GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 13
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1What is the relative charge of a neutron?
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Correct: (A)
A neutron has no charge (relative charge 0); a proton is +1 and an electron is -1.
Q2An atom of sodium has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. How many neutrons does it contain?
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Correct: (B)
Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.
Q3What is the electronic structure of a magnesium atom (atomic number 12)?
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Correct: (C)
The 12 electrons fill the shells as 2 in the first, 8 in the second and 2 in the third: 2,8,2.
Q4Isotopes of the same element have the same chemical properties because they have the same…
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Correct: (D)
Chemical properties depend on electron arrangement; isotopes differ only in their number of neutrons.
Q5Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his periodic table?
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Correct: (B)
Mendeleev left gaps for undiscovered elements and even predicted the properties of the elements that would fill them.
Q6The reactivity of the Group 1 metals increases down the group because…
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Correct: (C)
Down the group the outer electron is further from the nucleus and less strongly attracted, so it is lost more easily.
Q7Which statement is true of the transition metals?
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Correct: (D)
Transition metals typically form coloured compounds, have high densities, and many act as catalysts.
Q8The plum pudding model of the atom was replaced after which experiment?
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Correct: (A)
Alpha particles scattered by gold foil showed that atoms have a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Sodium chloride has which type of structure?
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Correct: (C)
Sodium chloride is a regular lattice of Na^+ and Cl^- ions held together by strong electrostatic attractions.
Q10Diamond does not conduct electricity because…
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Correct: (D)
Each carbon atom forms four covalent bonds, leaving no free electrons or ions to carry a charge.
Q11Which property is typical of simple molecular substances?
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Correct: (A)
Only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome to melt or boil them, so little energy is required.
Q12Graphite is soft and slippery because…
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Correct: (B)
Carbon atoms bond strongly within each layer, but weak forces between the layers let them slide over each other.
Q13Metals can be bent and shaped (they are malleable) because…
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Correct: (D)
The layers of metal atoms can slide but stay bonded through the delocalised electrons, so the metal does not break.
Q14What is the approximate size range of nanoparticles?
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Correct: (A)
Nanoparticles have diameters between about 1 nm and 100 nm, only a few hundred atoms across.
Q15Which substance has a giant covalent structure?
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Correct: (B)
Silicon dioxide (sand) is a giant lattice of silicon and oxygen atoms joined by covalent bonds.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2? (Ar: Ca = 40, O = 16, H = 1)
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Correct: (C)
Mr = 40 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 40 + 34 = 74.
Q17How many moles are there in 8 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (A)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.
Q18What mass of magnesium oxide forms when 6 g of magnesium burns completely in oxygen? 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO (Ar: Mg = 24; Mr of MgO = 40)
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Correct: (C)
Moles of Mg = 6 / 24 = 0.25 mol, so moles of MgO = 0.25 mol; mass = 0.25 × 40 = 10 g.
Q19A student dissolves 10 g of sodium chloride in water and makes the solution up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration in g/dm^3?
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Correct: (B)
500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3, so concentration = 10 / 0.5 = 20 g/dm^3.
Q20In a reaction, the theoretical yield of a product is 45 g but only 36 g is collected. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (D)
Percentage yield = (actual yield / theoretical yield) × 100 = (36 / 45) × 100 = 80%.
Q21For the reaction Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2, magnesium chloride is the only desired product. What is the atom economy? (Mr: Mg = 24, HCl = 36.5, MgCl2 = 95)
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Correct: (B)
Atom economy = 95 / (24 + 2 × 36.5) × 100 = (95 / 97) × 100 = about 98%.
Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (D)
Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23What is the pH of a strong alkaline solution?
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Correct: (A)
Strong alkalis have high pH values, typically around 13 to 14.
Q24A metal carbonate reacts with a dilute acid to produce…
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Correct: (C)
Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.
Q25A soluble salt is prepared by adding excess insoluble copper(II) oxide to warm dilute sulfuric acid. What should be done next?
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Correct: (C)
Filtration removes the unreacted copper(II) oxide; the filtrate is then crystallised to obtain pure salt crystals.
Q26A strong acid is one that…
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Correct: (A)
Strong acids fully ionise in water, for example HCl → H^+ + Cl^-.
Q27During the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, the product at the negative electrode (cathode) is…
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Correct: (D)
Positive lead ions move to the cathode and are discharged: Pb^2+ + 2e^- → Pb.
Q28When sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, hydrogen is produced at the cathode rather than sodium because…
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Correct: (B)
Because sodium is high in the reactivity series, H^+ ions are preferentially discharged at the cathode to give hydrogen.
Q29Which metal reacts most vigorously with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (D)
Magnesium is the most reactive of these metals, so it fizzes most vigorously with the acid.
Q30Cryolite is used in the extraction of aluminium mainly because it…
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Correct: (B)
Dissolving aluminium oxide in molten cryolite lowers the working temperature from over 2000°C, saving a lot of energy.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31In an exothermic reaction…
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Correct: (C)
Exothermic reactions transfer energy to the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings rises.
Q32The activation energy of a reaction is…
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Correct: (A)
Particles must collide with at least the activation energy for bonds to break and a reaction to happen.
Q33Use the bond energies (H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol) to calculate the energy change for H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.
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Correct: (A)
Energy needed to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released making bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q34The voltage produced by a simple chemical cell depends mainly on…
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Correct: (D)
The greater the difference in reactivity between the two electrode metals, the greater the voltage produced.
Q35The only chemical product formed in a hydrogen fuel cell is…
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Correct: (B)
In the fuel cell hydrogen reacts with oxygen, 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, producing water only.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36A reaction produces 60 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Mean rate = quantity of product formed / time = 60 / 30 = 2 cm^3/s.
Q37Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of reaction because…
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Correct: (B)
A higher concentration means the particles are closer together, so they collide more often.
Q38A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by…
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst offers a different pathway that needs less energy, and it is not used up in the reaction.
Q39A student reacts marble chips with hydrochloric acid. Which change would decrease the rate of reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Larger chips have a smaller surface area, so collisions happen less frequently and the rate falls.
Q40For the equilibrium N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, increasing the pressure will…
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Correct: (C)
There are 4 molecules on the left and only 2 on the right, so higher pressure favours the right-hand side.
Q41When the temperature of an equilibrium mixture is increased, the position of equilibrium shifts in the direction of…
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Correct: (C)
Raising the temperature favours the endothermic direction, which absorbs some of the extra energy.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42Crude oil is separated into fractions by…
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Correct: (B)
Fractional distillation separates the hydrocarbons in crude oil according to their different boiling points.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkenes?
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Correct: (A)
Alkenes have the general formula CnH2n; the alkanes are CnH2n+2.
Q44Which test shows that a compound is an alkene (unsaturated)?
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Correct: (D)
Alkenes decolourise bromine water because bromine adds across the C=C double bond.
Q45Cracking a long-chain hydrocarbon produces…
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Correct: (D)
Cracking breaks long chains into smaller, more useful alkanes together with alkenes.
Q46Ethanol is produced by the fermentation of glucose solution. The conditions needed are…
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Correct: (C)
Enzymes in yeast ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide under warm, anaerobic conditions.
Q47The monomer used to make poly(ethene) is…
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Correct: (B)
Many ethene molecules join together by addition polymerisation to form poly(ethene).
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48A pure substance can be recognised from its melting point because it…
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Correct: (A)
A pure substance melts at a specific temperature; impurities lower the melting point and make melting happen over a range.
Q49In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4 cm while the solvent front moves 8 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?
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Correct: (A)
Rf = distance moved by the substance / distance moved by the solvent = 4 / 8 = 0.5.
Q50Chlorine gas can be identified because it…
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine first turns damp litmus paper red and then bleaches it white.
Q51In a flame test, potassium compounds produce a flame coloured…
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Correct: (D)
Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, lithium is crimson and copper is green.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52What is the approximate percentage of nitrogen in the Earth's atmosphere today?
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Correct: (C)
Air is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, about 0.9% argon and 0.04% carbon dioxide.
Q53Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (B)
Methane and carbon dioxide are greenhouse gases; they absorb infrared radiation radiated by the Earth.
Q54The amount of carbon dioxide in the early atmosphere decreased mainly because it…
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Correct: (D)
Carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans and was trapped in carbonate sediments, shells and eventually fossil fuels.
Q55Sulfur dioxide released when fossil fuels burn causes…
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Correct: (C)
Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages buildings, trees and lakes.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Which substance is commonly used to sterilise drinking water?
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Correct: (A)
Chlorine is added to potable water to kill harmful microorganisms; the other options are separation methods that do not sterilise water.
Q57Phytomining involves…
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Correct: (C)
The plants absorb metal compounds from the soil, and the ash left after burning contains the metal compound in a concentrated form.
Q58A life cycle assessment (LCA) is used to assess…
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Correct: (A)
An LCA covers obtaining raw materials, manufacture, use, and disposal of a product.
Q59The industrial conditions used in the Haber process are approximately…
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Correct: (D)
The Haber process uses about 450°C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst.
Q60Recycling metals is important because it…
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Correct: (B)
Recycling conserves finite ore supplies and typically uses far less energy than extraction from ores.
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