GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 13

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1What is the relative charge of a neutron?

(A) 0
(B) +1
(C) -1
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A neutron has no charge (relative charge 0); a proton is +1 and an electron is -1.

Q2An atom of sodium has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 23
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.

Q3What is the electronic structure of a magnesium atom (atomic number 12)?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,8,3
(C) 2,8,2
(D) 2,6,4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The 12 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 2 in the third: 2,8,2.

Q4Isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties because they have the same…

(A) number of neutrons
(B) mass number
(C) relative atomic mass
(D) number of electrons in their outer shell
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chemical properties depend on electron arrangement; isotopes differ only in their number of neutrons.

Q5Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his periodic table?

(A) He had made errors when measuring atomic masses
(B) He predicted that elements not yet discovered would fill the gaps
(C) The gaps were reserved for the isotopes of known elements
(D) He arranged the elements in alphabetical order
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements and even predicted the properties of the elements that would fill them.

Q6The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group because…

(A) the outer electron is closer to the nucleus
(B) the atoms have fewer electron shells
(C) the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily
(D) the metals become less dense
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Down the group the outer electron is further from the nucleus and less strongly attracted, so it is lost more easily.

Q7Which statement is true of the transition metals?

(A) They have low melting points
(B) They form colourless compounds
(C) They are poor catalysts
(D) They form coloured compounds and have high densities
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Transition metals typically form coloured compounds, have high densities, and many act as catalysts.

Q8The plum pudding model of the atom was replaced after which experiment?

(A) The alpha particle scattering experiment on gold foil
(B) The electrolysis of water
(C) The fractional distillation of air
(D) The combustion of hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alpha particles scattered by gold foil showed that atoms have a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Sodium chloride has which type of structure?

(A) Simple molecular
(B) Metallic
(C) Giant ionic lattice
(D) Giant covalent
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sodium chloride is a regular lattice of Na^+ and Cl^- ions held together by strong electrostatic attractions.

Q10Diamond does not conduct electricity because…

(A) its ions are free to move
(B) it contains delocalised electrons
(C) it is made of layers that can slide
(D) all of its electrons are used in covalent bonds, so none are free to move
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each carbon atom forms four covalent bonds, leaving no free electrons or ions to carry a charge.

Q11Which property is typical of simple molecular substances?

(A) Low melting and boiling points
(B) They conduct electricity when molten
(C) Very high melting points
(D) They contain ionic bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome to melt or boil them, so little energy is required.

Q12Graphite is soft and slippery because…

(A) its covalent bonds are very weak
(B) its layers are held together by weak forces and can slide over each other
(C) it contains free ions
(D) it has a very low density
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbon atoms bond strongly within each layer, but weak forces between the layers let them slide over each other.

Q13Metals can be bent and shaped (they are malleable) because…

(A) their ionic lattice shatters into small pieces
(B) their molecules can slide apart easily
(C) all of their electrons are localised
(D) layers of atoms can slide over each other while the metallic bonding is maintained
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The layers of metal atoms can slide but stay bonded through the delocalised electrons, so the metal does not break.

Q14What is the approximate size range of nanoparticles?

(A) 1 to 100 nm
(B) 100 to 1000 nm
(C) 1 to 10 mm
(D) 0.001 to 0.01 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nanoparticles have diameters between about 1 nm and 100 nm, only a few hundred atoms across.

Q15Which substance has a giant covalent structure?

(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Silicon dioxide
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Copper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Silicon dioxide (sand) is a giant lattice of silicon and oxygen atoms joined by covalent bonds.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2? (Ar: Ca = 40, O = 16, H = 1)

(A) 57
(B) 58
(C) 74
(D) 90
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr = 40 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 40 + 34 = 74.

Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 0.5 mol
(B) 2.0 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 128 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q18What mass of magnesium oxide forms when 6 g of magnesium burns completely in oxygen? 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr of MgO = 40)

(A) 4 g
(B) 6 g
(C) 10 g
(D) 15 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of Mg = 6 / 24 = 0.25 mol, so moles of MgO = 0.25 mol; mass = 0.25 × 40 = 10 g.

Q19A student dissolves 10 g of sodium chloride in water and makes the solution up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 5 g/dm^3
(B) 20 g/dm^3
(C) 50 g/dm^3
(D) 0.02 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3, so concentration = 10 / 0.5 = 20 g/dm^3.

Q20In a reaction, the theoretical yield of a product is 45 g but only 36 g is collected. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 45%
(B) 55%
(C) 125%
(D) 80%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) × 100 = (36 / 45) × 100 = 80%.

Q21For the reaction Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2, magnesium chloride is the only desired product. What is the atom economy? (Mr: Mg = 24, HCl = 36.5, MgCl2 = 95)

(A) 49%
(B) 98%
(C) 75%
(D) 102%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Atom economy = 95 / (24 + 2 × 36.5) × 100 = (95 / 97) × 100 = about 98%.

Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 2.4 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 96 dm^3
(D) 6 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23What is the pH of a strong alkaline solution?

(A) 13
(B) 7
(C) 1
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Strong alkalis have high pH values, typically around 13 to 14.

Q24A metal carbonate reacts with a dilute acid to produce…

(A) a salt and hydrogen only
(B) a salt only
(C) a salt, water and carbon dioxide
(D) a salt and oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q25A soluble salt is prepared by adding excess insoluble copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. What should be done next?

(A) Evaporate all of the water to dryness
(B) Carry out a titration using an indicator
(C) Filter off the excess solid, then crystallise the solution
(D) Distil the mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Filtration removes the unreacted copper(II) oxide; the filtrate is then crystallised to obtain pure salt crystals.

Q26A strong acid is one that…

(A) completely ionises in aqueous solution
(B) is very concentrated
(C) only partially ionises in aqueous solution
(D) has a pH close to 7
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Strong acids fully ionise in water, for example HCl → H^+ + Cl^-.

Q27During the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, the product at the negative electrode (cathode) is…

(A) bromine
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) lead
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Positive lead ions move to the cathode and are discharged: Pb^2+ + 2e^- → Pb.

Q28When sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, hydrogen is produced at the cathode rather than sodium because…

(A) chlorine is more reactive than hydrogen
(B) sodium is more reactive than hydrogen, so hydrogen ions are discharged instead
(C) sodium metal dissolves in the water
(D) sodium ions are too large to move
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Because sodium is high in the reactivity series, H^+ ions are preferentially discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen.

Q29Which metal reacts most vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Zinc
(D) Magnesium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Magnesium is the most reactive of these metals, so it fizzes most vigorously with the acid.

Q30Cryolite is used in the extraction of aluminium mainly because it…

(A) reacts with aluminium oxide to form aluminium
(B) lowers the melting point of the aluminium oxide mixture, reducing energy costs
(C) increases the amount of aluminium produced
(D) stops the carbon electrodes from burning away
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Dissolving aluminium oxide in molten cryolite lowers the working temperature from over 2000°C, saving a lot of energy.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31In an exothermic reaction…

(A) the temperature of the surroundings decreases
(B) energy is taken in from the surroundings
(C) the temperature of the surroundings increases
(D) the products have more energy than the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Exothermic reactions transfer energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings rises.

Q32The activation energy of a reaction is…

(A) the minimum energy that particles must have for a reaction to occur
(B) the energy stored in the products
(C) the overall energy change of the reaction
(D) the energy released when new bonds form
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Particles must collide with at least the activation energy for bonds to break and a reaction to happen.

Q33Use the bond energies (H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol) to calculate the energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.

(A) -184 kJ/mol
(B) +184 kJ/mol
(C) -1540 kJ/mol
(D) +678 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy needed to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released making bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q34The voltage produced by a simple chemical cell depends mainly on…

(A) the size of the beaker
(B) the colour of the electrodes
(C) the volume of electrolyte used
(D) the difference in reactivity between the two metals used as electrodes
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The greater the difference in reactivity between the two electrode metals, the greater the voltage produced.

Q35The only chemical product formed in a hydrogen fuel cell is…

(A) carbon dioxide
(B) water
(C) hydrogen peroxide
(D) steam and carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In the fuel cell hydrogen reacts with oxygen, 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, producing water only.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 30 cm^3/s
(C) 2 cm^3/s
(D) 1800 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mean rate = quantity of product formed / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.

Q37Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction because…

(A) the particles gain more energy
(B) there are more particles in the same volume, so collisions are more frequent
(C) the activation energy is lowered
(D) the particles move more slowly
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A higher concentration means the particles are closer together, so they collide more often.

Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…

(A) providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(B) increasing the energy of the particles
(C) increasing the concentration of the reactants
(D) being used up so that the reaction can continue
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst offers a different pathway that needs less energy, and it is not used up in the reaction.

Q39A student reacts marble chips with hydrochloric acid. Which change would decrease the rate of reaction?

(A) Using powdered marble instead of chips
(B) Warming the acid
(C) Using more concentrated acid
(D) Using larger marble chips
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Larger chips have a smaller surface area, so collisions happen less frequently and the rate falls.

Q40For the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, increasing the pressure will…

(A) shift the equilibrium to the left
(B) have no effect on the position of equilibrium
(C) shift the equilibrium to the right, towards fewer molecules
(D) stop the reverse reaction completely
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

There are 4 molecules on the left and only 2 on the right, so higher pressure favours the right-hand side.

Q41When the temperature of an equilibrium mixture is increased, the position of equilibrium shifts in the direction of…

(A) the exothermic reaction
(B) the side with more molecules
(C) the endothermic reaction
(D) the forward reaction in every case
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Raising the temperature favours the endothermic direction, which absorbs some of the extra energy.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Crude oil is separated into fractions by…

(A) cracking
(B) fractional distillation
(C) filtration
(D) chromatography
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fractional distillation separates the hydrocarbons in crude oil according to their different boiling points.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnHn+2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n; the alkanes are CnH2n+2.

Q44Which test shows that a compound is an alkene (unsaturated)?

(A) Limewater turns cloudy
(B) A lit splint gives a pop
(C) Damp litmus paper is bleached
(D) Bromine water changes from orange to colourless
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkenes decolourise bromine water because bromine adds across the C=C double bond.

Q45Cracking a long-chain hydrocarbon produces…

(A) only short-chain alkanes
(B) only alkenes
(C) polymers directly
(D) a mixture of smaller alkanes and alkenes
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cracking breaks long chains into smaller, more useful alkanes together with alkenes.

Q46Ethanol is produced by the fermentation of glucose solution. The conditions needed are…

(A) a pressure of 200 atmospheres
(B) heating to 450°C with an iron catalyst
(C) yeast, a warm temperature and no oxygen
(D) fractional distillation at high temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Enzymes in yeast ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide under warm, anaerobic conditions.

Q47The monomer used to make poly(ethene) is…

(A) ethane
(B) ethene
(C) ethanol
(D) ethanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Many ethene molecules join together by addition polymerisation to form poly(ethene).

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48A pure substance can be recognised from its melting point because it…

(A) melts sharply at one specific temperature
(B) melts over a wide range of temperatures
(C) has no melting point
(D) always melts below 0°C
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A pure substance melts at a specific temperature; impurities lower the melting point and make melting happen over a range.

Q49In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4 cm while the solvent front moves 8 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?

(A) 0.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 4.0
(D) 0.25
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Rf = distance moved by the substance / distance moved by the solvent = 4 / 8 = 0.5.

Q50Chlorine gas can be identified because it…

(A) turns limewater cloudy
(B) bleaches damp litmus paper
(C) gives a pop with a lit splint
(D) relights a glowing splint
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine first turns damp litmus paper red and then bleaches it white.

Q51In a flame test, potassium compounds produce a flame coloured…

(A) yellow
(B) crimson
(C) green
(D) lilac
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, lithium is crimson and copper is green.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in the Earth's atmosphere today?

(A) 21%
(B) 0.04%
(C) 78%
(D) 1%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 0.9% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.

Q53Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Nitrogen
(B) Methane
(C) Oxygen
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases; they absorb infrared radiation radiated by the Earth.

Q54The amount of carbon dioxide in the early atmosphere decreased mainly because it…

(A) escaped into space
(B) was converted into nitrogen by bacteria
(C) was used up by volcanoes
(D) dissolved in the oceans and became locked into sedimentary rocks and fossil fuels
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans and was trapped in carbonate sediments, shells and eventually fossil fuels.

Q55Sulfur dioxide released when fossil fuels burn causes…

(A) global warming only
(B) damage to the ozone layer
(C) acid rain
(D) eutrophication of rivers
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages buildings, trees and lakes.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Which substance is commonly used to sterilise drinking water?

(A) Chlorine
(B) Sedimentation
(C) Sand
(D) Distillation
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine is added to potable water to kill harmful microorganisms; the other options are separation methods that do not sterilise water.

Q57Phytomining involves…

(A) mining metal ores with explosives
(B) electrolysing sea water
(C) growing plants in metal-rich soil, then burning the plants and extracting the metal from the ash
(D) melting scrap metal in a furnace
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The plants absorb metal compounds from the soil, and the ash left after burning contains the metal compound in a concentrated form.

Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) is used to assess…

(A) the environmental impact of a product throughout its whole life
(B) only the cost of making a product
(C) only the extraction of the raw materials
(D) only the disposal of a product
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

An LCA covers obtaining raw materials, manufacture, use, and disposal of a product.

Q59The industrial conditions used in the Haber process are approximately…

(A) 200°C and 450 atmospheres
(B) 25°C and 1 atmosphere
(C) 600°C and a very low pressure
(D) 450°C, 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The Haber process uses about 450°C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst.

Q60Recycling metals is important because it…

(A) increases the amount of mining needed
(B) conserves limited metal ores and usually saves energy
(C) produces more landfill waste
(D) always uses more energy than extracting metals from their ores
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Recycling conserves finite ore supplies and typically uses far less energy than extraction from ores.