GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 14

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1The nucleus of an atom contains…

(A) protons and electrons
(B) neutrons and electrons
(C) protons and neutrons
(D) protons only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Almost all of the mass of an atom is in its nucleus, which contains protons and neutrons.

Q2What is the relative mass of an electron?

(A) Almost zero (about 1/1840 of the mass of a proton)
(B) 1
(C) The same as a neutron
(D) 2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Electrons have a very small relative mass, about 1/1840, often treated as almost zero.

Q3An element has the electronic structure 2,8,7. Which group of the periodic table is it in?

(A) Group 1
(B) Group 2
(C) Group 0
(D) Group 7
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which is 7 for this element.

Q4The noble gases are very unreactive because…

(A) they have no electrons
(B) they have a full outer shell of electrons, giving a stable electronic structure
(C) they are all gases at room temperature
(D) they have equal numbers of protons and neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A full outer shell means noble gas atoms do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

Q5Newlands' law of octaves did not provide a successful periodic table because…

(A) he arranged the elements by atomic number
(B) he left gaps for undiscovered elements
(C) every element fitted the pattern perfectly
(D) the repeating pattern broke down and many elements did not fit after the first few
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Newlands' pattern of properties repeating every eight elements only worked for the lightest elements and broke down beyond calcium.

Q6The reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 7 because…

(A) the outer shell gets closer to the nucleus
(B) the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so it is harder to gain an extra electron
(C) the atoms lose their outer electrons
(D) the halogens gradually become metals
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so the attraction for an incoming electron is weaker.

Q7Chlorine is bubbled into a solution of potassium bromide. What happens?

(A) Bromine is formed and the solution turns orange
(B) No reaction takes place
(C) Potassium metal is formed
(D) Hydrogen gas is given off
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces it: Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2.

Q8Which observation is made when a small piece of sodium reacts with water?

(A) It sinks and dissolves silently
(B) It dissolves without producing any gas
(C) It fizzes, melts into a ball and moves across the surface, forming an alkaline solution
(D) It forms an acidic solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium reacts vigorously with water, producing hydrogen (fizzing) and sodium hydroxide, which is alkaline.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9In ionic bonding…

(A) a metal atom transfers electrons to a non-metal atom, forming oppositely charged ions
(B) two non-metal atoms share a pair of electrons
(C) only metal atoms are involved
(D) atoms join together to form molecules only
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The metal loses electrons to form positive ions and the non-metal gains electrons to form negative ions.

Q10Ionic compounds have high melting points because…

(A) the forces between their molecules are weak
(B) they contain gases trapped in the lattice
(C) their ions are free to move at low temperatures
(D) a large amount of energy is needed to break the strong electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The giant ionic lattice is held together by strong attractions in all directions, so lots of energy is needed to melt it.

Q11Buckminsterfullerene (C60) is best described as…

(A) a flat sheet of carbon atoms
(B) a giant covalent lattice
(C) a hollow sphere of 60 carbon atoms forming rings of five and six atoms
(D) a long chain of carbon atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

C60 is a molecular form of carbon shaped like a hollow ball (similar to a football).

Q12Polymers are solids at room temperature because…

(A) they have giant ionic lattices
(B) the intermolecular forces between the long polymer molecules are relatively strong
(C) each polymer molecule is a single giant atom
(D) they contain metal atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The forces between polymer chains are stronger than those between small molecules, so polymers are usually solid at room temperature.

Q13Alloys are harder than pure metals because…

(A) all of their atoms are the same size and slide easily
(B) atoms of different sizes distort the layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other easily
(C) electrons are removed from the metal
(D) strong covalent bonds form between the atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The different-sized atoms disrupt the regular layers in an alloy, making it harder for the layers to slide.

Q14Metals conduct electricity because they contain…

(A) free ions that move to the electrodes
(B) protons that move through the lattice
(C) delocalised electrons that can move through the structure
(D) atoms that move from place to place
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The delocalised (free) electrons in a metal carry charge through the structure.

Q15Which statement about diamond is correct?

(A) It is very hard because each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a rigid giant structure
(B) It conducts electricity well
(C) It is soft because its layers slide over each other
(D) It has a low melting point
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Diamond's hardness comes from its rigid three-dimensional network of strong covalent bonds.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4? (Ar: Cu = 64, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 96
(B) 128
(C) 144
(D) 160
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mr = 64 + 32 + (4 × 16) = 64 + 32 + 64 = 160.

Q17How many moles are there in 100 g of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 0.1 mol
(B) 10 mol
(C) 100 mol
(D) 1.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles = mass / Mr = 100 / 100 = 1.0 mol.

Q18What mass of water is formed when 4 g of hydrogen burns completely in excess oxygen? 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O (Mr: H2 = 2, H2O = 18)

(A) 36 g
(B) 18 g
(C) 9 g
(D) 72 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles of H2 = 4 / 2 = 2 mol, so moles of H2O = 2 mol; mass = 2 × 18 = 36 g.

Q19A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.125 mol/dm^3
(B) 2 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.5 mol/dm^3
(D) 125 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2 mol/dm^3.

Q20Hydrogen is made by the reaction CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2. Hydrogen is the only desired product. What is the atom economy? (Mr: CH4 = 16, H2O = 18, H2 = 2)

(A) 6%
(B) 50%
(C) 17.6%
(D) 34%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Total Mr of reactants = 16 + 18 = 34; mass of desired product = 3 × 2 = 6; atom economy = (6 / 34) × 100 = 17.6%.

Q21What volume do 2.0 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 48 dm^3
(D) 96 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Volume = moles × 24 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q22A student obtains a percentage yield much lower than 100%. The most likely reason is that…

(A) the reaction went to completion
(B) some of the product was lost when it was separated from the reaction mixture
(C) more reactant was used than planned
(D) the product was purer than expected
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Yields are reduced by losses during filtration and transfer, incomplete reactions and unexpected side reactions.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23When universal indicator is added to a neutral solution, the colour is…

(A) red
(B) purple
(C) blue
(D) green
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Universal indicator is green at pH 7, red in strong acid and purple/blue in strong alkali.

Q24Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce…

(A) sodium chloride and water
(B) sodium chloride and hydrogen
(C) sodium oxide and water
(D) sodium chloride and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Acid + alkali → salt + water: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O.

Q25Dilute sulfuric acid is added to water before it is electrolysed. The gas collected at the negative electrode is…

(A) hydrogen
(B) oxygen
(C) chlorine
(D) sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrogen ions are discharged at the cathode (negative electrode), giving hydrogen gas; oxygen forms at the positive electrode.

Q26Which half equation shows the reaction at the cathode during the electrolysis of molten potassium chloride?

(A) K^+ → K + e^-
(B) Cl^- + e^- → Cl
(C) K^+ + e^- → K
(D) 2Cl^- → Cl2 + 2e^-
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the cathode the positive potassium ions gain electrons (reduction): K^+ + e^- → K.

Q27A metal is extracted by electrolysis rather than by reduction with carbon when…

(A) the metal is less reactive than carbon
(B) the metal is more reactive than carbon
(C) the metal is a transition metal
(D) the metal has a low melting point
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Metals above carbon in the reactivity series cannot be extracted by carbon reduction, so electrolysis is used.

Q28Zinc granules are added to copper(II) sulfate solution. What happens?

(A) Nothing; there is no reaction
(B) Copper metal and zinc oxide are formed
(C) Hydrogen gas is produced
(D) Copper metal is formed and the blue colour fades as zinc sulfate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it displaces it: Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu.

Q29In terms of electrons, oxidation is…

(A) the gain of electrons
(B) the loss of electrons
(C) the gain of hydrogen
(D) the loss of oxygen only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxidation Is Loss of electrons (OILRIG); reduction is the gain of electrons.

Q30During electrolysis, positive ions (cations) move towards…

(A) the positive electrode
(B) both electrodes equally
(C) the power supply
(D) the negative electrode (cathode)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Opposite charges attract, so positive ions move to the negative cathode, where they gain electrons.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which process is endothermic?

(A) Combustion
(B) Neutralisation
(C) Thermal decomposition
(D) Respiration
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings to break compounds down, so it is endothermic.

Q32In an exothermic reaction, the chemical energy stored in the products is…

(A) lower than in the reactants
(B) higher than in the reactants
(C) exactly the same as in the reactants
(D) always zero
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy is transferred to the surroundings, so the products end up with less chemical energy than the reactants.

Q33Use the bond energies (N≡N = 941, H-H = 436, N-H = 391 kJ/mol) to calculate the energy change for N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3.

(A) +97 kJ/mol
(B) -4595 kJ/mol
(C) -97 kJ/mol
(D) +2249 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy to break bonds = 941 + (3 × 436) = 2249 kJ; energy released making bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ; ΔH = 2249 – 2346 = -97 kJ/mol.

Q34A simple chemical cell stops producing a voltage when…

(A) one of the reactants has been used up
(B) the electrodes change colour
(C) the electrolyte starts to evaporate
(D) the wires are disconnected and reconnected
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A cell produces electricity by a chemical reaction; once a reactant is used up, the reaction stops.

Q35In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen is…

(A) burned in a flame to boil water
(B) oxidised electrochemically, producing water and electrical energy
(C) split permanently into protons and neutrons
(D) reacted with carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrogen is oxidised at the electrode in a controlled way, releasing electrical energy with water as the only product.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36A reaction produces 120 cm^3 of gas in the first 40 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction over this time?

(A) 0.33 cm^3/s
(B) 40 cm^3/s
(C) 4800 cm^3/s
(D) 3 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = 120 / 40 = 3 cm^3/s.

Q37Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because the particles…

(A) are present in greater numbers
(B) have a lower activation energy
(C) become larger in size
(D) collide more frequently and with more energy, so more collisions are successful
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At higher temperatures particles move faster, collide more often and a greater proportion of collisions exceed the activation energy.

Q38Powdered zinc reacts faster with acid than the same mass of zinc lumps because the powder…

(A) has a lower activation energy as a pure substance
(B) acts as a catalyst
(C) has a larger surface area, so collisions happen more frequently
(D) contains more moles of zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

More particles are exposed at the surface of a powder, increasing the frequency of collisions with the acid.

Q39Increasing the pressure of reacting gases increases the rate because…

(A) the particles are closer together, so they collide more frequently
(B) the activation energy increases
(C) the particles lose energy
(D) the volume available to the particles increases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Compressing a gas pushes the particles closer together, raising the collision frequency.

Q40In a closed system at equilibrium…

(A) the forward reaction has stopped
(B) the forward and reverse reactions take place at exactly the same rate
(C) all of the reactants have been used up
(D) the concentrations of reactants and products are always equal
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At equilibrium both reactions continue at equal rates, so the amounts of reactants and products stay constant.

Q41A catalyst is added to a mixture that has reached equilibrium. The catalyst will…

(A) speed up the forward and reverse reactions equally, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position does not change
(B) shift the equilibrium towards the products
(C) shift the equilibrium towards the reactants
(D) increase the yield of the product
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Catalysts affect both directions equally, so they change the time to reach equilibrium, not the position or yield.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42A hydrocarbon is a compound that contains…

(A) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen only
(B) carbon and hydrogen only
(C) any atoms, as long as carbon is present
(D) carbon atoms joined by double bonds only
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrocarbons contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms.

Q43Which fraction obtained from crude oil has the highest boiling point?

(A) Petrol
(B) Refinery gases
(C) Kerosene
(D) Bitumen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bitumen contains the longest hydrocarbon molecules, so it has the highest boiling point and is used for road surfaces.

Q44When methane burns in a limited supply of oxygen, the poisonous gas produced is…

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) sulfur dioxide
(C) carbon monoxide
(D) nitrogen dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons produces carbon monoxide, which is toxic because it reduces the blood's oxygen-carrying ability.

Q45Ethene reacts with steam to form ethanol. The conditions for this reaction are…

(A) yeast at about 37°C
(B) a phosphoric acid catalyst, about 300°C and a high pressure
(C) a nickel catalyst at 60°C
(D) no catalyst at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydration of ethene uses a phosphoric acid catalyst at about 300°C and 60-70 atmospheres pressure.

Q46Carboxylic acids react with metal carbonates to produce a salt, water and…

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) no gas at all
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Like other acids, carboxylic acids release carbon dioxide from carbonates, which fizzes (effervesces).

Q47A condensation polymer is formed when…

(A) alkene monomers join together with no other product
(B) a long-chain alkane is cracked
(C) monomers join together and a small molecule, usually water, is also formed
(D) amino acids are heated strongly
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In condensation polymerisation the monomer units join together and a small molecule, usually water, is lost for each bond formed.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48In paper chromatography, the start line should be drawn in pencil rather than ink because…

(A) pencil lines are easier to see
(B) pencil is cheaper than ink
(C) graphite conducts electricity
(D) ink would dissolve in the solvent and move up the paper, interfering with the results
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ink is a mixture of dyes that would run in the solvent; pencil (graphite) is insoluble and stays on the start line.

Q49The chemical test for oxygen gas is that it…

(A) gives a pop with a lit splint
(B) turns limewater cloudy
(C) bleaches damp litmus paper
(D) relights a glowing splint
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; this is its standard test.

Q50To test for sulfate ions, dilute hydrochloric acid is added followed by barium chloride solution. A positive result is…

(A) a cream precipitate
(B) a white precipitate
(C) a yellow precipitate
(D) a lilac flame
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Barium sulfate is insoluble, so a white precipitate forms; the acid first removes carbonate ions that would also form a white precipitate.

Q51In a flame test, a sodium compound produces a flame coloured…

(A) yellow
(B) lilac
(C) crimson
(D) green
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sodium ions give a strong yellow flame colour; potassium is lilac, lithium is crimson and copper is green.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere today?

(A) 78%
(B) 0.9%
(C) 21%
(D) 50%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The atmosphere is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with about 0.9% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere increased over geological time because…

(A) photosynthesis by algae and plants released oxygen
(B) animals began to respire
(C) volcanoes released large amounts of oxygen
(D) carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Algae first produced oxygen by photosynthesis about 2.7 billion years ago, and plants later increased it further.

Q54Carbon particulates produced by incomplete combustion of fuels can cause…

(A) acid rain
(B) eutrophication
(C) damage to the ozone layer
(D) global dimming and serious health problems when breathed in
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Soot particles reflect sunlight (global dimming) and can damage the lungs when inhaled.

Q55Which action would reduce a person's or a product's carbon footprint?

(A) Burning more coal for electricity
(B) Using renewable energy resources instead of fossil fuels
(C) Cutting down more forests
(D) Allowing more methane to escape from landfill sites
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Renewable energy sources release little or no carbon dioxide, so using them reduces the carbon footprint.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Sea water can be made potable (safe to drink) by…

(A) simple filtration
(B) adding chlorine only
(C) distillation or reverse osmosis
(D) sedimentation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Desalination removes dissolved salts by distillation or by reverse osmosis through membranes under pressure.

Q57Bioleaching is a method of extracting metals that uses…

(A) plants grown in metal-rich soil
(B) bacteria that produce a solution containing metal compounds
(C) electrolysis of molten ores
(D) very high temperatures in a furnace
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bacteria break down low-grade ores and produce a leachate solution rich in metal ions, which can then be extracted.

Q58Recycling glass bottles is better than making new glass from raw materials because it…

(A) uses up raw materials more quickly
(B) always produces more carbon dioxide
(C) conserves raw materials and reduces energy use, waste and landfill
(D) makes the glass stronger
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Recycling conserves finite raw materials and uses less energy than producing glass from scratch.

Q59Fertilisers with an NPK formulation contain compounds of…

(A) nitrogen, potassium and calcium
(B) nitrogen, phosphorus and iron
(C) sodium, phosphorus and potassium
(D) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

NPK fertilisers supply nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K), the elements plants need in largest amounts.

Q60Iron is extracted from iron oxide in the blast furnace using carbon because…

(A) iron is less reactive than carbon, so carbon can remove the oxygen from iron oxide
(B) iron is more reactive than carbon
(C) carbon acts only as a catalyst
(D) carbon melts the iron ore
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Because iron is below carbon in the reactivity series, carbon reduces iron oxide to iron; the carbon is itself oxidised.