C) 50 g/dm^3
(D) 2 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

500 cm^3 = 0.500 dm^3; concentration = 10 / 0.500 = 20 g/dm^3.

Q20In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of a 0.100 mol/dm^3 alkali is neutralised. How many moles of alkali were used?

(A) 0.00250 mol
(B) 2.50 mol
(C) 0.250 mol
(D) 0.0250 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = concentration × volume in dm^3 = 0.100 × 0.0250 = 0.00250 mol.

Q21A reaction has a theoretical yield of 20 g and an actual yield of 15 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 133%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (15 / 20) × 100 = 75%.

Q22The Haber process reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 has an atom economy of 100% because:

(A) it is very fast
(B) all the atoms in the reactants end up in the desired product, with no by-products
(C) it uses a catalyst
(D) ammonia is a gas
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

It is an addition-type reaction with a single product, so every atom of the reactants is incorporated into the ammonia.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23A solution with a pH of 12 is:

(A) a strong acid
(B) a weak acid
(C) neutral
(D) an alkali
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A pH well above 7 shows an alkaline solution containing OH^- ions.

Q24To prepare a pure sample of a soluble salt from an insoluble base and an acid, the correct steps are:

(A) add excess insoluble base to warm acid, filter, then crystallise the filtrate
(B) add alkali to the acid until the indicator changes colour, then boil dry
(C) mix the base and acid and evaporate all the water at once
(D) filter the base, then add acid to the solid left behind
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Excess insoluble base ensures all the acid reacts; filtering removes the unreacted base and crystallisation gives pure salt crystals.

Q25A weak acid differs from a strong acid of the same concentration because a weak acid:

(A) has a higher pH because it is dangerous
(B) contains no H^+ ions
(C) reacts more violently
(D) is only partially ionised in solution
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Strong acids ionise completely in water; weak acids, such as ethanoic acid, ionise only partially.

Q26Concentrated sodium chloride solution (brine) is electrolysed. The products are:

(A) sodium and chlorine
(B) hydrogen at the cathode, chlorine at the anode, leaving sodium hydroxide solution
(C) oxygen and sodium
(D) hydrogen and oxygen only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen forms at the cathode (sodium is too reactive), chlorine at the anode, and sodium hydroxide is left in solution.

Q27Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis rather than by reduction with carbon because:

(A) aluminium is more reactive than carbon, so carbon cannot remove the oxygen
(B) aluminium has a low melting point
(C) aluminium does not form an oxide
(D) carbon is too expensive
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metals above carbon in the reactivity series, like aluminium, must be extracted by electrolysis because carbon cannot displace them from their oxides.

Q28In terms of electrons, oxidation is:

(A) gain of electrons
(B) gain of oxygen only
(C) loss of electrons
(D) loss of hydrogen only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss of electrons, Reduction Is Gain of electrons.

Q29Iron is extracted from iron oxide in the blast furnace mainly by:

(A) electrolysis of the molten ore
(B) reaction with magnesium
(C) heating with zinc
(D) reduction with carbon (coke)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon removes the oxygen from iron oxide in the blast furnace.

Q30Magnesium ribbon is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. The products are:

(A) magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen
(B) magnesium chloride and hydrogen
(C) magnesium oxide and water
(D) magnesium chloride and oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen, so magnesium + hydrochloric acid gives magnesium chloride and hydrogen.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Using bond energies (H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol), calculate the energy change for: H2 + Br2 → 2HBr.

(A) +103 kJ/mol
(B) -559 kJ/mol
(C) -103 kJ/mol
(D) +629 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ; overall change = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.

Q32On the energy profile for an exothermic reaction, the products are:

(A) at a lower energy level than the reactants
(B) at a higher energy level than the reactants
(C) at exactly the same energy as the reactants
(D) above the activation energy peak
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In an exothermic reaction energy is given out, so the products have less energy than the reactants.

Q33Ordinary alkaline battery cells are non-rechargeable because:

(A) they contain too little reactant
(B) the chemicals are too expensive
(C) they produce hydrogen gas
(D) the chemical reactions inside them are not easily reversed
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In non-rechargeable cells the reaction cannot be reversed by passing a current; in rechargeable cells it can.

Q34A fuel is burned and the energy released heats 50 g of water, raising its temperature by 10 °C. How much energy is transferred to the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)

(A) 210 J
(B) 2100 J
(C) 21 J
(D) 21000 J
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 50 × 4.2 × 10 = 2100 J (2.1 kJ).

Q35A disadvantage of using hydrogen as a fuel in vehicles is that:

(A) hydrogen gas is difficult and expensive to store safely
(B) burning hydrogen produces carbon dioxide
(C) hydrogen cannot be burned in engines
(D) hydrogen produces acid rain
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen is a gas that must be stored under pressure in strong tanks; its only combustion product is water, but storage is a major problem.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Powdered calcium carbonate reacts faster with acid than lumps of the same mass because the powder has:

(A) a lower activation energy
(B) a higher temperature
(C) a different chemical formula
(D) a larger surface area, so collisions happen more frequently
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Powdering increases the surface area exposed to the acid, increasing the frequency of collisions and the rate of reaction.

Q37Three experiments are carried out and the volume of gas produced is plotted against time. The experiment with the fastest initial rate is the one whose curve:

(A) finishes at the lowest volume
(B) is a straight horizontal line
(C) has the steepest gradient at the start
(D) takes the longest time to finish
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The gradient of a volume-time graph represents the rate, so the steepest starting gradient is the fastest reaction.

Q38Increasing the concentration of an acid increases the rate of its reaction with magnesium because:

(A) the acid particles gain more energy
(B) the particles are closer together, so collisions are more frequent
(C) the activation energy is lowered
(D) the surface area of the magnesium increases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A higher concentration means more particles in the same volume, so collisions between particles occur more often.

Q39Lowering the temperature in the Haber process would increase the yield of ammonia, but it is not done too far because:

(A) it would make the rate of reaction too slow
(B) it would destroy the catalyst
(C) it would produce too much ammonia
(D) it would increase the pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The forward reaction is exothermic so lower temperatures favour yield, but very low temperatures make the reaction too slow; 450 °C is a compromise.

Q40Which of the following is a reversible reaction?

(A) Burning methane in air
(B) Heating ammonium chloride, which forms ammonia and hydrogen chloride that recombine on cooling
(C) Magnesium reacting with hydrochloric acid
(D) Neutralising an acid with an alkali
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ammonium chloride splits into ammonia and hydrogen chloride when heated, and the two gases recombine to form ammonium chloride again when cooled.

Q41A reaction produces 100 cm^3 of gas in 25 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 0.25 cm^3/s
(B) 125 cm^3/s
(C) 2500 cm^3/s
(D) 4.0 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = volume of gas / time = 100 / 25 = 4.0 cm^3/s.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42In a fractionating column, the fraction collected at the very top is:

(A) bitumen
(B) liquefied petroleum gases
(C) diesel oil
(D) heavy fuel oil
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The shortest hydrocarbons with the lowest boiling points, the refinery gases (LPG), rise to the top of the column where it is coolest.

Q43Long-chain hydrocarbons are cracked in industry using:

(A) a high temperature and a catalyst
(B) electrolysis at room temperature
(C) reaction with oxygen at low temperature
(D) fractional distillation only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes using high temperatures and a catalyst (or steam).

Q44What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnHn
(C) CnH2n
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n.

Q45Ethanoic acid is added to calcium carbonate. The gas given off is:

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) chlorine
(D) carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carboxylic acids react with carbonates in the same way as other acids, producing a salt, water and carbon dioxide.

Q46The ester ethyl ethanoate is formed by reacting:

(A) ethene with steam
(B) ethanol with ethanoic acid
(C) ethane with oxygen
(D) ethanol with bromine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Esters are formed when an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid, in the presence of an acid catalyst; ethanol + ethanoic acid gives ethyl ethanoate and water.

Q47In condensation polymerisation, the monomers join together and:

(A) a small molecule such as water is also produced
(B) no other product is formed
(C) the double bonds simply open up
(D) carbon dioxide is the only product
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Condensation polymerisation involves functional groups reacting together, eliminating a small molecule such as water for each bond formed, as in polyesters.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48The correct test for oxygen gas is that it:

(A) turns limewater milky
(B) bleaches damp litmus paper
(C) gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint
(D) relights a glowing splint
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxygen relights a glowing wooden splint held in the gas.

Q49To test a solution for sulfate ions, you add dilute hydrochloric acid followed by:

(A) silver nitrate solution, giving a white precipitate
(B) sodium hydroxide solution, giving a blue precipitate
(C) barium chloride solution, giving a white precipitate
(D) limewater, which turns milky
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfate ions react with barium chloride solution (after acidifying) to form a white precipitate of barium sulfate.

Q50When sodium hydroxide solution is added to a solution containing copper(II) ions, the observation is:

(A) a blue precipitate forms
(B) a white precipitate forms
(C) a green gas is given off
(D) the solution turns lilac
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper(II) ions form a blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide with sodium hydroxide solution.

Q51In a chromatography experiment the solvent front moves 20.0 cm. A dye with an Rf value of 0.60 moves:

(A) 33 cm
(B) 12.0 cm
(C) 0.60 cm
(D) 3.0 cm
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Distance moved by dye = Rf × distance moved by solvent = 0.60 × 20.0 = 12.0 cm.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of:

(A) oxygen
(B) nitrogen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Gases released by volcanoes made the early atmosphere rich in carbon dioxide, with water vapour and small amounts of other gases, similar to Mars and Venus today.

Q53The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere increased over time because:

(A) algae and plants produced oxygen by photosynthesis
(B) volcanoes released large amounts of oxygen
(C) animals began to respire
(D) carbon dioxide turned into oxygen in sunlight
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Photosynthesis by algae and later plants released oxygen and removed carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Q54Which human activity is a major source of methane emissions?

(A) burning coal in power stations
(B) deforestation by burning trees
(C) using fertilisers on fields
(D) cattle farming and rice paddy fields
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Microorganisms in the guts of cattle and in flooded rice fields release methane, a powerful greenhouse gas.

Q55Particulates (soot and unburned hydrocarbons) from incomplete combustion are a concern because they:

(A) cause acid rain directly
(B) cause global dimming and can damage human health
(C) increase the oxygen content of the air
(D) destroy carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Particulates reflect sunlight, causing global dimming, and when inhaled they can cause respiratory and cardiovascular problems.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Sea water can be made safe to drink by desalination using:

(A) chlorination only
(B) filtration through gravel
(C) distillation or reverse osmosis
(D) sedimentation alone
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Desalination removes dissolved salts, either by distillation or by reverse osmosis through membranes under pressure; both need a lot of energy.

Q57Which stage is part of the treatment of waste water (sewage)?

(A) cracking of the sludge
(B) aerobic biological treatment, where microorganisms break down organic matter
(C) electrolysis to remove all salts
(D) fractional distillation
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sewage treatment includes screening, sedimentation and aerobic digestion by microorganisms before the water is released back into the environment.

Q58NPK fertilisers are formulated to supply plants with:

(A) nitrogen, potassium and calcium
(B) phosphorus, potassium and sulfur
(C) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(D) nitrogen, phosphorus and carbon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

NPK fertilisers contain compounds of nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K), the three elements plants need in the largest amounts.

Q59Most of the ammonia produced by the Haber process is used to manufacture:

(A) plastics
(B) fuels
(C) medicines
(D) nitrogen-based fertilisers
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ammonia is converted into fertilisers such as ammonium nitrate, which supply nitrogen to crops.

Q60Impure copper can be purified by:

(A) heating it strongly in air
(B) reacting it with dilute acid
(C) electrolysis using copper electrodes in copper sulfate solution
(D) fractional distillation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

During electrolysis, copper dissolves from the impure anode and pure copper is deposited on the cathode.