GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 11
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1An atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. Its electronic configuration is 2,8,1. Which element is it?
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Correct: (B)
11 protons means atomic number 11, which is sodium; the configuration 2,8,1 also places it in Group 1.
Q2Carbon-14 has a mass number of 14 and an atomic number of 6. How many neutrons does a carbon-14 atom contain?
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Correct: (C)
Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 14 – 6 = 8.
Q3What happens to the reactivity of Group 1 metals as you go down the group?
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Correct: (A)
Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.
Q4Which statement correctly defines isotopes?
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Correct: (D)
Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same proton number) with different numbers of neutrons.
Q5What does the group number of an element in the periodic table tell you?
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Correct: (B)
The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which explains why elements in a group react similarly.
Q6A magnesium ion has the formula Mg^2+. Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. How many protons and electrons does the Mg^2+ ion contain?
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Correct: (C)
The proton number never changes (12); forming a 2+ ion means losing 2 electrons, so 12 – 2 = 10 electrons.
Q7Chlorine has two isotopes: chlorine-35 (75% abundance) and chlorine-37 (25% abundance). What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?
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Correct: (A)
Relative atomic mass = (35 × 75 + 37 × 25) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.
Q8Why are the noble gases (Group 0) very unreactive?
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Correct: (D)
Noble gases already have a full outer shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Which is a typical property of an ionic compound such as sodium chloride?
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Correct: (C)
Ionic compounds have giant lattices held by strong electrostatic forces, giving high melting points; the ions can only move (and carry charge) when molten or dissolved.
Q10In diamond, how many other carbon atoms is each carbon atom bonded to?
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Correct: (A)
In diamond each carbon atom forms four covalent bonds, giving a rigid giant covalent structure.
Q11Why can graphite conduct electricity, but diamond cannot?
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Correct: (D)
Each carbon in graphite bonds to only three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.
Q12Why do substances with simple molecular structures, such as carbon dioxide, have low boiling points?
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Correct: (B)
When a simple molecular substance boils, only the weak forces between molecules are broken; the strong covalent bonds inside the molecules stay intact.
Q13Nanoparticles typically have diameters in which range?
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Correct: (C)
Nanoparticles are 1-100 nm in size, containing a few hundred atoms, and have a very high surface area to volume ratio.
Q14Which description best matches metallic bonding?
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Correct: (A)
Metals consist of a lattice of positive ions in a 'sea' of delocalised electrons, which also explains why metals conduct electricity.
Q15Buckminsterfullerene (C60) is a fullerene. What is its structure?
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Correct: (B)
C60 molecules are hollow spheres (cages) of 60 carbon atoms joined in hexagonal and pentagonal rings.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the amount, in moles, of methane in 8 g of CH4? (Relative formula mass of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (B)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.
Q17What is the mass of 0.25 mol of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Relative formula mass of CaCO3 = 100)
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Correct: (C)
Mass = moles × Mr = 0.25 × 100 = 25 g.
Q1810 g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in g/dm^3?
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Correct: (A)
500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3, so concentration = 10 / 0.5 = 20 g/dm^3.
Q19In a reaction, the theoretical maximum yield of a product is 6.0 g, but only 4.5 g is collected. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (D)
Percentage yield = (4.5 / 6.0) × 100 = 75%.
Q20Calcium carbonate is heated to make calcium oxide: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56, CO2 = 44). What is the atom economy for making CaO?
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Correct: (B)
Atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of all products) × 100 = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.
Q21What volume does 0.5 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)
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Correct: (A)
Volume = moles × 24 = 0.5 × 24 = 12 dm^3.
Q22In an experiment, magnesium is reacted with excess dilute sulfuric acid. Which reactant is the limiting reactant?
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Correct: (C)
The limiting reactant is the one that is completely used up; since the acid is in excess, the magnesium limits how much product can form.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23A student measures the pH of a strong acid. Which value is most likely?
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Correct: (A)
Strong acids are fully ionised and have low pH values, typically around pH 1.
Q24Copper oxide is warmed with dilute hydrochloric acid. What is the name of the salt formed?
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Correct: (B)
Hydrochloric acid always forms chloride salts, so copper oxide + hydrochloric acid gives copper chloride and water.
Q25Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (D)
Lead ions (Pb^2+) are positively charged, so they move to the negative cathode where they gain electrons and form lead metal.
Q26Which of these metals is the most reactive?
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Correct: (C)
In the reactivity series, potassium is near the top, well above zinc, iron and copper.
Q27Which ionic equation correctly represents neutralisation?
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Correct: (B)
In every neutralisation, hydrogen ions from the acid react with hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water.
Q28Aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which products are formed?
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Correct: (A)
Sodium is too reactive, so hydrogen is discharged at the cathode; chloride ions are discharged as chlorine at the anode.
Q29What are the products when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate?
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Correct: (D)
Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.
Q30Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis rather than by heating with carbon. Why?
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Correct: (C)
Metals more reactive than carbon cannot be extracted by reduction with carbon, so electrolysis must be used.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31When calcium carbonate reacts with an acid in a test tube, the test tube feels warm. What does this tell you about the reaction?
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Correct: (B)
The temperature of the surroundings increases, so energy is being released by the reaction: it is exothermic.
Q32Calculate the overall energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. Bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 243 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 432 kJ/mol.
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Correct: (C)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 243 = 679 kJ/mol. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 432 = 864 kJ/mol. Overall change = 679 – 864 = -185 kJ/mol.
Q33On a reaction profile, what does the height of the peak above the reactants represent?
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Correct: (A)
The activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must have for a reaction to occur.
Q34What is the overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell?
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Correct: (D)
In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water only, producing electricity.
Q35Which process is endothermic?
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Correct: (B)
Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings to break down the compound; combustion, respiration and neutralisation are all exothermic.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Higher temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, causing more frequent collisions with enough energy to react.
Q37How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst offers a different pathway needing less activation energy, and it is not used up in the reaction.
Q38A reaction produces 40 cm^3 of gas in the first 20 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction over this time?
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Correct: (D)
Mean rate = volume of gas produced / time = 40 / 20 = 2 cm^3/s.
Q39For the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, what happens to the position of equilibrium if the pressure is increased?
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Correct: (B)
There are 4 molecules of gas on the left and 2 on the right, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium to the right, towards fewer gas molecules.
Q40A student uses smaller marble chips (a powder) instead of large chips in an acid reaction, and the reaction speeds up. Why?
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Correct: (C)
Breaking a solid into smaller pieces increases its surface area to volume ratio, exposing more particles to collisions.
Q41A student warms blue hydrated copper sulfate crystals. What is observed?
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Correct: (A)
Heating drives the water out of hydrated copper sulfate, leaving white anhydrous copper sulfate; adding water reverses the change.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42How are the fractions in crude oil separated by fractional distillation?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrocarbons with different chain lengths have different boiling points, so they condense at different levels of the fractionating column.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (B)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q44A hydrocarbon decolourises bromine water when the two are shaken together. What does this show?
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Correct: (C)
Alkenes are unsaturated and react with bromine water in an addition reaction, turning it from orange to colourless.
Q45Ethanol can be produced by fermenting glucose solution with yeast. Which conditions are needed?
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Correct: (A)
Fermentation by yeast works best in warm, anaerobic (no oxygen) conditions, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Q46Long-chain hydrocarbons are cracked in industry. Why is cracking useful?
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Correct: (D)
Cracking breaks long, less useful hydrocarbons into shorter alkanes (better fuels) and alkenes (used to make polymers).
Q47Poly(ethene) is made from ethene in an addition polymerisation reaction. What type of molecule is ethene in this process?
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Correct: (B)
Ethene is the monomer; many ethene molecules join together (opening their double bonds) to form the polymer chain.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48Which test result correctly identifies oxygen gas?
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Correct: (A)
Oxygen relights a glowing splint; the other tests identify hydrogen, carbon dioxide and chlorine respectively.
Q49In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.0 cm and the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?
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Correct: (C)
Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 10.0 = 0.4.
Q50A flame test is carried out on a compound and a crimson-red flame is seen. Which metal ion is present?
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Correct: (D)
Lithium compounds give a crimson-red flame; sodium gives yellow, potassium lilac and copper(II) green.
Q51A student adds dilute acid to a solid and bubbles the gas through limewater, which turns cloudy. Which ion was present in the solid?
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Correct: (B)
Carbonates react with acids to give carbon dioxide, and carbon dioxide turns limewater cloudy.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52What was the main gas in the Earth's early atmosphere?
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Correct: (C)
Intense volcanic activity produced an early atmosphere consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, with little or no oxygen.
Q53Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere today is oxygen?
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Correct: (A)
The modern atmosphere is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and small amounts of other gases including argon and carbon dioxide.
Q54Which pollutant gas, formed when fuels containing sulfur burn, causes acid rain?
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Correct: (D)
Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acidic solutions, producing acid rain that damages buildings and trees.
Q55Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (B)
Methane absorbs long-wavelength radiation from the Earth and is a greenhouse gas, like carbon dioxide and water vapour.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Seawater can be made potable (safe to drink). Which process must be used?
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Correct: (D)
Seawater contains too many dissolved salts, so they must be removed by desalination; filtration and chlorine alone cannot do this.
Q57In the Haber process, nitrogen and hydrogen react to make ammonia. Which catalyst is used?
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Correct: (C)
The Haber process (450 °C, 200 atmospheres) uses an iron catalyst to speed up the reversible reaction.
Q58What is phytomining?
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Correct: (B)
Phytomining uses plants to absorb metal compounds from low-grade ores; the plants are harvested and burned, and the metal is extracted from the ash.
Q59What does a life cycle assessment (LCA) evaluate?
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Correct: (D)
An LCA considers extracting and processing raw materials, manufacture, use, and disposal, including transport and energy at each stage.
Q60Which is an advantage of recycling aluminium rather than extracting it from its ore?
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Correct: (B)
Recycling aluminium uses a fraction of the energy needed for extraction by electrolysis, saving finite ores and reducing emissions.
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