GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 17

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1Where are protons and neutrons found in an atom?

(A) In the electron shells
(B) In the nucleus
(C) Spread evenly through the atom
(D) Outside the nucleus
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Protons and neutrons are in the central nucleus; electrons are in shells around it.

Q2What is the relative charge of an electron?

(A) +1
(B) 0
(C) +2
(D) -1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An electron has a relative charge of -1 and a very small mass.

Q3What are isotopes of the same element?

(A) Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
(B) Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
(C) Atoms with the same mass number but different chemical properties
(D) Atoms that have gained or lost electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Isotopes have the same proton number, so they are the same element, but different neutron numbers.

Q4What is the electronic structure of sodium, atomic number 11?

(A) 2,8,2
(B) 2,7,2
(C) 2,8,1
(D) 8,2,1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium has 11 electrons arranged as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 1 in the third.

Q5How does the reactivity of Group 1 metals change down the group?

(A) It decreases
(B) It increases
(C) It stays the same
(D) It increases then decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is lost more easily.

Q6Why are the noble gases very unreactive?

(A) They have a full outer shell of electrons
(B) They have no electrons
(C) They are all solids at room temperature
(D) They have equal numbers of protons and neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A full outer shell makes noble gas atoms stable, so they do not easily gain, lose or share electrons.

Q7The mass number of an atom is the total number of:

(A) Protons only
(B) Neutrons only
(C) Electrons and protons
(D) Protons and neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons in the nucleus.

Q8How did Mendeleev improve his periodic table?

(A) He arranged elements by colour
(B) He put all gases in one group
(C) He left gaps for undiscovered elements and predicted their properties
(D) He arranged elements alphabetically
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mendeleev left gaps and used patterns to predict properties of elements not yet discovered.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9How is an ionic bond formed?

(A) Electrons are transferred from a metal atom to a non-metal atom
(B) Pairs of electrons are shared between two non-metals
(C) Positive ions move through a sea of electrons
(D) Atoms are joined by weak intermolecular forces
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ionic bonding involves electron transfer, producing oppositely charged ions that attract each other.

Q10What is a covalent bond?

(A) A strong attraction between oppositely charged ions
(B) A bond formed by transferring electrons
(C) A shared pair of electrons between atoms
(D) A weak force between separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a covalent bond, atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.

Q11Why is diamond very hard?

(A) It contains weak intermolecular forces
(B) It has layers that slide over each other
(C) It is made of metal ions in a lattice
(D) Each carbon atom forms strong covalent bonds in a giant rigid network
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Diamond has a giant covalent structure with strong bonds throughout, making it very hard.

Q12Which description best fits metallic bonding?

(A) Shared pairs of electrons between two atoms only
(B) A regular arrangement of positive metal ions surrounded by delocalised electrons
(C) Neutral atoms held together by weak forces only
(D) Negative ions attracted to neutral atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metals consist of positive ions in a lattice with delocalised electrons moving through the structure.

Q13Why can graphite conduct electricity?

(A) It contains free metal ions
(B) All of its electrons are fixed in bonds
(C) It has weak forces between molecules
(D) It has delocalised electrons that can move through the structure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In graphite, one electron from each carbon atom is delocalised and can carry charge.

Q14Which is a key property of nanoparticles compared with the same material in bulk?

(A) They have a very high surface area to volume ratio
(B) They always have a lower reactivity
(C) They contain only one atom each
(D) They cannot be used as catalysts
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nanoparticles are very small, so a large proportion of their atoms are on the surface.

Q15Why do simple molecular substances have low melting points?

(A) Their covalent bonds are very weak
(B) Their atoms have no electrons
(C) Only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome when they melt
(D) They contain ions that move freely
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The strong covalent bonds inside molecules stay intact; weak forces between molecules are overcome during melting.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16How many moles are there in 4.0 g of sodium hydroxide, NaOH? Relative formula mass of NaOH = 40.

(A) 0.01 mol
(B) 0.10 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 1.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = mass ÷ Mr = 4.0 ÷ 40 = 0.10 mol.

Q17What is the relative formula mass of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? Relative atomic masses: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16.

(A) 100
(B) 84
(C) 90
(D) 116
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.

Q18Magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide forms from 4.8 g of magnesium? Relative atomic mass: Mg = 24. Relative formula mass: MgO = 40.

(A) 4.8 g
(B) 6.4 g
(C) 3.2 g
(D) 8.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

4.8 g Mg = 0.20 mol, which forms 0.20 mol MgO; mass = 0.20 × 40 = 8.0 g.

Q19A solution contains 0.50 mol of solute in 250 cm^3. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(B) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(D) 4.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3, so concentration = 0.50 ÷ 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q20A reaction should produce 24 g of product, but only 18 g is made. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 90%
(D) 133%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (18 ÷ 24) × 100 = 75%.

Q21For the reaction Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2, zinc chloride is the desired product. The total mass of products is 138 units and the mass of ZnCl2 is 136 units. What is the atom economy for making ZnCl2?

(A) 1.4%
(B) 50%
(C) 72.5%
(D) 98.6%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Atom economy = (136 ÷ 138) × 100 = 98.6%.

Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3.

(A) 6 dm^3
(B) 12 dm^3
(C) 24 dm^3
(D) 48 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23Which ion is produced by all acids in aqueous solution?

(A) OH^-
(B) Cl^-
(C) H^+
(D) Na^+
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acids release hydrogen ions, H^+, when dissolved in water.

Q24What is an alkali?

(A) An insoluble base
(B) A soluble hydroxide that releases OH^- ions in solution
(C) A salt made from a strong acid
(D) A substance with pH exactly 7
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkalis are soluble hydroxides and produce hydroxide ions, OH^-, in aqueous solution.

Q25Which salt is formed when magnesium oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid?

(A) Magnesium chloride
(B) Magnesium sulfate
(C) Magnesium nitrate
(D) Magnesium hydroxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrochloric acid forms chloride salts, so magnesium oxide gives magnesium chloride.

Q26Molten lead bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which substance forms at the cathode?

(A) Bromine
(B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Lead
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At the cathode, positively charged lead ions gain electrons and form lead metal.

Q27Which of these metals is the most reactive?

(A) Copper
(B) Zinc
(C) Potassium
(D) Iron
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Potassium is near the top of the reactivity series and is more reactive than zinc, iron and copper.

Q28What are the products when calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Calcium chloride, water and carbon dioxide
(B) Calcium hydroxide and chlorine
(C) Calcium chloride and hydrogen
(D) Calcium oxide and water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metal carbonates react with acids to form a salt, water and carbon dioxide.

Q29In a titration, phenolphthalein is colourless in acid. What colour is it in alkali?

(A) Red
(B) Pink
(C) Green
(D) Blue
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Phenolphthalein is pink in alkaline solution and colourless in acidic solution.

Q30When sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, why is hydrogen formed at the cathode instead of sodium?

(A) Hydrogen ions are absent from the solution
(B) Sodium is a gas at room temperature
(C) Chloride ions move to the cathode
(D) Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen, so hydrogen ions are discharged
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In aqueous solution, hydrogen is produced at the cathode if the metal is more reactive than hydrogen.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?

(A) It transfers energy from the reacting substances to the surroundings
(B) It always needs a catalyst to start
(C) The temperature of the surroundings decreases
(D) The products have more energy than the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Exothermic reactions release energy, usually raising the temperature of the surroundings.

Q32On a reaction profile for an endothermic reaction, where are the products compared with the reactants?

(A) At the same energy level
(B) Below the reactants
(C) At a higher energy level
(D) Energy levels are not shown on reaction profiles
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Endothermic reactions take in energy, so the products have more energy than the reactants.

Q33What happens when chemical bonds are broken during a reaction?

(A) Energy is always released
(B) Energy is taken in from the surroundings
(C) No energy change occurs
(D) New atoms are created
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Breaking bonds is endothermic; energy must be supplied to break them.

Q34Using bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol. For H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl, what is the overall energy change?

(A) -862 kJ/mol
(B) +184 kJ/mol
(C) -678 kJ/mol
(D) -184 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q35In a simple chemical cell, what usually gives the largest voltage?

(A) Using the same metal for both electrodes
(B) Using electrodes made from metals with a small difference in reactivity
(C) Using electrodes made from metals with a large difference in reactivity
(D) Removing the electrolyte from the cell
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The greater the difference in reactivity between the two electrodes, the greater the voltage produced.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) Particles collide more often and a greater proportion have energy above the activation energy
(B) It always increases the concentration of the reactants
(C) It lowers the mass of the products
(D) It stops particles moving backwards
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Higher temperature gives particles more energy, causing more frequent and more successful collisions.

Q37How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It increases the temperature of the mixture
(B) It is used up to make more product
(C) It decreases the surface area of reactants
(D) It provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy and remains chemically unchanged at the end.

Q38Why does increasing the concentration of a solution increase reaction rate?

(A) Each particle has much more energy
(B) There are more particles in the same volume, so collisions happen more frequently
(C) The activation energy becomes zero
(D) The products form more slowly
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A higher concentration means more reacting particles per unit volume and more frequent collisions.

Q39At dynamic equilibrium in a closed system, what is true?

(A) The forward reaction has stopped
(B) The reverse reaction has stopped
(C) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal
(D) No products remain in the mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so concentrations stay constant.

Q40For the Haber process equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, what happens to the yield of ammonia if the pressure is increased?

(A) It decreases because more gas molecules form
(B) It increases because the forward reaction produces fewer gas molecules
(C) It stays the same because pressure never affects gases
(D) The reaction stops completely
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

There are 4 gas molecules on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure favours ammonia formation.

Q41A reversible reaction is endothermic in the forward direction. What happens if the temperature is increased?

(A) The equilibrium shifts in the forward direction
(B) The equilibrium shifts in the reverse direction
(C) The equilibrium position never changes
(D) Both reactions stop
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Increasing temperature favours the endothermic direction, which is the forward reaction here.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42How is crude oil separated into fractions?

(A) By filtration
(B) By electrolysis
(C) By simple crystallisation
(D) By fractional distillation
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Fractional distillation separates hydrocarbons using their different boiling points.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnH2n+2
(D) CnHn+2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n+2.

Q44What is observed when ethene is shaken with bromine water?

(A) The orange solution turns colourless
(B) A white precipitate forms
(C) The solution turns blue
(D) Hydrogen gas is produced
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ethene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, decolourising bromine water.

Q45Which conditions are used to make ethanol by fermentation?

(A) High pressure and an iron catalyst
(B) Yeast, warmth and anaerobic conditions
(C) Concentrated sulfuric acid and electrolysis
(D) Fractional distillation of crude oil
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sugars are fermented by yeast in warm, anaerobic conditions to form ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q46Which functional group is present in ethanoic acid?

(A) -OH only in a hydrocarbon chain
(B) C=C
(C) -COOH
(D) -NH2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carboxylic acids contain the functional group -COOH.

Q47How is poly(ethene) formed from ethene?

(A) By neutralisation
(B) By fermentation
(C) By fractional distillation
(D) By addition polymerisation of many ethene monomers
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ethene molecules join together when their double bonds open, forming long polymer chains.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48Which statement is true for a pure substance?

(A) It contains at least two different elements chemically combined
(B) It has a sharp melting point
(C) It always melts over a wide temperature range
(D) It cannot be a single element
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A pure substance melts and boils at specific temperatures; impurities change and broaden these ranges.

Q49In chromatography, why do different substances move different distances?

(A) They are distributed differently between the stationary phase and the mobile phase
(B) They all have identical solubility in the solvent
(C) They react with the paper to form gases
(D) They are separated by their melting points only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Substances spend different proportions of time in each phase, so they travel at different rates.

Q50A dye moves 4.0 cm on a chromatogram while the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?

(A) 2.5
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.60
(D) 0.40
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rf = distance moved by dye ÷ distance moved by solvent = 4.0 ÷ 10.0 = 0.40.

Q51Which test identifies chlorine gas?

(A) It relights a glowing splint
(B) It turns limewater milky
(C) It bleaches damp litmus paper
(D) It gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper, after first turning it red.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen?

(A) 21%
(B) 78%
(C) 1%
(D) 0.04%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Air is about 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.

Q53What is the main human cause of increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

(A) Growing more plants
(B) Using bicycles for transport
(C) Melting ice caps directly releasing all carbon dioxide
(D) Burning fossil fuels
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Combustion of coal, oil and natural gas releases carbon dioxide into the air.

Q54Which pollutant gas can cause acid rain when released from burning fossil fuels containing sulfur impurities?

(A) Sulfur dioxide
(B) Nitrogen from the air only
(C) Oxygen
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acidic solutions, producing acid rain.

Q55Why is carbon monoxide dangerous to humans?

(A) It is a greenhouse gas with no other effects
(B) It turns litmus paper blue
(C) It binds strongly to haemoglobin and reduces oxygen transport in the blood
(D) It makes fuels burn too slowly to use
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon monoxide is toxic because it reduces the ability of blood to carry oxygen.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Why is sewage water treated before it is released into the environment?

(A) To turn it into crude oil fractions
(B) To increase the number of harmful microbes
(C) To make it safe to drink directly
(D) To remove organic matter and harmful microorganisms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sewage treatment reduces pollutants and microbes so the water can be released more safely.

Q57How is aluminium extracted from its ore?

(A) By electrolysis because aluminium is very reactive
(B) By heating with carbon alone because it is unreactive
(C) By filtration of molten rock
(D) By fractional distillation
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Aluminium is too reactive to be extracted by carbon reduction, so electrolysis is used.

Q58What does a life cycle assessment (LCA) consider?

(A) Only the cost of selling a product
(B) Only the stage when a product is used
(C) The environmental impact of a product at every stage of its life
(D) Only whether a product can be recycled
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An LCA covers raw materials, manufacture, transport, use and disposal.

Q59Which is an advantage of recycling metals?

(A) It always uses more energy than mining new ore
(B) It saves natural resources and usually uses less energy than extracting new metal
(C) It produces unlimited new metal atoms
(D) It removes the need to sort waste materials
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Recycling conserves ores and often reduces energy use and environmental damage.

Q60Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?

(A) About 450°C, 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst
(B) Room temperature, 1 atmosphere and yeast
(C) About 100°C, very low pressure and no catalyst
(D) Electrolysis using a molten salt
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ammonia is manufactured using nitrogen and hydrogen at about 450°C and 200 atmospheres with an iron catalyst.