GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 19

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom of sodium contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of this atom?

(A) 11
(B) 23
(C) 12
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.

Q2Which particle is found in the nucleus of an atom and has no charge?

(A) Electron
(B) Proton
(C) Neutron
(D) Molecule
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The neutron sits in the nucleus and carries no charge; the proton is positive and electrons are found in shells outside the nucleus.

Q3An atom has the electronic structure 2,8,1. In which group of the periodic table is this element?

(A) Group 1
(B) Group 2
(C) Group 3
(D) Group 0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is 1.

Q4Isotopes of the same element have different numbers of which particle?

(A) Protons
(B) Electrons in a neutral atom
(C) Electron shells
(D) Neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Isotopes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, so they have different mass numbers.

Q5Why do the elements in Group 7 have similar chemical properties?

(A) They have the same number of electron shells
(B) They have the same number of electrons in their outer shell
(C) They have the same mass number
(D) They are all gases at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Elements in the same group have the same number of outer-shell electrons, so they react in similar ways.

Q6An element has the electronic structure 2,8,2. In which period of the periodic table is it?

(A) Period 3
(B) Period 2
(C) Period 8
(D) Period 1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The period number equals the number of electron shells, and this atom has three shells.

Q7Chlorine has two isotopes: 75% are chlorine-35 and 25% are chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?

(A) 35.0
(B) 36.0
(C) 36.5
(D) 35.5
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

(75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.

Q8Which statement about Mendeleev's periodic table is correct?

(A) He arranged the elements in order of atomic number
(B) He left no gaps in his table
(C) He left gaps for undiscovered elements and predicted their properties
(D) He placed the noble gases in Group 1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mendeleev left gaps for elements not yet discovered and correctly predicted their properties; elements were arranged by atomic mass, not atomic number.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium oxide. What type of bonding is present in magnesium oxide?

(A) Covalent
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Metallic
(D) Ionic
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Magnesium atoms transfer electrons to oxygen atoms, forming Mg^2+ and O^2- ions held together by electrostatic attraction.

Q10Which substance consists of simple molecules with covalent bonds?

(A) Water
(B) Sodium chloride
(C) Diamond
(D) Magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Water is made of small H2O molecules with covalent bonds inside each molecule; the others are giant ionic, giant covalent or metallic structures.

Q11Why does sodium chloride have a very high melting point?

(A) The forces between its molecules are weak
(B) Its ions are free to move
(C) A large amount of energy is needed to break the strong ionic bonds in the giant lattice
(D) It contains strong covalent bonds between molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium chloride is a giant ionic lattice, and the strong electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions need a lot of energy to break.

Q12Graphite is able to conduct electricity because…

(A) its ions are free to move
(B) it has delocalised electrons that can move through the structure
(C) it is a metal
(D) the layers are held together by strong covalent bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each carbon atom in graphite bonds to three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.

Q13A substance melts at -94°C, boils at 65°C and never conducts electricity. Which type of structure does it have?

(A) Ionic lattice
(B) Giant covalent
(C) Metallic
(D) Simple molecular
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Low melting and boiling points and no electrical conductivity are typical of simple molecules with weak intermolecular forces.

Q14What is the diameter range of nanoparticles?

(A) 1 to 100 nm
(B) 1 to 100 mm
(C) 100 to 1000 nm
(D) 0.1 to 1 cm
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nanoparticles have diameters between 1 nm and 100 nm and contain only a few hundred atoms.

Q15Why can metals be bent and shaped without breaking?

(A) Their electrons are shared in pairs between atoms
(B) Their ions are joined by strong covalent bonds
(C) The layers of atoms can slide over each other
(D) Their atoms are arranged as separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a metal the regular layers of positive ions can slide over each other while the delocalised electrons still hold the structure together.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 100
(B) 68
(C) 84
(D) 120
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.

Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.25 mol
(B) 2 mol
(C) 128 mol
(D) 0.5 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed when 6 g of magnesium burns completely? (Mr of MgO = 40)

(A) 5 g
(B) 10 g
(C) 15 g
(D) 20 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of Mg = 6 / 24 = 0.25 mol, so 0.25 mol of MgO forms; mass = 0.25 × 40 = 10 g.

Q19A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.5 mol/dm^3
(B) 1 mol/dm^3
(C) 2 mol/dm^3
(D) 125 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2 mol/dm^3.

Q20In a reaction the theoretical yield is 20 g but only 16 g of product is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 80%
(B) 16%
(C) 125%
(D) 64%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage yield = (16 / 20) × 100 = 80%.

Q21Calcium carbonate decomposes when heated: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. Calcium oxide is the desired product. What is the atom economy? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)

(A) 44%
(B) 100%
(C) 64%
(D) 56%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.

Q22What volume is occupied by 0.25 mol of a gas at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at room temperature and pressure.)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 6 dm^3
(C) 24 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23Which ion is present in all acids when they are in aqueous solution?

(A) OH^-
(B) Cl^-
(C) H^+
(D) SO4^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acids release H^+ ions in aqueous solution, which is why they share the same reactions.

Q24What are the products when an acid reacts with an alkali?

(A) Salt + hydrogen
(B) Salt + water
(C) Salt + carbon dioxide
(D) Salt + oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Neutralisation: acid + alkali → salt + water.

Q25Copper(II) oxide reacts with sulfuric acid. What is the salt formed?

(A) Copper chloride
(B) Copper nitrate
(C) Copper carbonate
(D) Copper sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfuric acid always forms sulfate salts, so the product is copper sulfate (plus water).

Q26Molten lead bromide is electrolysed. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Lead
(B) Bromine
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Positive lead ions (Pb^2+) move to the cathode, gain electrons and form lead metal.

Q27Zinc powder is added to blue copper sulfate solution. The blue colour fades and a brown solid forms. What does this show?

(A) Copper is more reactive than zinc
(B) No chemical reaction has happened
(C) Zinc is more reactive than copper, so zinc displaces copper from its compound
(D) Zinc is less reactive than copper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from a solution of its compound.

Q28Aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Hydrogen is formed at the cathode rather than sodium because…

(A) chlorine is discharged at the cathode instead
(B) sodium is too reactive, so hydrogen is discharged instead
(C) sodium metal is formed and floats on the solution
(D) oxygen is discharged at the cathode
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sodium is very reactive, so hydrogen ions from the water are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen gas.

Q29Iron is extracted from iron ore in a blast furnace. This works because iron is…

(A) extracted by electrolysis of the molten ore
(B) separated by fractional distillation
(C) displaced from its ore by sodium
(D) less reactive than carbon, so carbon can reduce its oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon.

Q30A student titrates sulfuric acid against sodium hydroxide solution using an indicator. What is the purpose of the indicator?

(A) To show the end point of the reaction
(B) To speed up the reaction
(C) To increase the volume of alkali needed
(D) To neutralise the acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The indicator changes colour at the end point, showing when neutralisation is just complete.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31When solid ammonium nitrate dissolves in water, the temperature of the solution falls. This process is…

(A) exothermic
(B) endothermic
(C) a neutralisation
(D) combustion
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The process takes in energy from the surroundings, so the temperature decreases; this is endothermic.

Q32Use these bond energies (kJ/mol): H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431. For the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl, what is the overall energy change?

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -1046 kJ/mol
(C) -678 kJ/mol
(D) -184 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q33On a reaction profile, the activation energy is…

(A) the difference in energy between the reactants and the highest point on the curve
(B) the difference in energy between the reactants and the products
(C) the energy of the products
(D) the total energy released by the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Activation energy is the extra energy reactants need to reach the top of the energy barrier before they can react.

Q34What is the overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell?

(A) Hydrogen burns to give carbon dioxide and water
(B) Oxygen reacts with water to give hydrogen
(C) Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to give water only
(D) Water is split into hydrogen and oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen + oxygen → water, and the chemical energy is converted directly to electrical energy.

Q35A simple cell is made from zinc and copper electrodes in an electrolyte. The voltage will be larger when…

(A) the two metals have very similar reactivity
(B) the two metals are further apart in the reactivity series
(C) the electrodes are pushed further apart
(D) the electrolyte is replaced with pure water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The greater the difference in reactivity between the two metals, the greater the voltage produced.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 0.33 cm^3/s
(B) 30 cm^3/s
(C) 2700 cm^3/s
(D) 3 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = 90 / 30 = 3 cm^3/s.

Q37Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) The particles collide more often, and a greater proportion of collisions have at least the activation energy
(B) The particles become larger
(C) The activation energy increases
(D) More particles are produced
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At higher temperatures particles move faster and have more energy, so collisions are more frequent and more of them are successful.

Q38A catalyst speeds up a reaction because it…

(A) increases the energy of the particles
(B) increases the activation energy
(C) provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(D) is used up during the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst gives the reacting particles a route with a lower activation energy, and it is not used up.

Q39Powdered marble reacts with hydrochloric acid much faster than the same mass of marble lumps. This is because the powder…

(A) has a lower activation energy
(B) has a larger surface area, so collisions happen more frequently
(C) acts as a catalyst
(D) produces a greater total volume of gas
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Powder exposes a much larger surface area, so acid particles collide with the marble more often.

Q40The Haber process reaction is N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What happens to the position of equilibrium when the pressure is increased?

(A) It moves to the left, towards more molecules of gas
(B) It does not change
(C) It moves towards the side with more molecules of gas
(D) It moves to the right, towards the side with fewer molecules of gas
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

There are 4 molecules of gas on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure favours the right-hand side and more ammonia forms.

Q41A reversible reaction in a closed system reaches dynamic equilibrium when…

(A) the rates of the forward and backward reactions are equal
(B) the forward reaction stops completely
(C) the concentrations of reactants and products are equal
(D) all of the reactants have been used up
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At equilibrium the forward and backward reactions continue at the same rate, so concentrations stay constant.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Crude oil is separated into fractions by fractional distillation. The separation works because the hydrocarbons have different…

(A) densities only
(B) reactivity
(C) boiling points
(D) colours
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column because its hydrocarbons boil and condense over different temperature ranges.

Q43Which formula represents an alkane?

(A) C2H4
(B) C3H8
(C) C4H8
(D) C5H10
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes fit the general formula CnH2n+2; for n = 3 this gives C3H8. The others fit CnH2n and are alkenes.

Q44A hydrocarbon decolourises bromine water when shaken with it. This test shows that the hydrocarbon is…

(A) an alkane
(B) a carboxylic acid
(C) a saturated compound
(D) an alkene
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes contain a C=C double bond and react with bromine, turning orange bromine water colourless; alkanes do not react.

Q45Ethanol is produced by the fermentation of glucose solution. Fermentation requires…

(A) yeast, a warm temperature and anaerobic conditions
(B) a nickel catalyst and a temperature of 60°C
(C) concentrated sulfuric acid as a catalyst
(D) high-pressure oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Yeast enzymes convert glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide in the absence of air at around 30-40°C.

Q46Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. The products are…

(A) sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
(B) sodium ethanoate only
(C) sodium ethanoate, carbon dioxide and water
(D) sodium chloride, carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carboxylic acids react with carbonates to give a salt, carbon dioxide and water.

Q47Poly(ethene) is manufactured from ethene. This type of polymerisation is…

(A) condensation polymerisation
(B) addition polymerisation
(C) cracking
(D) fermentation
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Many ethene monomers join together by opening their double bonds, with no other product formed; this is addition polymerisation.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48A pure substance can be recognised from its melting point because a pure substance…

(A) melts at one specific, sharp temperature
(B) melts over a wide range of temperatures
(C) has no melting point
(D) always dissolves completely in water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Pure substances melt and boil at specific temperatures; impurities lower the melting point and cause melting over a range.

Q49In a paper chromatography experiment, a dye has an Rf value of 0.6 and the solvent front moves 10 cm. How far does the dye move?

(A) 0.6 cm
(B) 16.7 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 6 cm
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rf = distance moved by dye / distance moved by solvent, so distance = 0.6 × 10 = 6 cm.

Q50A gas bleaches damp litmus paper. The gas is…

(A) hydrogen
(B) chlorine
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine is identified because it bleaches damp litmus paper (it first turns it red, then white).

Q51A metal compound gives a crimson red colour in a flame test. The metal in the compound is…

(A) sodium
(B) potassium
(C) lithium
(D) copper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Lithium compounds give a crimson red flame; sodium gives yellow, potassium lilac and copper green.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen?

(A) 21%
(B) 1%
(C) 0.04%
(D) 78%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 1% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Methane
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Methane absorbs long-wave radiation from the Earth and re-radiates it, contributing to the greenhouse effect, as does carbon dioxide.

Q54Why did the level of carbon dioxide in the Earth's early atmosphere decrease?

(A) Animals began to respire
(B) Algae and plants photosynthesised, and carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans
(C) Carbon dioxide escaped into space
(D) Volcanoes stopped erupting completely
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Photosynthesis by algae and plants removed carbon dioxide and released oxygen, while much carbon dioxide also dissolved in the oceans and became locked in rocks.

Q55Sulfur dioxide is released when some fossil fuels burn. The main environmental problem it causes is…

(A) eutrophication of lakes
(B) damage only to the ozone layer
(C) acid rain
(D) carbon monoxide poisoning
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages trees, buildings and aquatic life.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Water is sterilised during the production of potable water mainly to…

(A) remove all dissolved salts
(B) kill harmful microbes
(C) remove sand and grit
(D) add useful minerals
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sterilising agents such as chlorine kill microbes and make the water safe to drink; grit is removed earlier by filtration.

Q57Bioleaching is used to obtain copper from low-grade ores. Bioleaching uses…

(A) very high temperatures
(B) electrolysis of the solid ore
(C) bacteria that produce a leachate solution containing copper compounds
(D) plants that grow in the ore
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bacteria produce solutions (leachate) containing copper compounds, from which copper can then be extracted; using plants describes phytomining instead.

Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product is carried out to assess…

(A) the environmental impact of the product at every stage of its life
(B) the selling price of the product
(C) the purity of the product
(D) the reactivity of the materials in the product
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An LCA considers extracting raw materials, manufacture, use and disposal, and the energy and waste involved at each stage.

Q59Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process to make ammonia?

(A) 100°C, 1000 atmospheres, no catalyst
(B) 25°C, 1 atmosphere, iron catalyst
(C) 850°C, 200 atmospheres, no catalyst
(D) 450°C, 200 atmospheres, iron catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The Haber process uses about 450°C, 200 atmospheres pressure and an iron catalyst, chosen as a compromise between rate and yield.

Q60Why is recycling aluminium better for the environment than extracting new aluminium from its ore?

(A) Recycled aluminium is always stronger
(B) Extracting aluminium uses no electricity
(C) Recycling uses much less energy than extracting aluminium from its ore
(D) Aluminium ore is a renewable resource
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Extracting aluminium needs huge amounts of electricity for electrolysis, while melting and recycling scrap aluminium uses only a small fraction of that energy.