GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 2
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1Which subatomic particle has a relative mass of 1 and a relative charge of +1?
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Correct: (A)
Protons are found in the nucleus and have a relative mass of 1 and a relative charge of +1.
Q2An atom of carbon has 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons. What is its mass number?
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Correct: (C)
Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 6 + 6 = 12.
Q3What is the electronic structure of a chlorine atom (atomic number 17)?
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine has 17 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 7 in the third shell.
Q4How does the reactivity of the Group 1 metals change down the group?
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Correct: (D)
Down Group 1 the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily, so the metals become more reactive.
Q5Which statement about transition metals is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Transition metals form coloured compounds, often have ions with different charges and are widely used as catalysts.
Q6Chlorine water is added to potassium bromide solution and the mixture turns orange. This shows that:
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Correct: (A)
Chlorine is higher in Group 7, so it displaces the less reactive bromine from its compound, forming orange bromine.
Q7A sodium atom (2,8,1) forms a sodium ion by:
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Correct: (C)
Sodium loses its single outer electron to gain a full outer shell, forming an Na^+ ion.
Q8A sample of magnesium contains 75% magnesium-24 and 25% magnesium-26. What is its relative atomic mass?
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Correct: (D)
Ar = (75 × 24 + 25 × 26) / 100 = (1800 + 650) / 100 = 24.5.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Water has a low boiling point for its mass because:
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Correct: (A)
Water consists of simple molecules; boiling only overcomes the weak forces between molecules, not the strong covalent bonds within them.
Q10Silicon dioxide has a very high melting point because it has:
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Correct: (C)
Silicon dioxide is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure, so a large amount of energy is needed to break its many strong covalent bonds.
Q11Alloys are harder than pure metals because:
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Correct: (B)
In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular layers, preventing them from sliding over each other.
Q12Buckminsterfullerene, C60, is an example of a:
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Correct: (D)
C60 is a fullerene: its carbon atoms are arranged in a hollow sphere of rings.
Q13Solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does, because:
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Correct: (A)
In the solid the ions are held in fixed positions in the lattice; when molten they can move to the electrodes.
Q14Simple molecules such as carbon dioxide do not conduct electricity because:
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Correct: (C)
There are no charged particles free to move in simple molecular substances, so they cannot carry an electric current.
Q15Thermosoftening polymers soften when heated because:
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Correct: (B)
Thermosoftening polymers have long chains held together only by weak intermolecular forces, with no cross-links, so they melt on heating.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (Ar: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
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Correct: (D)
Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 98.
Q17How many moles are there in 11 g of carbon dioxide, CO2? (Mr of CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 11 / 44 = 0.25 mol.
Q1810.0 g of calcium carbonate (Mr = 100) reacts completely with excess hydrochloric acid to give carbon dioxide. What mass of CO2 (Mr = 44) is produced?
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Correct: (C)
Moles of CaCO3 = 10.0 / 100 = 0.10 mol, so moles of CO2 = 0.10; mass = 0.10 × 44 = 4.4 g.
Q1910 g of a salt is dissolved in water to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution in g/dm^3?
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Correct: (B)
500 cm^3 = 0.500 dm^3; concentration = 10 / 0.500 = 20 g/dm^3.
Q20In a titration, 25.0 cm^3 of a 0.100 mol/dm^3 alkali is neutralised. How many moles of alkali were used?
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Correct: (A)
Moles = concentration × volume in dm^3 = 0.100 × 0.0250 = 0.00250 mol.
Q21A reaction has a theoretical yield of 20 g and an actual yield of 15 g. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (D)
Percentage yield = (15 / 20) × 100 = 75%.
Q22The Haber process reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 has an atom economy of 100% because:
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Correct: (B)
It is an addition-type reaction with a single product, so every atom of the reactants is incorporated into the ammonia.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23A solution with a pH of 12 is:
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Correct: (D)
A pH well above 7 shows an alkaline solution containing OH^- ions.
Q24To prepare a pure sample of a soluble salt from an insoluble base and an acid, the correct steps are:
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Correct: (A)
Excess insoluble base ensures all the acid reacts; filtering removes the unreacted base and crystallisation gives pure salt crystals.
Q25A weak acid differs from a strong acid of the same concentration because a weak acid:
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Correct: (D)
Strong acids ionise completely in water; weak acids, such as ethanoic acid, ionise only partially.
Q26Concentrated sodium chloride solution (brine) is electrolysed. The products are:
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Correct: (B)
Hydrogen forms at the cathode (sodium is too reactive), chlorine at the anode, and sodium hydroxide is left in solution.
Q27Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis rather than by reduction with carbon because:
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Correct: (A)
Metals above carbon in the reactivity series, like aluminium, must be extracted by electrolysis because carbon cannot displace them from their oxides.
Q28In terms of electrons, oxidation is:
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Correct: (C)
OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss of electrons, Reduction Is Gain of electrons.
Q29Iron is extracted from iron oxide in the blast furnace mainly by:
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Correct: (D)
Iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, so carbon removes the oxygen from iron oxide in the blast furnace.
Q30Magnesium ribbon is added to dilute hydrochloric acid. The products are:
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Correct: (B)
Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen, so magnesium + hydrochloric acid gives magnesium chloride and hydrogen.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31Using bond energies (H-H = 436, Br-Br = 193, H-Br = 366 kJ/mol), calculate the energy change for: H2 + Br2 → 2HBr.
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Correct: (C)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 193 = 629 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 366 = 732 kJ; overall change = 629 – 732 = -103 kJ/mol.
Q32On the energy profile for an exothermic reaction, the products are:
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Correct: (A)
In an exothermic reaction energy is given out, so the products have less energy than the reactants.
Q33Ordinary alkaline battery cells are non-rechargeable because:
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Correct: (D)
In non-rechargeable cells the reaction cannot be reversed by passing a current; in rechargeable cells it can.
Q34A fuel is burned and the energy released heats 50 g of water, raising its temperature by 10 °C. How much energy is transferred to the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g/°C)
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Correct: (B)
Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 50 × 4.2 × 10 = 2100 J (2.1 kJ).
Q35A disadvantage of using hydrogen as a fuel in vehicles is that:
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Correct: (A)
Hydrogen is a gas that must be stored under pressure in strong tanks; its only combustion product is water, but storage is a major problem.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Powdered calcium carbonate reacts faster with acid than lumps of the same mass because the powder has:
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Correct: (D)
Powdering increases the surface area exposed to the acid, increasing the frequency of collisions and the rate of reaction.
Q37Three experiments are carried out and the volume of gas produced is plotted against time. The experiment with the fastest initial rate is the one whose curve:
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Correct: (C)
The gradient of a volume-time graph represents the rate, so the steepest starting gradient is the fastest reaction.
Q38Increasing the concentration of an acid increases the rate of its reaction with magnesium because:
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Correct: (B)
A higher concentration means more particles in the same volume, so collisions between particles occur more often.
Q39Lowering the temperature in the Haber process would increase the yield of ammonia, but it is not done too far because:
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Correct: (A)
The forward reaction is exothermic so lower temperatures favour yield, but very low temperatures make the reaction too slow; 450 °C is a compromise.
Q40Which of the following is a reversible reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Ammonium chloride splits into ammonia and hydrogen chloride when heated, and the two gases recombine to form ammonium chloride again when cooled.
Q41A reaction produces 100 cm^3 of gas in 25 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Mean rate = volume of gas / time = 100 / 25 = 4.0 cm^3/s.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42In a fractionating column, the fraction collected at the very top is:
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Correct: (B)
The shortest hydrocarbons with the lowest boiling points, the refinery gases (LPG), rise to the top of the column where it is coolest.
Q43Long-chain hydrocarbons are cracked in industry using:
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Correct: (A)
Cracking breaks long-chain alkanes into shorter, more useful alkanes and alkenes using high temperatures and a catalyst (or steam).
Q44What is the general formula of the alkenes?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes contain one C=C double bond and have the general formula CnH2n.
Q45Ethanoic acid is added to calcium carbonate. The gas given off is:
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Correct: (D)
Carboxylic acids react with carbonates in the same way as other acids, producing a salt, water and carbon dioxide.
Q46The ester ethyl ethanoate is formed by reacting:
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Correct: (B)
Esters are formed when an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid, in the presence of an acid catalyst; ethanol + ethanoic acid gives ethyl ethanoate and water.
Q47In condensation polymerisation, the monomers join together and:
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Correct: (A)
Condensation polymerisation involves functional groups reacting together, eliminating a small molecule such as water for each bond formed, as in polyesters.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48The correct test for oxygen gas is that it:
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Correct: (D)
Oxygen relights a glowing wooden splint held in the gas.
Q49To test a solution for sulfate ions, you add dilute hydrochloric acid followed by:
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Correct: (C)
Sulfate ions react with barium chloride solution (after acidifying) to form a white precipitate of barium sulfate.
Q50When sodium hydroxide solution is added to a solution containing copper(II) ions, the observation is:
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Correct: (A)
Copper(II) ions form a blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide with sodium hydroxide solution.
Q51In a chromatography experiment the solvent front moves 20.0 cm. A dye with an Rf value of 0.60 moves:
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Correct: (B)
Distance moved by dye = Rf × distance moved by solvent = 0.60 × 20.0 = 12.0 cm.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of:
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Correct: (C)
Gases released by volcanoes made the early atmosphere rich in carbon dioxide, with water vapour and small amounts of other gases, similar to Mars and Venus today.
Q53The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere increased over time because:
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Correct: (A)
Photosynthesis by algae and later plants released oxygen and removed carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Q54Which human activity is a major source of methane emissions?
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Correct: (D)
Microorganisms in the guts of cattle and in flooded rice fields release methane, a powerful greenhouse gas.
Q55Particulates (soot and unburned hydrocarbons) from incomplete combustion are a concern because they:
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Correct: (B)
Particulates reflect sunlight, causing global dimming, and when inhaled they can cause respiratory and cardiovascular problems.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Sea water can be made safe to drink by desalination using:
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Correct: (C)
Desalination removes dissolved salts, either by distillation or by reverse osmosis through membranes under pressure; both need a lot of energy.
Q57Which stage is part of the treatment of waste water (sewage)?
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Correct: (B)
Sewage treatment includes screening, sedimentation and aerobic digestion by microorganisms before the water is released back into the environment.
Q58NPK fertilisers are formulated to supply plants with:
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Correct: (C)
NPK fertilisers contain compounds of nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K), the three elements plants need in the largest amounts.
Q59Most of the ammonia produced by the Haber process is used to manufacture:
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Correct: (D)
Ammonia is converted into fertilisers such as ammonium nitrate, which supply nitrogen to crops.
Q60Impure copper can be purified by:
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Correct: (C)
During electrolysis, copper dissolves from the impure anode and pure copper is deposited on the cathode.
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