GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 12

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom contains 17 protons. Which element is it?

(A) Chlorine
(B) Argon
(C) Sulfur
(D) Potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The proton number is the atomic number; element 17 is chlorine.

Q2The mass number of an atom is the total number of which particles?

(A) Protons only
(B) Electrons only
(C) Protons and neutrons
(D) Protons and electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The mass number (nucleon number) is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

Q3What happens to the reactivity of the halogens (Group 7) as you go down the group?

(A) It increases
(B) It stays the same
(C) It increases then decreases
(D) It decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Halogens become less reactive down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus, so it is harder to gain an extra electron.

Q4What is the electronic configuration of a calcium atom (atomic number 20)?

(A) 2,8,2
(B) 2,8,8,2
(C) 2,8,10
(D) 2,10,8
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Calcium's 20 electrons fill the shells as 2, 8, 8, 2, placing calcium in Group 2.

Q5Who proposed the 'plum pudding' model of the atom?

(A) J.J. Thomson
(B) Ernest Rutherford
(C) Niels Bohr
(D) John Dalton
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Thomson proposed that the atom was a ball of positive charge with negative electrons embedded in it, like plums in a pudding.

Q6What is the relative charge of an electron?

(A) +1
(B) 0
(C) +2
(D) -1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Electrons have a relative charge of -1 and a very small relative mass.

Q7Magnesium has three isotopes: magnesium-24 (79%), magnesium-25 (10%) and magnesium-26 (11%). What is its relative atomic mass?

(A) 24.0
(B) 25.0
(C) 24.3
(D) 24.8
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Relative atomic mass = (24 × 79 + 25 × 10 + 26 × 11) / 100 = (1896 + 250 + 286) / 100 = 2432 / 100 = 24.32, approximately 24.3.

Q8Newlands arranged elements in order of atomic mass and noticed repeating patterns every eighth element. What was this called?

(A) The periodic law
(B) The law of octaves
(C) The group rule
(D) The atomic theory
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Newlands' law of octaves was an early attempt at a periodic table, though it broke down for heavier elements.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Why does solid sodium chloride not conduct electricity, but molten sodium chloride does?

(A) The ions are smaller in the solid
(B) In the solid the ions are locked in position, but when molten they are free to move to the electrodes
(C) Melting turns the ions into atoms
(D) The solid contains no charged particles
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ionic compounds conduct only when their ions are free to move, which happens when molten or in solution.

Q10Which statement about polymers such as poly(ethene) is correct?

(A) They consist of very long chains of covalently bonded atoms
(B) They are giant ionic lattices
(C) They conduct electricity well
(D) They have very high melting points like diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Polymers are long chains of repeating units joined by covalent bonds; the weak forces between chains mean they usually have low melting points.

Q11Silicon dioxide (silica) has a high melting point and does not conduct electricity. Which type of structure does it have?

(A) Simple molecular
(B) Metallic
(C) Giant covalent
(D) Ionic
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silica has a giant covalent structure like diamond, in which every atom is held by strong covalent bonds.

Q12Why are alloys, such as steel, harder than pure metals?

(A) They contain more delocalised electrons
(B) They have lower melting points
(C) They are made of larger atoms only
(D) The different-sized atoms distort the layers, so they cannot slide over each other as easily
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In an alloy, atoms of different sizes disrupt the regular layers, preventing them from sliding, which makes the metal harder.

Q13What is a covalent bond?

(A) A transferred electron
(B) A shared pair of electrons between two atoms
(C) An attraction between a positive ion and a negative ion
(D) A force between separate molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between atoms of non-metal elements.

Q14Which statement about graphene is correct?

(A) It is a single layer of graphite, one atom thick, and it conducts electricity
(B) It is an ionic compound of carbon
(C) It does not conduct electricity
(D) It is a hollow sphere of 60 carbon atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Graphene is one layer of graphite; it is extremely strong for its weight and conducts electricity because it has delocalised electrons. (The hollow sphere is a fullerene.)

Q15Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

(A) A large amount of energy is needed to break the strong electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions
(B) Their molecules are very heavy
(C) They contain covalent bonds with very high bond energies
(D) They react with air when heated
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ionic lattices are held together by strong electrostatic forces in all directions, so lots of thermal energy is needed to break them down.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the amount, in moles, in 11 g of carbon dioxide? (Relative formula mass of CO2 = 44)

(A) 4 mol
(B) 0.5 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 2 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = mass / Mr = 11 / 44 = 0.25 mol.

Q17What is the mass of 2 mol of water? (Relative formula mass of H2O = 18)

(A) 36 g
(B) 9 g
(C) 18 g
(D) 20 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mass = moles × Mr = 2 × 18 = 36 g.

Q18A solution contains 0.5 mol of solute in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.5 mol/dm^3
(B) 125 mol/dm^3
(C) 1 mol/dm^3
(D) 2 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

250 cm^3 = 0.25 dm^3, so concentration = 0.5 / 0.25 = 2 mol/dm^3.

Q19A reaction has a theoretical yield of 10 g. The actual yield obtained is 8 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 20%
(B) 80%
(C) 125%
(D) 8%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (8 / 10) × 100 = 80%.

Q20Magnesium carbonate decomposes when heated: MgCO3 → MgO + CO2. (Mr: MgCO3 = 84, MgO = 40, CO2 = 44). What is the atom economy for producing MgO?

(A) 52.4%
(B) 100%
(C) 47.6%
(D) 84%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Atom economy = (40 / 84) × 100 = 47.6%.

Q21What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 6 dm^3
(B) 96 dm^3
(C) 24 dm^3
(D) 12 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

Q22How many moles of hydrochloric acid are there in 25.0 cm^3 of a 0.100 mol/dm^3 solution?

(A) 2.5 mol
(B) 0.0025 mol
(C) 0.025 mol
(D) 0.25 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = concentration × volume in dm^3 = 0.100 × (25.0 / 1000) = 0.100 × 0.025 = 0.0025 mol.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23A solution gives a blue/purple colour with universal indicator. What does this suggest?

(A) It is a strong acid
(B) It is an alkali
(C) It is neutral
(D) It is pure water
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Universal indicator turns blue to purple in alkaline solutions (high pH).

Q24A student wants to prepare a pure sample of barium sulfate, which is insoluble in water. Which method should be used?

(A) Titration
(B) Evaporation of an acid
(C) Crystallisation
(D) Precipitation, by mixing solutions of a soluble barium salt and a soluble sulfate
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Insoluble salts are made by precipitation: mix two soluble salts, filter off the solid, wash it with distilled water and dry it.

Q25Copper sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert carbon electrodes. What is formed at each electrode?

(A) Copper at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
(B) Hydrogen at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
(C) Copper at the cathode and sulfur at the anode
(D) Oxygen at the cathode and copper at the anode
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so copper is discharged at the cathode; hydroxide ions are discharged at the anode to give oxygen.

Q26Which of these metals reacts steadily with cold water?

(A) Copper
(B) Gold
(C) Calcium
(D) Lead
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen; copper and gold do not react, and lead reacts only very slowly.

Q27What pH is a neutral solution at room temperature?

(A) pH 1
(B) pH 7
(C) pH 0
(D) pH 14
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Pure water and neutral solutions have pH 7; acids are below 7 and alkalis are above 7.

Q28Zinc granules are added to dilute sulfuric acid. What are the products?

(A) Zinc oxide and hydrogen
(B) Zinc sulfate and water
(C) Zinc hydroxide and hydrogen
(D) Zinc sulfate and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen, so zinc + sulfuric acid gives zinc sulfate and hydrogen.

Q29Molten potassium chloride is electrolysed. What forms at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Potassium
(B) Chlorine
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In the molten salt the only positive ions are K^+, which gain electrons at the cathode to form potassium metal.

Q30In a titration, 25 cm^3 of ammonia solution is neutralised by a strong acid. Which indicator is most suitable for a titration between a strong acid and a weak alkali?

(A) Litmus
(B) Universal indicator
(C) Methyl orange
(D) Phenolphthalein only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Methyl orange changes colour at the end point of a strong acid-weak alkali titration; a suitable indicator must change within the pH jump at the end point.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31The temperature of the surroundings falls during a reaction. Which type of reaction is it?

(A) Exothermic
(B) Combustion
(C) Endothermic
(D) Neutralisation
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An endothermic reaction takes in energy from the surroundings, so their temperature decreases.

Q32Calculate the overall energy change when ammonia is formed: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3. Bond energies: N≡N = 945 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, N-H = 391 kJ/mol.

(A) -93 kJ/mol
(B) +93 kJ/mol
(C) -2346 kJ/mol
(D) +2253 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken = 945 + (3 × 436) = 945 + 1308 = 2253 kJ/mol. Bonds formed = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ/mol. Overall change = 2253 – 2346 = -93 kJ/mol, so the reaction is exothermic.

Q33Two metals are used in a simple electrical cell. What makes one cell produce a larger voltage than another?

(A) The colour of the metals
(B) The greater the difference in reactivity between the two metals, the larger the voltage
(C) The mass of electrolyte used
(D) The size of the container
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The voltage of a simple cell depends on the metals used; a bigger difference in reactivity gives a bigger voltage.

Q34On the reaction profile of an exothermic reaction, where are the products compared with the reactants?

(A) At the same energy level
(B) Higher in energy
(C) At zero energy
(D) Lower in energy, because energy has been transferred to the surroundings
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In an exothermic reaction the products have less energy than the reactants; the difference is released to the surroundings.

Q35A chemical cell (battery) stops working after some time. Why?

(A) The electrons run out
(B) The container leaks charge
(C) One of the reactants is used up, so the chemical reaction stops
(D) The wires become too hot
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A non-rechargeable cell stops when one reactant is consumed and the reaction can no longer take place.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Why does increasing the concentration of a solution increase the rate of reaction?

(A) There are more particles per unit volume, so collisions happen more frequently
(B) The particles have more energy
(C) The activation energy is increased
(D) The volume of solution decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A higher concentration means more reacting particles in the same volume, so successful collisions occur more often.

Q37In an experiment, 1.2 g of a solid reactant is used up in 60 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 0.2 g/s
(B) 72 g/s
(C) 50 g/s
(D) 0.02 g/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = change in mass / time = 1.2 / 60 = 0.02 g/s.

Q38A catalyst is added to a reversible reaction that has reached dynamic equilibrium. What happens to the position of equilibrium?

(A) It shifts to the left
(B) It does not change; the catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally
(C) It shifts to the right
(D) Equilibrium is destroyed
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst increases the rates of both directions equally, so equilibrium is reached faster but its position is unchanged.

Q39In the Haber process, N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, the forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the yield of ammonia if the temperature is increased?

(A) It increases
(B) It stays exactly the same
(C) It decreases, because the equilibrium shifts in the endothermic (reverse) direction
(D) All the ammonia decomposes instantly
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Increasing the temperature favours the endothermic direction, which here is the reverse reaction, so the equilibrium yield of ammonia falls (although the rate is faster).

Q40On a graph of volume of gas produced against time, the curve levels off (becomes horizontal). What does this show?

(A) The reaction has finished because one reactant has been completely used up
(B) The catalyst has been used up
(C) The gas is escaping from the apparatus
(D) The reaction is speeding up
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The line levels off when no more gas is produced, meaning the reaction is complete and a reactant has run out.

Q41Why does increasing the gas pressure increase the rate of a reaction between gases?

(A) It increases the mass of the particles
(B) It decreases the activation energy to zero
(C) It makes each collision more violent only
(D) The particles are pushed closer together, so collisions are more frequent
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Higher pressure puts more particles into the same volume, increasing the frequency of collisions.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Which statement about crude oil is correct?

(A) It is a pure compound
(B) It is a mixture of hydrocarbons, most of which are alkanes
(C) It contains only one type of molecule
(D) It is a renewable resource
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Crude oil is a finite resource and a mixture of many different hydrocarbon compounds, which is why it can be separated by fractional distillation.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkenes?

(A) CnH2n+2
(B) CnH2n-2
(C) CnH2n
(D) CnHn+2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a C=C double bond, with general formula CnH2n.

Q44What are the products of the complete combustion of methane in plenty of oxygen?

(A) Carbon dioxide and water
(B) Carbon monoxide and water
(C) Carbon and hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Complete combustion of a hydrocarbon produces carbon dioxide and water: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O.

Q45Ethene reacts with steam to produce ethanol. Which conditions are used in industry?

(A) Yeast at 30 °C
(B) High temperature and a concentration of sulfuric acid
(C) Nickel catalyst at 60 °C
(D) Around 300 °C, 60-70 atmospheres pressure and a phosphoric acid catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The hydration of ethene to ethanol uses steam at about 300 °C and high pressure with a phosphoric acid catalyst.

Q46Which is the functional group of the carboxylic acids?

(A) -OH
(B) -COOH
(C) C=C
(D) -NH2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH functional group; for example, ethanoic acid is CH3COOH. They react with carbonates to give carbon dioxide.

Q47Which statement about condensation polymerisation is correct?

(A) Only one monomer is needed
(B) The monomers must contain C=C double bonds
(C) Two different monomers react and a small molecule such as water is lost
(D) No atoms are lost when the polymer forms
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In condensation polymerisation (for example making a polyester from a diol and a dicarboxylic acid), monomers join and a small molecule like water is eliminated.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48Which test correctly identifies hydrogen gas?

(A) It turns limewater cloudy
(B) It relights a glowing splint
(C) It bleaches damp litmus paper
(D) A lit splint gives a squeaky pop
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lit splint is held at the mouth of the tube.

Q49Which test is used to identify chlorine gas?

(A) It bleaches damp litmus paper
(B) It turns limewater cloudy
(C) It gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint
(D) It relights a glowing splint
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper (it may first turn red, then white).

Q50A student adds dilute hydrochloric acid and then barium chloride solution to an unknown solution. A white precipitate forms. Which ion is present?

(A) Carbonate
(B) Sulfate
(C) Nitrate
(D) Chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate with sulfate ions; the acid is added first to remove any carbonate that would also give a white precipitate.

Q51A pure substance is analysed by paper chromatography. What would you expect to see?

(A) Many spots spread out along the paper
(B) No spot at all
(C) A single spot, showing the substance contains only one chemical
(D) A spot that stays on the baseline in every solvent
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A pure substance produces only one spot in chromatography; a mixture would separate into several spots.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What is the most abundant gas in the Earth's atmosphere today?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen, at about 78%
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nitrogen makes up about 78% of the modern atmosphere, oxygen about 21%, and the rest is mostly argon with a little carbon dioxide.

Q53Why did the amount of carbon dioxide in the early atmosphere decrease over time?

(A) It dissolved in the oceans and was taken in by photosynthetic organisms
(B) It escaped into space
(C) It was all burned as fuel
(D) It turned into nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans (forming carbonate sediments and shells) and was absorbed by algae and plants during photosynthesis, which also released oxygen.

Q54Why is carbon monoxide dangerous to humans?

(A) It causes acid rain
(B) It makes the air turn black
(C) It destroys the ozone layer
(D) It binds to haemoglobin in the blood and reduces the amount of oxygen carried
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon monoxide is a toxic, colourless, odourless gas that combines with haemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen around the body.

Q55What is one effect of particulate matter (soot) released by burning fuels?

(A) It increases the oxygen content of the air
(B) It cools the oceans directly
(C) It can cause global dimming and damage people's lungs
(D) It fertilises crops
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Particulates reflect sunlight (global dimming) and can be inhaled, causing breathing problems and other health issues.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Chlorine is added when drinking water is treated. Why?

(A) To remove all dissolved salts
(B) To improve the taste
(C) To soften the water
(D) To kill harmful microbes and sterilise the water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sterilising agents such as chlorine (or ozone and ultraviolet light) are used to make sure potable water contains very few microbes.

Q57What is bioleaching?

(A) Using bacteria to extract metals from low-grade ores
(B) Growing plants to absorb metal compounds
(C) Extracting metals using electrolysis
(D) Separating metals by fractional distillation
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In bioleaching, bacteria produce a leachate solution containing metal compounds from low-grade ores, from which the metal can then be extracted.

Q58Which of these is a finite (non-renewable) resource?

(A) Timber from managed forests
(B) Wind energy
(C) Solar energy
(D) Crude oil
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Crude oil is a finite resource that will eventually run out; it is used for fuels and as a raw material for petrochemicals.

Q59Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?

(A) 100 °C, 1 atmosphere, no catalyst
(B) 450 °C, 200 atmospheres, iron catalyst
(C) 300 °C, 60 atmospheres, phosphoric acid catalyst
(D) 800 °C, 1000 atmospheres, nickel catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The Haber process uses 450 °C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst as a compromise between rate and equilibrium yield.

Q60Which action would reduce a person's carbon footprint?

(A) Burning more coal for electricity
(B) Leaving lights on when not needed
(C) Using renewable energy and insulating the home
(D) Travelling by car instead of by bus for every journey
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Using renewable energy and reducing wasted energy lowers the amount of carbon dioxide released, reducing the carbon footprint.