GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 18

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1Which element has atomic number 6?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Helium
(C) Carbon
(D) Nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Atomic number 6 means the atom has 6 protons, which is carbon.

Q2Which particle in an atom has no electrical charge and a relative mass of about 1?

(A) Neutron
(B) Proton
(C) Electron
(D) Ion
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A neutron has no charge and a relative mass of about 1.

Q3What does the relative atomic mass of an element represent?

(A) The mass of the heaviest isotope only
(B) The number of protons in every atom
(C) The mass of one molecule of the element
(D) The weighted average mass of the atoms of an element, taking account of its isotopes
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Relative atomic mass accounts for the masses and abundances of an element's isotopes.

Q4An atom of chlorine has electronic structure 2,8,7. Which group of the periodic table is chlorine in?

(A) Group 1
(B) Group 7
(C) Group 0
(D) Group 2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine has 7 electrons in its outer shell, so it is in Group 7.

Q5How does the reactivity of the halogens change down Group 7?

(A) It increases steadily
(B) It stays exactly the same
(C) It decreases
(D) It depends only on their colour
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Halogens become less reactive down the group because the outer electron is gained less easily.

Q6Which is a typical property of many transition metals?

(A) They are all gases at room temperature
(B) They have very low densities compared with Group 1 metals
(C) They cannot form ions with different charges
(D) They often form coloured compounds and can act as catalysts
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Many transition metal compounds are coloured, and transition metals or their compounds are often catalysts.

Q7Atoms of the same element always have the same number of:

(A) Protons
(B) Neutrons
(C) Electrons in compounds
(D) Isotopes
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The proton number defines the element; atoms of the same element have the same number of protons.

Q8In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing:

(A) Relative atomic mass only
(B) Atomic number
(C) Boiling point
(D) Alphabetical order
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Elements are arranged by increasing atomic (proton) number.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Why does magnesium oxide have a very high melting point?

(A) It has weak intermolecular forces between molecules
(B) It is a simple molecular substance
(C) It contains delocalised electrons like a metal
(D) Strong ionic attractions throughout the giant lattice must be overcome
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Magnesium oxide has a giant ionic structure with strong attractions in all directions.

Q10Which type of structure does water have?

(A) Giant ionic lattice
(B) Simple molecular (covalent)
(C) Giant metallic structure
(D) Giant covalent network
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Water consists of small covalent molecules with weak forces between the molecules.

Q11In a polymer, what is true about the forces involved?

(A) The atoms in each chain are joined by strong covalent bonds, while forces between chains are weaker
(B) There are no covalent bonds in polymer chains
(C) The chains are held together only by ionic bonds
(D) Each polymer chain contains only metal ions
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Polymer molecules have strong covalent bonds along the chain and weaker intermolecular forces between chains.

Q12What is graphene?

(A) A giant ionic compound made from carbon and oxygen
(B) A metal alloy containing carbon
(C) A single layer of graphite with carbon atoms arranged in hexagons
(D) A form of diamond with a tetrahedral structure
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Graphene is one atom thick and consists of carbon atoms in a hexagonal lattice.

Q13Why can metals be bent and shaped without breaking easily?

(A) Layers of atoms can slide over each other
(B) Metal atoms are not attracted to each other
(C) Metals contain weak intermolecular forces only
(D) Their electrons are fixed in pairs between two atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In metals, layers of positive ions can slide while the delocalised electrons maintain bonding.

Q14Which substance has a giant covalent structure?

(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Oxygen gas
(C) Copper metal
(D) Silicon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Silicon dioxide has a giant covalent network of strongly bonded atoms.

Q15What are fullerenes?

(A) Ions formed by Group 1 metals
(B) Molecules of carbon atoms arranged in hollow shapes such as spheres or tubes
(C) Layers of graphite with metal atoms between them
(D) Compounds of carbon and hydrogen only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fullerenes are carbon molecules shaped as hollow balls, tubes or similar structures.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16How many moles are there in 7.3 g of hydrogen chloride, HCl? Relative formula mass of HCl = 36.5.

(A) 0.02 mol
(B) 0.10 mol
(C) 0.20 mol
(D) 2.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = mass ÷ Mr = 7.3 ÷ 36.5 = 0.20 mol.

Q17What is the relative formula mass of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? Relative atomic masses: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16.

(A) 49
(B) 98
(C) 100
(D) 196
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 98.

Q18Copper oxide reacts with hydrogen: CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O. What mass of copper forms from 8.0 g of copper oxide? Relative formula mass: CuO = 80. Relative atomic mass: Cu = 64.

(A) 6.4 g
(B) 8.0 g
(C) 3.2 g
(D) 12.8 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

8.0 g CuO = 0.10 mol, which forms 0.10 mol Cu; mass = 0.10 × 64 = 6.4 g.

Q19A student dissolves 10 g of sodium chloride in water and makes the volume up to 500 cm^3. What is the mass concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 2 g/dm^3
(B) 5 g/dm^3
(C) 10 g/dm^3
(D) 20 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

500 cm^3 = 0.500 dm^3, so concentration = 10 ÷ 0.500 = 20 g/dm^3.

Q20A process has a maximum possible product mass of 50 g. The actual yield is 45 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 45%
(B) 80%
(C) 90%
(D) 111%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage yield = (45 ÷ 50) × 100 = 90%.

Q21For Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2, magnesium chloride is the desired product. The total mass of products is 97 units and the mass of MgCl2 is 95 units. What is the atom economy for making MgCl2?

(A) 2.1%
(B) 97.9%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Atom economy = (95 ÷ 97) × 100 = 97.9%.

Q22What volume is occupied by 2.0 mol of carbon dioxide gas at room temperature and pressure? One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3.

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 36 dm^3
(D) 48 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23What colour is universal indicator in a strong acid?

(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Purple
(D) Colourless
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Universal indicator is red in strongly acidic solutions.

Q24What are the products of a neutralisation reaction between an acid and an alkali?

(A) A salt only
(B) Hydrogen and a salt
(C) Carbon dioxide and water
(D) A salt and water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Acid + alkali → salt + water.

Q25Which method is suitable for preparing a pure sample of copper sulfate crystals?

(A) React copper metal directly with dilute sulfuric acid and collect hydrogen
(B) Mix solutions of two soluble copper salts and filter a precipitate
(C) Add excess copper oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid, filter, then crystallise the solution
(D) Electrolyse copper sulfate solution and scrape copper from the electrode
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Copper oxide reacts with sulfuric acid; excess solid is filtered off and the filtrate is crystallised.

Q26Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which gas is produced at the cathode?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Sulfur dioxide
(D) Steam only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode to form hydrogen gas.

Q27What happens when a piece of zinc is placed in copper sulfate solution?

(A) Zinc displaces copper, forming zinc sulfate and copper
(B) Copper displaces zinc from solution
(C) No reaction occurs because zinc is less reactive than copper
(D) Hydrogen gas is produced immediately from the salt
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces copper from copper sulfate solution.

Q28An acid has pH 2. Dilute alkali is added slowly. What happens to the pH?

(A) It decreases to 0
(B) It stays at 2
(C) It increases towards 7 and may go above 7
(D) It becomes exactly 14 immediately
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Adding alkali neutralises acid, so the pH rises; excess alkali makes the solution alkaline.

Q29When concentrated sodium chloride solution (brine) is electrolysed, which gas is produced at the anode?

(A) Hydrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chloride ions are discharged at the anode to form chlorine gas.

Q30Which method is used to prepare an insoluble salt such as barium sulfate?

(A) Titration of an acid and an alkali
(B) Precipitation by mixing solutions containing the needed ions, then filtering and washing
(C) Heating a metal carbonate until it decomposes
(D) Fractional distillation of two liquids
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Insoluble salts are made by precipitation, followed by filtration, washing and drying.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31On an exothermic reaction profile, the products are:

(A) At the same level as the reactants because energy is conserved in the diagram only
(B) Higher than the reactants
(C) Not included in the profile
(D) Lower than the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In an exothermic reaction the products have less energy than the reactants; the difference is released.

Q32A reaction mixture becomes colder during a reaction. What does this show?

(A) The reaction is endothermic and takes in energy from the surroundings
(B) The reaction must be a neutralisation
(C) No chemical reaction has taken place
(D) Bonds are only being formed, never broken
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A temperature fall indicates that energy is absorbed from the surroundings, so the reaction is endothermic.

Q33In a hydrogen fuel cell, what is the overall reaction?

(A) Hydrogen reacts with nitrogen to form ammonia
(B) Water is split into hydrogen and oxygen
(C) Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water
(D) Carbon reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen fuel cells combine hydrogen and oxygen to produce water and electrical energy.

Q34Using bond energies: N≡N = 945 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, N-H = 391 kJ/mol. For N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, what is the overall energy change?

(A) -2253 kJ/mol
(B) -93 kJ/mol
(C) +93 kJ/mol
(D) -2346 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy to break bonds = 945 + (3 × 436) = 2253 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ; ΔH = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol.

Q35What is the activation energy of a reaction?

(A) The minimum energy that particles must have to react when they collide
(B) The total energy released by every reaction
(C) The energy of the products minus the mass of reactants
(D) The temperature at which a substance melts
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Activation energy is the minimum energy needed for a collision to result in a reaction.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Which measurement can be used to follow the rate of a reaction that produces a gas?

(A) The colour of the container only
(B) The mass of the empty beaker before the reaction
(C) The volume of gas produced over time
(D) The boiling point of the product
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rate can be found by measuring how quickly gas is produced, for example using a gas syringe.

Q37Why does increasing the pressure of reacting gases increase the rate?

(A) It always lowers the activation energy to zero
(B) The particles are closer together, so collisions are more frequent
(C) It increases the size of each particle
(D) It prevents the reverse reaction completely
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Higher pressure pushes gas particles closer together, increasing collision frequency.

Q38Why does a powdered solid reactant react faster than the same mass of large lumps?

(A) Powder has a smaller surface area
(B) Powder changes the chemical formula of the solid
(C) Powder contains no particles at the surface
(D) Powder has a larger surface area, so more collisions can occur at the surface
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Increasing surface area exposes more particles to collisions with the other reactant.

Q39A small amount of reactant is added to a system at equilibrium. What is the immediate effect predicted by Le Chatelier's principle?

(A) The system changes to reduce the effect of the added reactant
(B) The system always becomes colder
(C) The equilibrium is destroyed permanently
(D) Both reactions stop at once
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The equilibrium shifts in the direction that partly counteracts the change, using up some added reactant.

Q40What effect does adding a catalyst have on the position of equilibrium?

(A) It always shifts equilibrium to the products side
(B) It always shifts equilibrium to the reactants side
(C) It increases the yield of product at equilibrium in all reactions
(D) It does not change the position of equilibrium, but equilibrium is reached faster
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst speeds up both forward and reverse reactions equally, so the position does not change.

Q41Hydrated copper sulfate can be heated to form anhydrous copper sulfate and water. The forward reaction is endothermic: hydrated copper sulfate ⇌ anhydrous copper sulfate + water. What happens when the mixture is heated?

(A) More hydrated copper sulfate forms
(B) The reaction stops because it is reversible
(C) More anhydrous copper sulfate and water form
(D) Only the colour changes, with no chemical change
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Heating favours the endothermic forward reaction, producing white anhydrous copper sulfate and water.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42During fractional distillation of crude oil, hydrocarbons are separated mainly because they have different:

(A) Boiling points
(B) Colours in daylight
(C) Magnetic properties
(D) Electrical charges
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each fraction condenses at a different temperature range because the hydrocarbons boil at different temperatures.

Q43What happens when an alkene reacts with bromine water?

(A) The bromine water stays orange
(B) A silver mirror forms
(C) The mixture turns limewater milky
(D) The orange bromine water becomes colourless
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes react with bromine in an addition reaction, removing the orange colour.

Q44What are the products of the complete combustion of propane, C3H8?

(A) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(B) Carbon dioxide and water
(C) Carbon and water only
(D) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Complete combustion of a hydrocarbon in plenty of oxygen forms carbon dioxide and water.

Q45Which functional group is present in all carboxylic acids?

(A) C=C
(B) -OH in an alcohol only
(C) -COOH
(D) C=O in a ketone only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH functional group.

Q46What must be present in a monomer used for addition polymerisation?

(A) A carbon-carbon double bond that can open up
(B) A metal atom in the centre of the molecule
(C) Two different functional groups that release water
(D) An ionic lattice structure
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Addition polymerisation uses unsaturated monomers whose double bonds open so chains can form.

Q47Esters are formed by reacting:

(A) An alkane with oxygen
(B) An alcohol with a carboxylic acid
(C) An acid with a metal carbonate only
(D) Two alkenes with bromine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alcohols react with carboxylic acids to form esters and water.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48What is a formulation?

(A) A pure substance with a sharp melting point
(B) A gas produced during electrolysis
(C) A test used to identify sulfate ions
(D) A mixture designed as a useful product with measured amounts of components
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Formulations are mixtures made to a set recipe so the product has the required properties.

Q49Which test identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) It turns limewater milky
(B) It bleaches damp litmus paper
(C) It gives a squeaky pop when a lit splint is applied
(D) It relights a glowing splint
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when mixed with air and ignited by a lit splint.

Q50On a chromatogram, a substance moves 7.5 cm and the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is its Rf value?

(A) 0.75
(B) 1.33
(C) 0.25
(D) 7.5
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rf = distance moved by substance ÷ distance moved by solvent = 7.5 ÷ 10.0 = 0.75.

Q51Which is the correct test for sulfate ions in solution?

(A) Add sodium hydroxide and warm, then test for ammonia
(B) Add dilute hydrochloric acid, then barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(C) Add silver nitrate solution only; a yellow precipitate forms
(D) Add limewater and look for it turning milky
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Barium sulfate is white and insoluble; acid is added first to remove carbonate ions that could interfere.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What was the Earth's early atmosphere mainly composed of, according to current theory?

(A) Carbon dioxide, with water vapour, nitrogen and small amounts of other gases
(B) Oxygen and nitrogen in today's proportions
(C) Pure hydrogen only
(D) Argon and oxygen only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Intense volcanic activity released gases, producing an early atmosphere rich in carbon dioxide.

Q53How did the evolution of photosynthetic organisms change the atmosphere?

(A) They removed all nitrogen from the air
(B) They increased carbon dioxide and decreased oxygen
(C) They decreased carbon dioxide and increased oxygen
(D) They had no effect on atmospheric gases
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, changing the atmosphere over long periods.

Q54Why are nitrogen oxides formed in car engines?

(A) Nitrogen and oxygen from the air react at the high temperatures inside engines
(B) They are added to petrol as a colouring
(C) They form only when engines are switched off
(D) They are released by melting engine metal
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The high temperature in engines provides enough energy for nitrogen and oxygen in air to react.

Q55What is a problem caused by particulate carbon (soot) from incomplete combustion?

(A) It makes all fuels renewable
(B) It can cause respiratory problems and contribute to global dimming
(C) It increases the oxygen content of air
(D) It prevents acid rain completely
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fine carbon particles can damage lungs and reflect sunlight, reducing light reaching the surface.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Which processes are used in treating waste water to make it safe to release?

(A) Fractional distillation and cracking
(B) Electrolysis and neutralisation only
(C) Screening, sedimentation and biological breakdown of organic matter
(D) Filtration through crude oil fractions
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sewage treatment includes removing solids, settling, and using microbes to break down organic material.

Q57What is phytomining?

(A) Extracting metals by heating ores in a blast furnace only
(B) Using bacteria to produce sulfuric acid from rocks
(C) Separating crude oil using plant leaves
(D) Growing plants in metal-rich ground, then burning the plants to obtain metal compounds from the ash
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Phytomining uses plants to absorb metal compounds from low-grade ores or contaminated land.

Q58What is ammonia mainly used to manufacture?

(A) Nitrogen fertilisers
(B) Glass bottles
(C) Petrol fractions
(D) Sodium hydroxide solution
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Most ammonia from the Haber process is used to make nitrogen-based fertilisers.

Q59Which is a difficulty in using life cycle assessments?

(A) They can never include energy use
(B) Some parts involve value judgements, so two assessments may not agree completely
(C) They are only used for gases
(D) They always give exactly the same result for every assessor
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

LCAs can involve subjective decisions, such as how serious different environmental effects are.

Q60Which methods can obtain potable water from sea water?

(A) Electrolysis and cracking
(B) Fermentation and filtration only
(C) Adding chlorine and nothing else
(D) Distillation or reverse osmosis
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sea water can be desalinated by distillation or by reverse osmosis through membranes.