GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 15

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom of sodium contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of this sodium atom?

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 23
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mass number = protons + neutrons = 11 + 12 = 23.

Q2Which statement correctly describes isotopes of the same element?

(A) They have the same mass number but different numbers of protons
(B) They have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
(C) They have different numbers of protons and electrons
(D) They have the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same proton number) with different numbers of neutrons.

Q3Chlorine has atomic number 17. What is the electronic structure of a chlorine atom?

(A) 2,8
(B) 2,7,8
(C) 8,2,7
(D) 2,8,7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

17 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 7 in the third.

Q4A sample of chlorine contains 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of this sample?

(A) 35.5
(B) 36.0
(C) 36.5
(D) 35.0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

(35 × 0.75) + (37 × 0.25) = 26.25 + 9.25 = 35.5.

Q5The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group because, going down the group, the outer electron…

(A) is in a shell closer to the nucleus
(B) is further from the nucleus and less strongly attracted, so it is lost more easily
(C) is shared between two atoms
(D) becomes a proton
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

More shells mean more shielding and a weaker attraction, so the outer electron is lost more easily.

Q6How did Mendeleev improve the early periodic tables?

(A) He arranged the elements in order of atomic number
(B) He discovered the noble gases
(C) He left gaps for undiscovered elements and predicted their properties
(D) He arranged the elements only by their colours
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mendeleev left gaps and correctly predicted the properties of elements such as germanium.

Q7Which is a typical property of transition metals compared with Group 1 metals?

(A) They have very low densities
(B) They are soft and easily cut
(C) They have very low melting points
(D) They form coloured compounds and can act as catalysts
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition metals typically form coloured compounds, have high melting points and are useful catalysts.

Q8Why are the noble gases unreactive?

(A) They have a full outer electron shell, so they do not easily lose, gain or share electrons
(B) They contain no neutrons
(C) They are all gases at room temperature
(D) They have more neutrons than protons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A stable full outer shell means noble gas atoms have no tendency to react.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9How are ions formed during ionic bonding?

(A) Electrons are transferred from metal atoms to non-metal atoms
(B) Pairs of electrons are shared between atoms
(C) Protons are transferred between atoms
(D) Electrons are destroyed
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metal atoms lose electrons to form positive ions and non-metal atoms gain them to form negative ions.

Q10Magnesium has atomic number 12. When magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide, what is the charge on the magnesium ion?

(A) Mg^+
(B) Mg^-
(C) Mg^2+
(D) Mg^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A magnesium atom loses its two outer electrons, forming an Mg^2+ ion.

Q11How many covalent bonds does the carbon atom form in a molecule of methane, CH4?

(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 8
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon shares one electron pair with each of the four hydrogen atoms.

Q12Diamond is very hard and has a very high melting point because…

(A) it has weak forces between layers of atoms
(B) it contains free electrons
(C) it is made of small separate molecules
(D) each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a giant structure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The giant covalent lattice of strong bonds makes diamond hard and gives it a very high melting point.

Q13Graphite conducts electricity because…

(A) it has delocalised electrons that are free to move through the structure
(B) it contains metal ions
(C) it melts at a low temperature
(D) its atoms are neutral
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each carbon atom in graphite contributes one electron to a delocalised pool that can carry charge.

Q14Why can metals be bent and shaped without breaking?

(A) Their atoms are held together by very weak forces
(B) Their atoms are arranged in small molecules
(C) Layers of atoms can slide over each other
(D) Their electrons are shared between only two atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The regular layers of positive ions can slide while the metallic bonding still holds the structure together.

Q15Which is a typical size range for nanoparticles?

(A) 1 to 100 mm
(B) 1 to 100 nm
(C) 1 to 100 cm
(D) 100 to 1000 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nanoparticles are between 1 and 100 nanometres in size, containing a few hundred atoms.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Relative atomic masses: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 68
(B) 56
(C) 84
(D) 100
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100.

Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of sodium hydroxide, NaOH? (Mr of NaOH = 40)

(A) 0.2 mol
(B) 5 mol
(C) 0.5 mol
(D) 320 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 40 = 0.2 mol.

Q18Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What mass of magnesium oxide is formed from 12 g of magnesium? (Relative atomic masses: Mg = 24, O = 16)

(A) 12 g
(B) 16 g
(C) 20 g
(D) 40 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

12 g Mg = 12 / 24 = 0.5 mol, which forms 0.5 mol of MgO; Mr of MgO = 40, so mass = 0.5 × 40 = 20 g.

Q19A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute dissolved to make 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.5 mol/dm^3
(B) 2.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.125 mol/dm^3
(D) 125 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q20In a reaction the theoretical yield of a product is 50 g, but only 40 g is actually obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 125%
(D) 80%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (40 / 50) × 100 = 80%.

Q21Calcium carbonate decomposes on heating: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What is the atom economy for making calcium oxide? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)

(A) 56%
(B) 44%
(C) 100%
(D) 28%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%, because the carbon dioxide is a waste product.

Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at room temperature and pressure)

(A) 2.4 dm^3
(B) 96 dm^3
(C) 6.0 dm^3
(D) 24 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6.0 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23What are the products when an acid reacts with an alkali?

(A) A salt and hydrogen
(B) A salt and water
(C) A salt, water and carbon dioxide
(D) A salt only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Neutralisation: acid + alkali → salt + water, as H^+ ions react with OH^- ions to form water.

Q24A solution has a pH of 2. What does this tell you about the solution?

(A) It is a weak alkali
(B) It is neutral
(C) It is a weak acid
(D) It is a strong acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A pH of 2 is well below 7, showing a strongly acidic solution with a high concentration of H^+ ions.

Q25Copper sulfate is made by reacting excess copper oxide with warm dilute sulfuric acid. What is the next step to obtain a pure copper sulfate solution?

(A) Filter off the unreacted excess copper oxide
(B) Add more sulfuric acid
(C) Boil away all of the water
(D) Add universal indicator
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Filtration removes the excess solid copper oxide, leaving a pure copper sulfate solution that can be crystallised.

Q26Molten lead bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Bromine
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Lead
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Positive Pb^2+ ions are attracted to the cathode, where they gain electrons and form lead metal.

Q27When concentrated sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, the gas produced at the positive electrode (anode) is…

(A) hydrogen
(B) chlorine
(C) oxygen
(D) sodium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In concentrated solution, chloride ions are discharged at the anode to form chlorine gas.

Q28Zinc is placed in copper sulfate solution and the blue colour fades. What is the correct explanation?

(A) Nothing has reacted
(B) Copper has displaced zinc from its compound
(C) Hydrogen gas has been produced
(D) Zinc has displaced copper because zinc is more reactive than copper
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from a solution of its salt.

Q29In terms of electrons, oxidation is…

(A) the loss of electrons
(B) the gain of electrons
(C) the loss of protons
(D) the gain of neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

OILRIG: Oxidation Is Loss of electrons, Reduction Is Gain of electrons.

Q30What is the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid of the same concentration?

(A) A strong acid contains more water
(B) A weak acid produces more H^+ ions in solution
(C) A strong acid completely ionises in water, while a weak acid only partially ionises
(D) There is no difference between them
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Strong acids such as hydrochloric acid fully ionise; weak acids such as ethanoic acid only partially ionise.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which of these processes is exothermic?

(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) Combustion of methane
(D) Melting of ice
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Combustion releases energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings increases.

Q32On the reaction profile for a reaction, the activation energy is…

(A) the height of the peak above the energy of the reactants
(B) the difference in energy between reactants and products
(C) the energy of the products
(D) the energy stored in the products
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The activation energy is the minimum energy particles must have to react, shown by the peak above the reactants.

Q33Bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 243 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol. Calculate the overall energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.

(A) -679 kJ/mol
(B) +183 kJ/mol
(C) -862 kJ/mol
(D) -183 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 243 = 679 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; overall = 679 – 862 = -183 kJ/mol (exothermic).

Q34In a calorimetry experiment, a fuel heats 50 g of water and its temperature rises by 8 °C. Calculate the energy transferred to the water. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 J/g°C)

(A) 210 J
(B) 1680 J
(C) 336 J
(D) 16 800 J
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Energy = mass × specific heat capacity × temperature change = 50 × 4.2 × 8 = 1680 J.

Q35What is the overall reaction that takes place in a hydrogen fuel cell?

(A) hydrogen + oxygen → carbon dioxide
(B) water → hydrogen + oxygen
(C) hydrogen + oxygen → water
(D) hydrogen + nitrogen → ammonia
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen is oxidised to form water, and electrical energy is produced directly rather than by burning.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction over this time?

(A) 2 cm^3/s
(B) 0.5 cm^3/s
(C) 1800 cm^3/s
(D) 30 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mean rate = quantity of product formed / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.

Q37Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because the particles…

(A) have less kinetic energy
(B) collide less often
(C) become smaller
(D) move faster, so they collide more often and more of the collisions have energy greater than the activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Higher temperature gives more frequent and more energetic collisions, so more collisions result in a reaction.

Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…

(A) increasing the temperature of the mixture
(B) providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) being used up quickly in the reaction
(D) increasing the concentration of the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy and is not used up or chemically changed at the end.

Q39Powdered calcium carbonate reacts faster with hydrochloric acid than lumps of the same mass because the powder has…

(A) a lower activation energy
(B) a greater mass
(C) a larger surface area to volume ratio, so collisions are more frequent
(D) a higher temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Breaking a solid into a powder exposes more particles at the surface to collide with the acid.

Q40For the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, what happens to the yield of ammonia if the pressure is increased?

(A) It increases, because the forward reaction produces fewer gas molecules
(B) It decreases, because the reverse reaction is favoured
(C) It stays exactly the same
(D) The equilibrium stops completely
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

There are 4 gas molecules on the left and 2 on the right, so higher pressure shifts equilibrium towards ammonia.

Q41In a reversible reaction that has reached equilibrium in a closed system…

(A) the forward reaction has stopped
(B) only products remain in the mixture
(C) the amounts of reactants keep increasing
(D) the forward and reverse reactions take place at exactly the same rate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so concentrations stay constant.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42In the fractional distillation of crude oil, the different fractions are separated because they have different…

(A) densities
(B) boiling points
(C) colours
(D) reactivities
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each fraction condenses at a different height in the column according to its boiling point range.

Q43Butane is an alkane containing 4 carbon atoms. Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2. What is the formula of butane?

(A) C4H8
(B) C4H12
(C) C4H10
(D) C4H9
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

For n = 4: H = (2 × 4) + 2 = 10, so butane is C4H10.

Q44Cracking long-chain hydrocarbons is useful mainly because it produces…

(A) shorter-chain alkanes in greater demand as fuels, and alkenes used to make polymers
(B) crude oil from natural gas
(C) pure carbon for electrodes
(D) longer molecules used as lubricants
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cracking turns less useful long-chain fractions into petrol-range alkanes and reactive alkenes.

Q45Which test shows that a hydrocarbon is an alkene rather than an alkane?

(A) It burns with a blue flame
(B) It turns limewater milky when burned
(C) It has a low boiling point
(D) It decolourises bromine water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The C=C double bond in an alkene reacts with bromine in an addition reaction, removing the orange colour.

Q46Ethanol for alcoholic drinks and some fuels is produced by fermentation of sugars. Which conditions are needed?

(A) Yeast, oxygen present, and a temperature of 100 °C
(B) Yeast, anaerobic conditions, and a warm temperature of about 30 °C
(C) A phosphoric acid catalyst and 300 °C
(D) Bacteria, bright light, and freezing temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Yeast enzymes ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide in the absence of oxygen at a warm temperature.

Q47Poly(ethene) is made from ethene molecules by…

(A) condensation polymerisation, with water given off
(B) cracking
(C) addition polymerisation, in which the double bonds open up and the monomers join together
(D) fermentation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In addition polymerisation many ethene monomers join into long chains with no other product formed.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48How can the melting point of a solid be used to show that it is a pure substance?

(A) A pure substance melts over a wide range of temperatures
(B) A pure substance has no melting point
(C) A pure substance melts at a much lower temperature than expected
(D) A pure substance melts sharply at one specific temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Impurities lower the melting point and cause melting over a range; a pure substance melts at one sharp temperature.

Q49In a chromatography experiment, a coloured spot moves 4.0 cm from the start line and the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?

(A) 0.4
(B) 2.5
(C) 0.25
(D) 4.0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rf = distance moved by substance / distance moved by solvent = 4.0 / 10.0 = 0.4.

Q50Chlorine gas can be identified because it…

(A) relights a glowing splint
(B) bleaches damp litmus paper
(C) gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint
(D) turns limewater milky
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine turns damp litmus paper red and then bleaches it white.

Q51To test for sulfate ions, dilute hydrochloric acid is added, followed by barium chloride solution. A positive result is…

(A) a cream precipitate
(B) a yellow precipitate
(C) a white precipitate
(D) vigorous effervescence
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Barium ions react with sulfate ions to form white barium sulfate.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What is the approximate composition of the Earth's atmosphere today?

(A) About 80% nitrogen and 20% oxygen
(B) About 80% oxygen and 20% nitrogen
(C) About 50% nitrogen and 50% carbon dioxide
(D) About 99% carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Today's atmosphere is roughly four-fifths nitrogen and one-fifth oxygen, with small amounts of other gases.

Q53The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have consisted mainly of…

(A) oxygen released by plants
(B) nitrogen and oxygen
(C) water vapour and oxygen
(D) carbon dioxide released by intense volcanic activity
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volcanoes released large amounts of carbon dioxide, water vapour and nitrogen as the Earth cooled.

Q54Greenhouse gases raise the Earth's temperature because they…

(A) destroy the ozone layer
(B) absorb the long wavelength (infrared) radiation emitted by the Earth's surface
(C) reflect all incoming sunlight back into space
(D) react with oxygen in the air
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Greenhouse gases allow short wavelength radiation in but absorb the longer wavelength radiation radiated by the Earth.

Q55Carbon monoxide, formed by incomplete combustion of fuels, is dangerous because it…

(A) causes acid rain
(B) destroys the ozone layer
(C) is poisonous, reducing the ability of the blood to transport oxygen
(D) dissolves in water to form an acid
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carbon monoxide binds strongly to haemoglobin, preventing red blood cells from carrying oxygen.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Chlorine is added to drinking water during treatment in the UK in order to…

(A) remove dissolved salt
(B) kill harmful microorganisms
(C) improve the taste
(D) soften the water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sterilisation with chlorine (or ozone or ultraviolet light) kills microbes and makes the water safe to drink.

Q57Bioleaching is a modern method of extracting metals that uses…

(A) very high temperatures in a furnace
(B) electrolysis of the molten ore
(C) reduction with carbon
(D) bacteria that produce a solution of metal compounds from low-grade ores
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bacteria growing on low-grade ores produce leachate solutions containing metal compounds such as copper ions.

Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) is used to assess…

(A) only the selling price of a product
(B) the environmental impact of a product at every stage of its life
(C) the purity of a product
(D) how long a product will last before breaking
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

An LCA considers raw materials, manufacture, use and disposal, including energy use and waste at each stage.

Q59Recycling aluminium is particularly important because…

(A) producing aluminium by electrolysis uses a very large amount of energy, which recycling saves
(B) aluminium is extracted from crude oil
(C) aluminium cannot be melted down
(D) recycled aluminium is a different element
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Melting scrap aluminium uses far less energy than extracting it from bauxite by electrolysis.

Q60What conditions are used in the Haber process to manufacture ammonia?

(A) 200 °C, 1000 atmospheres and no catalyst
(B) 100 °C, low pressure and a copper catalyst
(C) 800 °C, high pressure and no catalyst
(D) 450 °C, 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The Haber process uses a temperature of 450 °C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst.