GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 12
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1An atom contains 17 protons. Which element is it?
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Correct: (A)
The proton number is the atomic number; element 17 is chlorine.
Q2The mass number of an atom is the total number of which particles?
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Correct: (C)
The mass number (nucleon number) is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
Q3What happens to the reactivity of the halogens (Group 7) as you go down the group?
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Correct: (D)
Halogens become less reactive down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so it is harder to gain an extra electron.
Q4What is the electronic configuration of a calcium atom (atomic number 20)?
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Correct: (B)
Calcium's 20 electrons fill the shells as 2, 8, 8, 2, placing calcium in Group 2.
Q5Who proposed the 'plum pudding' model of the atom?
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Correct: (A)
Thomson proposed that the atom was a ball of positive charge with negative electrons embedded in it, like plums in a pudding.
Q6What is the relative charge of an electron?
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Correct: (D)
Electrons have a relative charge of -1 and a very small relative mass.
Q7Magnesium has three isotopes: magnesium-24 (79%), magnesium-25 (10%) and magnesium-26 (11%). What is its relative atomic mass?
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Correct: (C)
Relative atomic mass = (24 × 79 + 25 × 10 + 26 × 11) / 100 = (1896 + 250 + 286) / 100 = 2432 / 100 = 24.32, approximately 24.3.
Q8Newlands arranged elements in order of atomic mass and noticed repeating patterns every eighth element. What was this called?
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Correct: (B)
Newlands' law of octaves was an early attempt at a periodic table, though it broke down for heavier elements.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Why does solid sodium chloride not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does?
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Correct: (B)
Ionic compounds conduct only when their ions are free to move, which happens when molten or in solution.
Q10Which statement about polymers such as poly(ethene) is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Polymers are long chains of repeating units joined by covalent bonds; the weak forces between chains mean they usually have low melting points.
Q11Silicon dioxide (silica) has a high melting point and does not conduct electricity. Which type of structure does it have?
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Correct: (C)
Silica has a giant covalent structure like diamond, in which every atom is held by strong covalent bonds.
Q12Why are alloys, such as steel, harder than pure metals?
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Correct: (D)
In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular layers, preventing them from sliding, which makes the metal harder.
Q13What is a covalent bond?
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Correct: (B)
A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between atoms of non-metal elements.
Q14Which statement about graphene is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Graphene is one layer of graphite; it is extremely strong for its weight and conducts electricity because it has delocalised electrons. (The hollow sphere is a fullerene.)
Q15Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
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Correct: (A)
Ionic lattices are held together by strong electrostatic forces in all directions, so lots of thermal energy is needed to break them down.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the amount, in moles, in 11 g of carbon dioxide? (Relative formula mass of CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (C)
Moles = mass / Mr = 11 / 44 = 0.25 mol.
Q17What is the mass of 2 mol of water? (Relative formula mass of H2O = 18)
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Correct: (A)
Mass = moles × Mr = 2 × 18 = 36 g.
Q18A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?
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Correct: (D)
250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2 mol/dm^3.
Q19A reaction has a theoretical yield of 10 g. The actual yield obtained is 8 g. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage yield = (8 / 10) × 100 = 80%.
Q20Magnesium carbonate decomposes when heated: MgCO3 → MgO + CO2. (Mr: MgCO3 = 84, MgO = 40, CO2 = 44). What is the atom economy for producing MgO?
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Correct: (C)
Atom economy = (40 / 84) × 100 = 47.6%.
Q21What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (A)
Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.
Q22How many moles of hydrochloric acid are there in 25.0 cm^3 of a 0.100 mol/dm^3 solution?
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Correct: (B)
Moles = concentration × volume in dm^3 = 0.100 × (25.0 / 1000) = 0.100 × 0.025 = 0.0025 mol.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23A solution gives a blue/purple colour with universal indicator. What does this suggest?
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Correct: (B)
Universal indicator turns blue to purple in alkaline solutions (high pH).
Q24A student wants to prepare a pure sample of barium sulfate, which is insoluble in water. Which method should be used?
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Correct: (D)
Insoluble salts are made by precipitation: mix two soluble salts, filter off the solid, wash it with distilled water and dry it.
Q25Copper sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert carbon electrodes. What is formed at each electrode?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so copper is discharged at the cathode; hydroxide ions are discharged at the anode to give oxygen.
Q26Which of these metals reacts steadily with cold water?
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Correct: (C)
Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen; copper and gold do not react, and lead reacts only very slowly.
Q27What pH is a neutral solution at room temperature?
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Correct: (B)
Pure water and neutral solutions have pH 7; acids are below 7 and alkalis are above 7.
Q28Zinc granules are added to dilute sulfuric acid. What are the products?
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Correct: (D)
Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen, so zinc + sulfuric acid gives zinc sulfate and hydrogen.
Q29Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed. What forms at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (A)
In the molten salt the only positive ions are K^+, which gain electrons at the cathode to form potassium metal.
Q30In a titration, 25 cm^3 of ammonia solution is neutralised by a strong acid. Which indicator is most suitable for a titration between a strong acid and a weak alkali?
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Correct: (C)
Methyl orange changes colour at the end point of a strong acid-weak alkali titration; a suitable indicator must change within the pH jump at the end point.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31The temperature of the surroundings falls during a reaction. Which type of reaction is it?
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Correct: (C)
An endothermic reaction takes in energy from the surroundings, so their temperature decreases.
Q32Calculate the overall energy change when ammonia is formed: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3. Bond energies: N≡N = 945 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, N-H = 391 kJ/mol.
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken = 945 + (3 × 436) = 945 + 1308 = 2253 kJ/mol. Bonds formed = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ/mol. Overall change = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol, so the reaction is exothermic.
Q33Two metals are used in a simple electrical cell. What makes one cell produce a larger voltage than another?
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Correct: (B)
The voltage of a simple cell depends on the metals used; a bigger difference in reactivity gives a bigger voltage.
Q34On the reaction profile of an exothermic reaction, where are the products compared with the reactants?
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Correct: (D)
In an exothermic reaction the products have less energy than the reactants; the difference is released to the surroundings.
Q35A chemical cell (battery) stops working after some time. Why?
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Correct: (C)
A non-rechargeable cell stops when one reactant is consumed and the reaction can no longer take place.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Why does increasing the concentration of a solution increase the rate of reaction?
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Correct: (A)
A higher concentration means more reacting particles in the same volume, so successful collisions occur more often.
Q37In an experiment, 1.2 g of a solid reactant is used up in 60 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Mean rate = change in mass / time = 1.2 / 60 = 0.02 g/s.
Q38A catalyst is added to a reversible reaction that has reached dynamic equilibrium. What happens to the position of equilibrium?
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst increases the rates of both directions equally, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position is unchanged.
Q39In the Haber process, N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, the forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (C)
Increasing the temperature favours the endothermic direction, which here is the reverse reaction, so the equilibrium yield of ammonia falls (although the rate is faster).
Q40On a graph of volume of gas produced against time, the curve levels off (becomes horizontal). What does this show?
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Correct: (A)
The line levels off when no more gas is produced, meaning the reaction is complete and a reactant has run out.
Q41Why does increasing the gas pressure increase the rate of a reaction between gases?
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Correct: (D)
Higher pressure puts more particles into the same volume, increasing the frequency of collisions.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42Which statement about crude oil is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Crude oil is a finite resource and a mixture of many different hydrocarbon compounds, which is why it can be separated by fractional distillation.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkenes?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a C=C double bond, with general formula CnH2n.
Q44What are the products of the complete combustion of methane in plenty of oxygen?
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Correct: (A)
Complete combustion of a hydrocarbon produces carbon dioxide and water: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.
Q45Ethene reacts with steam to produce ethanol. Which conditions are used in industry?
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Correct: (D)
The hydration of ethene to ethanol uses steam at about 300 °C and high pressure with a phosphoric acid catalyst.
Q46Which is the functional group of the carboxylic acids?
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Correct: (B)
Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH functional group; for example, ethanoic acid is CH3COOH. They react with carbonates to give carbon dioxide.
Q47Which statement about condensation polymerisation is correct?
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Correct: (C)
In condensation polymerisation (for example making a polyester from a diol and a dicarboxylic acid), monomers join and a small molecule like water is eliminated.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48Which test correctly identifies hydrogen gas?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lit splint is held at the mouth of the tube.
Q49Which test is used to identify chlorine gas?
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Correct: (A)
Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper (it may first turn red, then white).
Q50A student adds dilute hydrochloric acid and then barium chloride solution to an unknown solution. A white precipitate forms. Which ion is present?
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Correct: (B)
Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; the acid is added first to remove any carbonate that would also give a white precipitate.
Q51A pure substance is analysed by paper chromatography. What would you expect to see?
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Correct: (C)
A pure substance produces only one spot in chromatography; a mixture would separate into several spots.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52What is the most abundant gas in the Earth's atmosphere today?
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Correct: (B)
Nitrogen makes up about 78% of the modern atmosphere, oxygen about 21%, and the rest is mostly argon with a little carbon dioxide.
Q53Why did the amount of carbon dioxide in the early atmosphere decrease over time?
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Correct: (A)
Carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans (forming carbonate sediments and shells) and was absorbed by algae and plants during photosynthesis, which also released oxygen.
Q54Why is carbon monoxide dangerous to humans?
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Correct: (D)
Carbon monoxide is a toxic, colourless, odourless gas that combines with haemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen around the body.
Q55What is one effect of particulate matter (soot) released by burning fuels?
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Correct: (C)
Particulates reflect sunlight (global dimming) and can be inhaled, causing breathing problems and other health issues.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Chlorine is added when drinking water is treated. Why?
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Correct: (D)
Sterilising agents such as chlorine (or ozone and ultraviolet light) are used to make sure potable water contains very few microbes.
Q57What is bioleaching?
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Correct: (A)
In bioleaching, bacteria produce a leachate solution containing metal compounds from low-grade ores, from which the metal can then be extracted.
Q58Which of these is a finite (non-renewable) resource?
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Correct: (D)
Crude oil is a finite resource that will eventually run out; it is used for fuels and as a raw material for petrochemicals.
Q59Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?
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Correct: (B)
The Haber process uses 450 °C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst as a compromise between rate and equilibrium yield.
Q60Which action would reduce a person's carbon footprint?
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Correct: (C)
Using renewable energy and reducing wasted energy lowers the amount of carbon dioxide released, reducing the carbon footprint.
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