GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 17
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1Where are protons and neutrons found in an atom?
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Correct: (B)
Protons and neutrons are in the central nucleus; electrons are in shells around it.
Q2What is the relative charge of an electron?
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Correct: (D)
An electron has a relative charge of -1 and a very small mass.
Q3What are isotopes of the same element?
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Correct: (A)
Isotopes have the same proton number, so they are the same element, but different neutron numbers.
Q4What is the electronic structure of sodium, atomic number 11?
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Correct: (C)
Sodium has 11 electrons arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 1 in the third.
Q5How does the reactivity of Group 1 metals change down the group?
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Correct: (B)
Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is lost more easily.
Q6Why are the noble gases very unreactive?
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Correct: (A)
A full outer shell makes noble gas atoms stable, so they do not easily gain, lose or share electrons.
Q7The mass number of an atom is the total number of:
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Correct: (D)
Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons in the nucleus.
Q8How did Mendeleev improve his periodic table?
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Correct: (C)
Mendeleev left gaps and used patterns to predict properties of elements not yet discovered.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9How is an ionic bond formed?
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Correct: (A)
Ionic bonding involves electron transfer, producing oppositely charged ions that attract each other.
Q10What is a covalent bond?
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Correct: (C)
In a covalent bond, atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.
Q11Why is diamond very hard?
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Correct: (D)
Diamond has a giant covalent structure with strong bonds throughout, making it very hard.
Q12Which description best fits metallic bonding?
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Correct: (B)
Metals consist of positive ions in a lattice with delocalised electrons moving through the structure.
Q13Why can graphite conduct electricity?
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Correct: (D)
In graphite, one electron from each carbon atom is delocalised and can carry charge.
Q14Which is a key property of nanoparticles compared with the same material in bulk?
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Correct: (A)
Nanoparticles are very small, so a large proportion of their atoms are on the surface.
Q15Why do simple molecular substances have low melting points?
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Correct: (C)
The strong covalent bonds inside molecules stay intact; weak forces between molecules are overcome during melting.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16How many moles are there in 4.0 g of sodium hydroxide, NaOH? Relative formula mass of NaOH = 40.
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Correct: (B)
Moles = mass ÷ Mr = 4.0 ÷ 40 = 0.10 mol.
Q17What is the relative formula mass of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? Relative atomic masses: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16.
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Correct: (A)
Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.
Q18Magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide forms from 4.8 g of magnesium? Relative atomic mass: Mg = 24. Relative formula mass: MgO = 40.
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Correct: (D)
4.8 g Mg = 0.20 mol, which forms 0.20 mol MgO; mass = 0.20 × 40 = 8.0 g.
Q19A solution contains 0.50 mol of solute in 250 cm^3. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?
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Correct: (C)
250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3, so concentration = 0.50 ÷ 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.
Q20A reaction should produce 24 g of product, but only 18 g is made. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage yield = (18 ÷ 24) × 100 = 75%.
Q21For the reaction Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2, zinc chloride is the desired product. The total mass of products is 138 units and the mass of ZnCl2 is 136 units. What is the atom economy for making ZnCl2?
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Correct: (D)
Atom economy = (136 ÷ 138) × 100 = 98.6%.
Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3.
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Correct: (A)
Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23Which ion is produced by all acids in aqueous solution?
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Correct: (C)
Acids release hydrogen ions, H^+, when dissolved in water.
Q24What is an alkali?
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Correct: (B)
Alkalis are soluble hydroxides and produce hydroxide ions, OH^-, in aqueous solution.
Q25Which salt is formed when magnesium oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (A)
Hydrochloric acid forms chloride salts, so magnesium oxide gives magnesium chloride.
Q26Molten lead bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which substance forms at the cathode?
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Correct: (D)
At the cathode, positively charged lead ions gain electrons and form lead metal.
Q27Which of these metals is the most reactive?
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Correct: (C)
Potassium is near the top of the reactivity series and is more reactive than zinc, iron and copper.
Q28What are the products when calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (A)
Metal carbonates react with acids to form a salt, water and carbon dioxide.
Q29In a titration, phenolphthalein is colourless in acid. What colour is it in alkali?
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Correct: (B)
Phenolphthalein is pink in alkaline solution and colourless in acidic solution.
Q30When sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, why is hydrogen formed at the cathode instead of sodium?
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Correct: (D)
In aqueous solution, hydrogen is produced at the cathode if the metal is more reactive than hydrogen.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?
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Correct: (A)
Exothermic reactions release energy, usually raising the temperature of the surroundings.
Q32On a reaction profile for an endothermic reaction, where are the products compared with the reactants?
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Correct: (C)
Endothermic reactions take in energy, so the products have more energy than the reactants.
Q33What happens when chemical bonds are broken during a reaction?
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Correct: (B)
Breaking bonds is endothermic; energy must be supplied to break them.
Q34Using bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol. For H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl, what is the overall energy change?
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Correct: (D)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q35In a simple chemical cell, what usually gives the largest voltage?
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Correct: (C)
The greater the difference in reactivity between the two electrodes, the greater the voltage produced.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (A)
Higher temperature gives particles more energy, causing more frequent and more successful collisions.
Q37How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst lowers the activation energy and remains chemically unchanged at the end.
Q38Why does increasing the concentration of a solution increase reaction rate?
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Correct: (B)
A higher concentration means more reacting particles per unit volume and more frequent collisions.
Q39At dynamic equilibrium in a closed system, what is true?
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Correct: (C)
At equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so concentrations stay constant.
Q40For the Haber process equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, what happens to the yield of ammonia if the pressure is increased?
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Correct: (B)
There are 4 gas molecules on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure favours ammonia formation.
Q41A reversible reaction is endothermic in the forward direction. What happens if the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (A)
Increasing temperature favours the endothermic direction, which is the forward reaction here.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42How is crude oil separated into fractions?
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Correct: (D)
Fractional distillation separates hydrocarbons using their different boiling points.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (C)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2.
Q44What is observed when ethene is shaken with bromine water?
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Correct: (A)
Ethene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, decolourising bromine water.
Q45Which conditions are used to make ethanol by fermentation?
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Correct: (B)
Sugars are fermented by yeast in warm, anaerobic conditions to form ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Q46Which functional group is present in ethanoic acid?
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Correct: (C)
Carboxylic acids contain the functional group -COOH.
Q47How is poly(ethene) formed from ethene?
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Correct: (D)
Ethene molecules join together when their double bonds open, forming long polymer chains.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48Which statement is true for a pure substance?
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Correct: (B)
A pure substance melts and boils at specific temperatures; impurities change and broaden these ranges.
Q49In chromatography, why do different substances move different distances?
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Correct: (A)
Substances spend different proportions of time in each phase, so they travel at different rates.
Q50A dye moves 4.0 cm on a chromatogram while the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?
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Correct: (D)
Rf = distance moved by dye ÷ distance moved by solvent = 4.0 ÷ 10.0 = 0.40.
Q51Which test identifies chlorine gas?
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Correct: (C)
Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper, after first turning it red.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen?
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Correct: (B)
Air is about 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.
Q53What is the main human cause of increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
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Correct: (D)
Combustion of coal, oil and natural gas releases carbon dioxide into the air.
Q54Which pollutant gas can cause acid rain when released from burning fossil fuels containing sulfur impurities?
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Correct: (A)
Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acidic solutions, producing acid rain.
Q55Why is carbon monoxide dangerous to humans?
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Correct: (C)
Carbon monoxide is toxic because it reduces the ability of blood to carry oxygen.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Why is sewage water treated before it is released into the environment?
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Correct: (D)
Sewage treatment reduces pollutants and microbes so the water can be released more safely.
Q57How is aluminium extracted from its ore?
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Correct: (A)
Aluminium is too reactive to be extracted by carbon reduction, so electrolysis is used.
Q58What does a life cycle assessment (LCA) consider?
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Correct: (C)
An LCA covers raw materials, manufacture, transport, use and disposal.
Q59Which is an advantage of recycling metals?
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Correct: (B)
Recycling conserves ores and often reduces energy use and environmental damage.
Q60Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?
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Correct: (A)
Ammonia is manufactured using nitrogen and hydrogen at about 450°C and 200 atmospheres with an iron catalyst.
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