GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 15
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1An atom of sodium contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of this sodium atom?
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Correct: (C)
Mass number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.
Q2Which statement correctly describes isotopes of the same element?
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Correct: (B)
Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same proton number) with different numbers of neutrons.
Q3Chlorine has atomic number 17. What is the electronic structure of a chlorine atom?
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Correct: (D)
17 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 7 in the third.
Q4A sample of chlorine contains 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of this sample?
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Correct: (A)
(35 × 0.75) + (37 × 0.25) = 26.25 + 9.25 = 35.5.
Q5The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group because, going down the group, the outer electron…
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Correct: (B)
More shells mean more shielding and a weaker attraction, so the outer electron is lost more easily.
Q6How did Mendeleev improve the early periodic tables?
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Correct: (C)
Mendeleev left gaps and correctly predicted the properties of elements such as germanium.
Q7Which is a typical property of transition metals compared with Group 1 metals?
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Correct: (D)
Transition metals typically form coloured compounds, have high melting points and are useful catalysts.
Q8Why are the noble gases unreactive?
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Correct: (A)
A stable full outer shell means noble gas atoms have no tendency to react.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9How are ions formed during ionic bonding?
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Correct: (A)
Metal atoms lose electrons to form positive ions and non-metal atoms gain them to form negative ions.
Q10Magnesium has atomic number 12. When magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide, what is the charge on the magnesium ion?
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Correct: (C)
A magnesium atom loses its two outer electrons, forming an Mg^2+ ion.
Q11How many covalent bonds does the carbon atom form in a molecule of methane, CH4?
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Correct: (B)
Carbon shares one electron pair with each of the four hydrogen atoms.
Q12Diamond is very hard and has a very high melting point because…
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Correct: (D)
The giant covalent lattice of strong bonds makes diamond hard and gives it a very high melting point.
Q13Graphite conducts electricity because…
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Correct: (A)
Each carbon atom in graphite contributes one electron to a delocalised pool that can carry charge.
Q14Why can metals be bent and shaped without breaking?
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Correct: (C)
The regular layers of positive ions can slide while the metallic bonding still holds the structure together.
Q15Which is a typical size range for nanoparticles?
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Correct: (B)
Nanoparticles are between 1 and 100 nanometres in size, containing a few hundred atoms.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Relative atomic masses: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (D)
40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.
Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of sodium hydroxide, NaOH? (Mr of NaOH = 40)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 40 = 0.2 mol.
Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 12 g of magnesium? (Relative atomic masses: Mg = 24, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
12 g Mg = 12 / 24 = 0.5 mol, which forms 0.5 mol of MgO; Mr of MgO = 40, so mass = 0.5 × 40 = 20 g.
Q19A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute dissolved to make 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (B)
250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.
Q20In a reaction the theoretical yield of a product is 50 g, but only 40 g is actually obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (D)
Percentage yield = (40 / 50) × 100 = 80%.
Q21Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What is the atom economy for making calcium oxide? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)
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Correct: (A)
Atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%, because the carbon dioxide is a waste product.
Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at room temperature and pressure)
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Correct: (C)
Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23What are the products when an acid reacts with an alkali?
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Correct: (B)
Neutralisation: acid + alkali → salt + water, as H^+ ions react with OH^- ions to form water.
Q24A solution has a pH of 2. What does this tell you about the solution?
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Correct: (D)
A pH of 2 is well below 7, showing a strongly acidic solution with a high concentration of H^+ ions.
Q25Copper sulfate is made by reacting excess copper oxide with warm dilute sulfuric acid. What is the next step to obtain a pure copper sulfate solution?
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Correct: (A)
Filtration removes the excess solid copper oxide, leaving a pure copper sulfate solution that can be crystallised.
Q26Molten lead bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (C)
Positive Pb^2+ ions are attracted to the cathode, where they gain electrons and form lead metal.
Q27When concentrated sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, the gas produced at the positive electrode (anode) is…
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Correct: (B)
In concentrated solution, chloride ions are discharged at the anode to form chlorine gas.
Q28Zinc is placed in copper sulfate solution and the blue colour fades. What is the correct explanation?
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Correct: (D)
A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from a solution of its salt.
Q29In terms of electrons, oxidation is…
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Correct: (A)
OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss of electrons, Reduction Is Gain of electrons.
Q30What is the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid of the same concentration?
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Correct: (C)
Strong acids such as hydrochloric acid fully ionise; weak acids such as ethanoic acid only partially ionise.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31Which of these processes is exothermic?
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Correct: (C)
Combustion releases energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings increases.
Q32On the reaction profile for a reaction, the activation energy is…
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Correct: (A)
The activation energy is the minimum energy particles must have to react, shown by the peak above the reactants.
Q33Bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 243 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol. Calculate the overall energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.
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Correct: (D)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 243 = 679 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; overall = 679 – 862 = -183 kJ/mol (exothermic).
Q34In a calorimetry experiment, a fuel heats 50 g of water and its temperature rises by 8 °C. Calculate the energy transferred to the water. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)
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Correct: (B)
Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 50 × 4.2 × 8 = 1680 J.
Q35What is the overall reaction that takes place in a hydrogen fuel cell?
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Correct: (C)
Hydrogen is oxidised to form water, and electrical energy is produced directly rather than by burning.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction over this time?
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Correct: (A)
Mean rate = quantity of product formed / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.
Q37Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because the particles…
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Correct: (D)
Higher temperature gives more frequent and more energetic collisions, so more collisions result in a reaction.
Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst lowers the activation energy and is not used up or chemically changed at the end.
Q39Powdered calcium carbonate reacts faster with hydrochloric acid than lumps of the same mass because the powder has…
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Correct: (C)
Breaking a solid into a powder exposes more particles at the surface to collide with the acid.
Q40For the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, what happens to the yield of ammonia if the pressure is increased?
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Correct: (A)
There are 4 gas molecules on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure shifts equilibrium towards ammonia.
Q41In a reversible reaction that has reached equilibrium in a closed system…
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Correct: (D)
At equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so concentrations stay constant.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42In the fractional distillation of crude oil, the different fractions are separated because they have different…
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Correct: (B)
Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column according to its boiling point range.
Q43Butane is an alkane containing 4 carbon atoms. Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2. What is the formula of butane?
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Correct: (C)
For n = 4: H = (2 × 4) + 2 = 10, so butane is C4H10.
Q44Cracking long-chain hydrocarbons is useful mainly because it produces…
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Correct: (A)
Cracking turns less useful long-chain fractions into petrol-range alkanes and reactive alkenes.
Q45Which test shows that a hydrocarbon is an alkene rather than an alkane?
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Correct: (D)
The C=C double bond in an alkene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, removing the orange colour.
Q46Ethanol for alcoholic drinks and some fuels is produced by fermentation of sugars. Which conditions are needed?
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Correct: (B)
Yeast enzymes ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide in the absence of oxygen at a warm temperature.
Q47Poly(ethene) is made from ethene molecules by…
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Correct: (C)
In addition polymerisation many ethene monomers join into long chains with no other product formed.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48How can the melting point of a solid be used to show that it is a pure substance?
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Correct: (D)
Impurities lower the melting point and cause melting over a range; a pure substance melts at one sharp temperature.
Q49In a chromatography experiment, a coloured spot moves 4.0 cm from the start line and the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?
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Correct: (A)
Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent = 4.0 / 10.0 = 0.4.
Q50Chlorine gas can be identified because it…
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine turns damp litmus paper red and then bleaches it white.
Q51To test for sulfate ions, dilute hydrochloric acid is added, followed by barium chloride solution. A positive result is…
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Correct: (C)
Barium ions react with sulfate ions to form white barium sulfate.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52What is the approximate composition of the Earth's atmosphere today?
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Correct: (A)
Today's atmosphere is roughly four-fifths nitrogen and one-fifth oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.
Q53The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of…
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Correct: (D)
Volcanoes released large amounts of carbon dioxide, water vapour and nitrogen as the Earth cooled.
Q54Greenhouse gases raise the Earth's temperature because they…
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Correct: (B)
Greenhouse gases allow short wavelength radiation in but absorb the longer wavelength radiation radiated by the Earth.
Q55Carbon monoxide, formed by incomplete combustion of fuels, is dangerous because it…
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Correct: (C)
Carbon monoxide binds strongly to haemoglobin, preventing red blood cells from carrying oxygen.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Chlorine is added to drinking water during treatment in the UK in order to…
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Correct: (B)
Sterilisation with chlorine (or ozone or ultraviolet light) kills microbes and makes the water safe to drink.
Q57Bioleaching is a modern method of extracting metals that uses…
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Correct: (D)
Bacteria growing on low-grade ores produce leachate solutions containing metal compounds such as copper ions.
Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) is used to assess…
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Correct: (B)
An LCA considers raw materials, manufacture, use and disposal, including energy use and waste at each stage.
Q59Recycling aluminium is particularly important because…
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Correct: (A)
Melting scrap aluminium uses far less energy than extracting it from bauxite by electrolysis.
Q60What conditions are used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia?
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Correct: (D)
The Haber process uses a temperature of 450 °C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst.
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