GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 19
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1An atom of sodium contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of this atom?
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Correct: (B)
Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.
Q2Which particle is found in the nucleus of an atom and has no charge?
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Correct: (C)
The neutron sits in the nucleus and carries no charge; the proton is positive and electrons are found in shells outside the nucleus.
Q3An atom has the electronic structure 2,8,1. In which group of the periodic table is this element?
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Correct: (A)
The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is 1.
Q4Isotopes of the same element have different numbers of which particle?
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Correct: (D)
Isotopes have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, so they have different mass numbers.
Q5Why do the elements in Group 7 have similar chemical properties?
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Correct: (B)
Elements in the same group have the same number of outer-shell electrons, so they react in similar ways.
Q6An element has the electronic structure 2,8,2. In which period of the periodic table is it?
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Correct: (A)
The period number equals the number of electron shells, and this atom has three shells.
Q7Chlorine has two isotopes: 75% are chlorine-35 and 25% are chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?
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Correct: (D)
(75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.
Q8Which statement about Mendeleev's periodic table is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Mendeleev left gaps for elements not yet discovered and correctly predicted their properties; elements were arranged by atomic mass, not atomic number.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium oxide. What type of bonding is present in magnesium oxide?
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Correct: (D)
Magnesium atoms transfer electrons to oxygen atoms, forming Mg^2+ and O^2- ions held together by electrostatic attraction.
Q10Which substance consists of simple molecules with covalent bonds?
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Correct: (A)
Water is made of small H2O molecules with covalent bonds inside each molecule; the others are giant ionic, giant covalent or metallic structures.
Q11Why does sodium chloride have a very high melting point?
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Correct: (C)
Sodium chloride is a giant ionic lattice, and the strong electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions need a lot of energy to break.
Q12Graphite is able to conduct electricity because…
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Correct: (B)
Each carbon atom in graphite bonds to three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.
Q13A substance melts at -94°C, boils at 65°C and never conducts electricity. Which type of structure does it have?
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Correct: (D)
Low melting and boiling points and no electrical conductivity are typical of simple molecules with weak intermolecular forces.
Q14What is the diameter range of nanoparticles?
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Correct: (A)
Nanoparticles have diameters between 1 nm and 100 nm and contain only a few hundred atoms.
Q15Why can metals be bent and shaped without breaking?
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Correct: (C)
In a metal the regular layers of positive ions can slide over each other while the delocalised electrons still hold the structure together.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (A)
40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.
Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (D)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.
Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed when 6 g of magnesium burns completely? (Mr of MgO = 40)
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Correct: (B)
Moles of Mg = 6 / 24 = 0.25 mol, so 0.25 mol of MgO forms; mass = 0.25 × 40 = 10 g.
Q19A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm^3?
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Correct: (C)
250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2 mol/dm^3.
Q20In a reaction the theoretical yield is 20 g but only 16 g of product is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (A)
Percentage yield = (16 / 20) × 100 = 80%.
Q21Calcium carbonate decomposes when heated: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. Calcium oxide is the desired product. What is the atom economy? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)
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Correct: (D)
Atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.
Q22What volume is occupied by 0.25 mol of a gas at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at room temperature and pressure.)
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Correct: (B)
Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23Which ion is present in all acids when they are in aqueous solution?
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Correct: (C)
Acids release H^+ ions in aqueous solution, which is why they share the same reactions.
Q24What are the products when an acid reacts with an alkali?
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Correct: (B)
Neutralisation: acid + alkali → salt + water.
Q25Copper(II) oxide reacts with sulfuric acid. What is the salt formed?
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Correct: (D)
Sulfuric acid always forms sulfate salts, so the product is copper sulfate (plus water).
Q26Molten lead bromide is electrolysed. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (A)
Positive lead ions (Pb^2+) move to the cathode, gain electrons and form lead metal.
Q27Zinc powder is added to blue copper sulfate solution. The blue colour fades and a brown solid forms. What does this show?
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Correct: (C)
A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from a solution of its compound.
Q28Aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Hydrogen is formed at the cathode rather than sodium because…
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Correct: (B)
Sodium is very reactive, so hydrogen ions from the water are discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen gas.
Q29Iron is extracted from iron ore in a blast furnace. This works because iron is…
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Correct: (D)
Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted by reduction with carbon.
Q30A student titrates sulfuric acid against sodium hydroxide solution using an indicator. What is the purpose of the indicator?
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Correct: (A)
The indicator changes colour at the end point, showing when neutralisation is just complete.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31When solid ammonium nitrate dissolves in water, the temperature of the solution falls. This process is…
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Correct: (B)
The process takes in energy from the surroundings, so the temperature decreases; this is endothermic.
Q32Use these bond energies (kJ/mol): H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431. For the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl, what is the overall energy change?
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Correct: (D)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q33On a reaction profile, the activation energy is…
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Correct: (A)
Activation energy is the extra energy reactants need to reach the top of the energy barrier before they can react.
Q34What is the overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell?
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Correct: (C)
In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen + oxygen → water, and the chemical energy is converted directly to electrical energy.
Q35A simple cell is made from zinc and copper electrodes in an electrolyte. The voltage will be larger when…
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Correct: (B)
The greater the difference in reactivity between the two metals, the greater the voltage produced.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Mean rate = 90 / 30 = 3 cm^3/s.
Q37Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (A)
At higher temperatures particles move faster and have more energy, so collisions are more frequent and more of them are successful.
Q38A catalyst speeds up a reaction because it…
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Correct: (C)
A catalyst gives the reacting particles a route with a lower activation energy, and it is not used up.
Q39Powdered marble reacts with hydrochloric acid much faster than the same mass of marble lumps. This is because the powder…
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Correct: (B)
Powder exposes a much larger surface area, so acid particles collide with the marble more often.
Q40The Haber process reaction is N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. What happens to the position of equilibrium when the pressure is increased?
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Correct: (D)
There are 4 molecules of gas on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure favours the right-hand side and more ammonia forms.
Q41A reversible reaction in a closed system reaches dynamic equilibrium when…
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Correct: (A)
At equilibrium the forward and backward reactions continue at the same rate, so concentrations stay constant.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42Crude oil is separated into fractions by fractional distillation. The separation works because the hydrocarbons have different…
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Correct: (C)
Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column because its hydrocarbons boil and condense over different temperature ranges.
Q43Which formula represents an alkane?
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Correct: (B)
Alkanes fit the general formula CnH2n+2; for n = 3 this gives C3H8. The others fit CnH2n and are alkenes.
Q44A hydrocarbon decolourises bromine water when shaken with it. This test shows that the hydrocarbon is…
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Correct: (D)
Alkenes contain a C=C double bond and react with bromine, turning orange bromine water colourless; alkanes do not react.
Q45Ethanol is produced by the fermentation of glucose solution. Fermentation requires…
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Correct: (A)
Yeast enzymes convert glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide in the absence of air at around 30-40°C.
Q46Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate. The products are…
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Correct: (C)
Carboxylic acids react with carbonates to give a salt, carbon dioxide and water.
Q47Poly(ethene) is manufactured from ethene. This type of polymerisation is…
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Correct: (B)
Many ethene monomers join together by opening their double bonds, with no other product formed; this is addition polymerisation.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48A pure substance can be recognised from its melting point because a pure substance…
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Correct: (A)
Pure substances melt and boil at specific temperatures; impurities lower the melting point and cause melting over a range.
Q49In a paper chromatography experiment, a dye has an Rf value of 0.6 and the solvent front moves 10 cm. How far does the dye move?
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Correct: (D)
Rf = distance moved by dye / distance moved by solvent, so distance = 0.6 × 10 = 6 cm.
Q50A gas bleaches damp litmus paper. The gas is…
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine is identified because it bleaches damp litmus paper (it first turns it red, then white).
Q51A metal compound gives a crimson red colour in a flame test. The metal in the compound is…
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Correct: (C)
Lithium compounds give a crimson red flame; sodium gives yellow, potassium lilac and copper green.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen?
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Correct: (D)
Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 1% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.
Q53Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (A)
Methane absorbs long-wave radiation from the Earth and re-radiates it, contributing to the greenhouse effect, as does carbon dioxide.
Q54Why did the level of carbon dioxide in the Earth's early atmosphere decrease?
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Correct: (B)
Photosynthesis by algae and plants removed carbon dioxide and released oxygen, while much carbon dioxide also dissolved in the oceans and became locked in rocks.
Q55Sulfur dioxide is released when some fossil fuels burn. The main environmental problem it causes is…
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Correct: (C)
Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages trees, buildings and aquatic life.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Water is sterilised during the production of potable water mainly to…
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Correct: (B)
Sterilising agents such as chlorine kill microbes and make the water safe to drink; grit is removed earlier by filtration.
Q57Bioleaching is used to obtain copper from low-grade ores. Bioleaching uses…
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Correct: (C)
Bacteria produce solutions (leachate) containing copper compounds, from which copper can then be extracted; using plants describes phytomining instead.
Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product is carried out to assess…
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Correct: (A)
An LCA considers extracting raw materials, manufacture, use and disposal, and the energy and waste involved at each stage.
Q59Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process to make ammonia?
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Correct: (D)
The Haber process uses about 450°C, 200 atmospheres pressure and an iron catalyst, chosen as a compromise between rate and yield.
Q60Why is recycling aluminium better for the environment than extracting new aluminium from its ore?
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Correct: (C)
Extracting aluminium needs huge amounts of electricity for electrolysis, while melting and recycling scrap aluminium uses only a small fraction of that energy.
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