GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 11

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons. Its electronic configuration is 2,8,1. Which element is it?

(A) Magnesium
(B) Sodium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Potassium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

11 protons means atomic number 11, which is sodium; the configuration 2,8,1 also places it in Group 1.

Q2Carbon-14 has a mass number of 14 and an atomic number of 6. How many neutrons does a carbon-14 atom contain?

(A) 6
(B) 14
(C) 8
(D) 20
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 14 – 6 = 8.

Q3What happens to the reactivity of Group 1 metals as you go down the group?

(A) It increases
(B) It decreases
(C) It stays the same
(D) It increases then decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.

Q4Which statement correctly defines isotopes?

(A) Atoms of different elements with the same mass number
(B) Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons
(C) Atoms that have gained or lost electrons
(D) Atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Isotopes are atoms of the same element (same proton number) with different numbers of neutrons.

Q5What does the group number of an element in the periodic table tell you?

(A) The number of electron shells
(B) The number of electrons in the outer shell
(C) The number of neutrons in the nucleus
(D) The total number of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The group number equals the number of electrons in the outer shell, which explains why elements in a group react similarly.

Q6A magnesium ion has the formula Mg^2+. Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. How many protons and electrons does the Mg^2+ ion contain?

(A) 12 protons, 12 electrons
(B) 10 protons, 12 electrons
(C) 12 protons, 10 electrons
(D) 14 protons, 10 electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The proton number never changes (12); forming a 2+ ion means losing 2 electrons, so 12 – 2 = 10 electrons.

Q7Chlorine has two isotopes: chlorine-35 (75% abundance) and chlorine-37 (25% abundance). What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?

(A) 35.5
(B) 36.0
(C) 35.0
(D) 36.5
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Relative atomic mass = (35 × 75 + 37 × 25) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.

Q8Why are the noble gases (Group 0) very unreactive?

(A) They have very low boiling points
(B) They are all gases at room temperature
(C) They have no electrons in their outer shell
(D) They have a full, stable outer shell of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Noble gases already have a full outer shell, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Which is a typical property of an ionic compound such as sodium chloride?

(A) Low melting point
(B) Conducts electricity when solid
(C) High melting point and conducts electricity when molten
(D) Exists as small molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ionic compounds have giant lattices held by strong electrostatic forces, giving high melting points; the ions can only move (and carry charge) when molten or dissolved.

Q10In diamond, how many other carbon atoms is each carbon atom bonded to?

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 6
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In diamond each carbon atom forms four covalent bonds, giving a rigid giant covalent structure.

Q11Why can graphite conduct electricity, but diamond cannot?

(A) Graphite is a metal
(B) Graphite has weaker bonds than diamond
(C) Graphite contains ions
(D) Graphite has delocalised electrons that can move through the structure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each carbon in graphite bonds to only three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.

Q12Why do substances with simple molecular structures, such as carbon dioxide, have low boiling points?

(A) The covalent bonds inside the molecules are weak
(B) Only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome, which takes little energy
(C) Their molecules have very low mass numbers
(D) They contain no charged particles
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

When a simple molecular substance boils, only the weak forces between molecules are broken; the strong covalent bonds inside the molecules stay intact.

Q13Nanoparticles typically have diameters in which range?

(A) 100-1000 nm
(B) 0.1-1 nm
(C) 1-100 nm
(D) 1000-10000 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nanoparticles are 1-100 nm in size, containing a few hundred atoms, and have a very high surface area to volume ratio.

Q14Which description best matches metallic bonding?

(A) A regular arrangement of positive metal ions surrounded by delocalised electrons
(B) Pairs of atoms sharing electrons
(C) Negative ions surrounded by positive ions
(D) Molecules held together by weak forces
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metals consist of a lattice of positive ions in a 'sea' of delocalised electrons, which also explains why metals conduct electricity.

Q15Buckminsterfullerene (C60) is a fullerene. What is its structure?

(A) A flat sheet of hexagons
(B) A hollow ball of carbon atoms arranged in hexagons and pentagons
(C) A long tube of carbon atoms
(D) A giant tetrahedral lattice
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

C60 molecules are hollow spheres (cages) of 60 carbon atoms joined in hexagonal and pentagonal rings.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the amount, in moles, of methane in 8 g of CH4? (Relative formula mass of CH4 = 16)

(A) 2 mol
(B) 0.5 mol
(C) 0.25 mol
(D) 4 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8 / 16 = 0.5 mol.

Q17What is the mass of 0.25 mol of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Relative formula mass of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 400 g
(B) 40 g
(C) 25 g
(D) 2.5 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mass = moles × Mr = 0.25 × 100 = 25 g.

Q1810 g of sodium hydroxide is dissolved to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in g/dm^3?

(A) 20 g/dm^3
(B) 5 g/dm^3
(C) 10 g/dm^3
(D) 50 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

500 cm^3 = 0.5 dm^3, so concentration = 10 / 0.5 = 20 g/dm^3.

Q19In a reaction, the theoretical maximum yield of a product is 6.0 g, but only 4.5 g is collected. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 133%
(B) 45%
(C) 60%
(D) 75%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (4.5 / 6.0) × 100 = 75%.

Q20Calcium carbonate is heated to make calcium oxide: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56, CO2 = 44). What is the atom economy for making CaO?

(A) 44%
(B) 56%
(C) 100%
(D) 64%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of all products) × 100 = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.

Q21What volume does 0.5 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3)

(A) 12 dm^3
(B) 24 dm^3
(C) 48 dm^3
(D) 6 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = moles × 24 = 0.5 × 24 = 12 dm^3.

Q22In an experiment, magnesium is reacted with excess dilute sulfuric acid. Which reactant is the limiting reactant?

(A) The sulfuric acid, because it is in excess
(B) Both reactants run out at the same time
(C) The magnesium, because it will all be used up first
(D) Neither, because the reaction is reversible
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The limiting reactant is the one that is completely used up; since the acid is in excess, the magnesium limits how much product can form.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23A student measures the pH of a strong acid. Which value is most likely?

(A) pH 1
(B) pH 7
(C) pH 6
(D) pH 13
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Strong acids are fully ionised and have low pH values, typically around pH 1.

Q24Copper oxide is warmed with dilute hydrochloric acid. What is the name of the salt formed?

(A) Copper sulfate
(B) Copper chloride
(C) Copper nitrate
(D) Copper carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Hydrochloric acid always forms chloride salts, so copper oxide + hydrochloric acid gives copper chloride and water.

Q25Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) Bromine
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Lead
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Lead ions (Pb^2+) are positively charged, so they move to the negative cathode where they gain electrons and form lead metal.

Q26Which of these metals is the most reactive?

(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Potassium
(D) Zinc
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In the reactivity series, potassium is near the top, well above zinc, iron and copper.

Q27Which ionic equation correctly represents neutralisation?

(A) H2O → H^+ + OH^-
(B) H^+ + OH^- → H2O
(C) 2H^+ + O^2- → H2O
(D) Na^+ + Cl^- → NaCl
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In every neutralisation, hydrogen ions from the acid react with hydroxide ions from the alkali to form water.

Q28Aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which products are formed?

(A) Hydrogen at the cathode and chlorine at the anode
(B) Sodium at the cathode and chlorine at the anode
(C) Hydrogen at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
(D) Sodium at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sodium is too reactive, so hydrogen is discharged at the cathode; chloride ions are discharged as chlorine at the anode.

Q29What are the products when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

(A) Salt and hydrogen only
(B) Salt and water only
(C) Salt and carbon dioxide only
(D) Salt, water and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q30Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis rather than by heating with carbon. Why?

(A) Aluminium oxide has a very low melting point
(B) Aluminium is less reactive than carbon
(C) Aluminium is more reactive than carbon, so carbon cannot remove the oxygen from its oxide
(D) Carbon does not react with oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Metals more reactive than carbon cannot be extracted by reduction with carbon, so electrolysis must be used.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31When calcium carbonate reacts with an acid in a test tube, the test tube feels warm. What does this tell you about the reaction?

(A) It is endothermic
(B) It is exothermic, because energy is transferred to the surroundings
(C) No energy change has taken place
(D) The reaction has not started
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The temperature of the surroundings increases, so energy is being released by the reaction: it is exothermic.

Q32Calculate the overall energy change for the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl. Bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 243 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 432 kJ/mol.

(A) +185 kJ/mol
(B) -747 kJ/mol
(C) -185 kJ/mol
(D) -253 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 243 = 679 kJ/mol. Energy released forming bonds = 2 × 432 = 864 kJ/mol. Overall change = 679 – 864 = -185 kJ/mol.

Q33On a reaction profile, what does the height of the peak above the reactants represent?

(A) The activation energy, the minimum energy particles need in order to react
(B) The overall energy change of the reaction
(C) The energy stored in the products
(D) The energy lost as sound
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The activation energy is the minimum energy that colliding particles must have for a reaction to occur.

Q34What is the overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell?

(A) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, with methane as a waste product
(B) H2 → 2H^+ + 2e^-
(C) Water is split into hydrogen and oxygen
(D) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water only, producing electricity.

Q35Which process is endothermic?

(A) Combustion of methane
(B) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) Respiration
(D) Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings to break down the compound; combustion, respiration and neutralisation are all exothermic.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

(A) It lowers the activation energy
(B) It increases the volume of the container
(C) Particles move faster, so collisions are more frequent and a greater proportion of collisions are successful
(D) It makes the particles bigger
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Higher temperature gives particles more kinetic energy, causing more frequent collisions with enough energy to react.

Q37How does a catalyst increase the rate of a reaction?

(A) It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(B) It increases the energy of the particles
(C) It is used up so the reaction can finish faster
(D) It increases the concentration of the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst offers a different pathway needing less activation energy, and it is not used up in the reaction.

Q38A reaction produces 40 cm^3 of gas in the first 20 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction over this time?

(A) 0.5 cm^3/s
(B) 20 cm^3/s
(C) 800 cm^3/s
(D) 2 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = volume of gas produced / time = 40 / 20 = 2 cm^3/s.

Q39For the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3, what happens to the position of equilibrium if the pressure is increased?

(A) It moves to the left, making more reactants
(B) It moves to the right, towards the side with fewer molecules of gas
(C) It does not move at all
(D) The reaction stops
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

There are 4 molecules of gas on the left and 2 on the right, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium to the right, towards fewer gas molecules.

Q40A student uses smaller marble chips (a powder) instead of large chips in an acid reaction, and the reaction speeds up. Why?

(A) The powder has a smaller surface area
(B) The powder changes the acid into a catalyst
(C) The powder has a larger surface area, so more particles are exposed and collisions are more frequent
(D) The powder contains more impurities
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Breaking a solid into smaller pieces increases its surface area to volume ratio, exposing more particles to collisions.

Q41A student warms blue hydrated copper sulfate crystals. What is observed?

(A) They turn white and steam is given off, forming anhydrous copper sulfate
(B) They turn black
(C) They melt into a blue liquid
(D) They produce hydrogen gas
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Heating drives the water out of hydrated copper sulfate, leaving white anhydrous copper sulfate; adding water reverses the change.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42How are the fractions in crude oil separated by fractional distillation?

(A) By their different colours
(B) By their different densities only
(C) By filtering the mixture
(D) By their different boiling points, with each fraction condensing at a different temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrocarbons with different chain lengths have different boiling points, so they condense at different levels of the fractionating column.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnH2n+2
(C) CnHn
(D) CnH2n-2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q44A hydrocarbon decolourises bromine water when the two are shaken together. What does this show?

(A) The hydrocarbon is an alkane
(B) The hydrocarbon is a pure substance
(C) The hydrocarbon is an alkene, because it has a C=C double bond
(D) The hydrocarbon contains no carbon
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkenes are unsaturated and react with bromine water in an addition reaction, turning it from orange to colourless.

Q45Ethanol can be produced by fermenting glucose solution with yeast. Which conditions are needed?

(A) Warm temperatures (around 30 °C) and anaerobic conditions
(B) A temperature of 450 °C and high pressure
(C) A nickel catalyst and hydrogen gas
(D) Strong sunlight and oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Fermentation by yeast works best in warm, anaerobic (no oxygen) conditions, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q46Long-chain hydrocarbons are cracked in industry. Why is cracking useful?

(A) It joins small molecules together into longer ones
(B) It removes sulfur from fuels
(C) It turns crude oil into a pure substance
(D) It produces shorter, more useful alkanes for fuels and alkenes for making polymers
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cracking breaks long, less useful hydrocarbons into shorter alkanes (better fuels) and alkenes (used to make polymers).

Q47Poly(ethene) is made from ethene in an addition polymerisation reaction. What type of molecule is ethene in this process?

(A) A catalyst
(B) A monomer
(C) A solvent
(D) A repeating unit already containing thousands of atoms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene is the monomer; many ethene molecules join together (opening their double bonds) to form the polymer chain.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48Which test result correctly identifies oxygen gas?

(A) A glowing splint relights
(B) A lit splint gives a squeaky pop
(C) Limewater turns cloudy
(D) Damp litmus paper is bleached
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; the other tests identify hydrogen, carbon dioxide and chlorine respectively.

Q49In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.0 cm and the solvent front moves 10.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the spot?

(A) 2.5
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.4
(D) 40
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.0 / 10.0 = 0.4.

Q50A flame test is carried out on a compound and a crimson-red flame is seen. Which metal ion is present?

(A) Sodium
(B) Copper(II)
(C) Potassium
(D) Lithium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Lithium compounds give a crimson-red flame; sodium gives yellow, potassium lilac and copper(II) green.

Q51A student adds dilute acid to a solid and bubbles the gas through limewater, which turns cloudy. Which ion was present in the solid?

(A) Sulfate
(B) Carbonate
(C) Chloride
(D) Nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbonates react with acids to give carbon dioxide, and carbon dioxide turns limewater cloudy.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52What was the main gas in the Earth's early atmosphere?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Intense volcanic activity produced an early atmosphere consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, with little or no oxygen.

Q53Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere today is oxygen?

(A) 21%
(B) 78%
(C) 0.04%
(D) 50%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The modern atmosphere is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and small amounts of other gases including argon and carbon dioxide.

Q54Which pollutant gas, formed when fuels containing sulfur burn, causes acid rain?

(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Methane
(D) Sulfur dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acidic solutions, producing acid rain that damages buildings and trees.

Q55Which of these gases is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Oxygen
(B) Methane
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Argon
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Methane absorbs long-wavelength radiation from the Earth and is a greenhouse gas, like carbon dioxide and water vapour.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Seawater can be made potable (safe to drink). Which process must be used?

(A) Filtration only
(B) Adding chlorine only
(C) Sedimentation only
(D) Desalination, by distillation or reverse osmosis, to remove dissolved salts
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Seawater contains too many dissolved salts, so they must be removed by desalination; filtration and chlorine alone cannot do this.

Q57In the Haber process, nitrogen and hydrogen react to make ammonia. Which catalyst is used?

(A) Vanadium(V) oxide
(B) Nickel
(C) Iron
(D) Platinum
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The Haber process (450 °C, 200 atmospheres) uses an iron catalyst to speed up the reversible reaction.

Q58What is phytomining?

(A) Extracting metals from ores by electrolysis
(B) Growing plants in soil containing metal compounds, then burning the plants and extracting the metal from the ash
(C) Using bacteria to leach metals from ores
(D) Recycling scrap metal in a furnace
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Phytomining uses plants to absorb metal compounds from low-grade ores; the plants are harvested and burned, and the metal is extracted from the ash.

Q59What does a life cycle assessment (LCA) evaluate?

(A) Only the cost of making a product
(B) Only how long a product lasts
(C) The raw materials used to make a product
(D) The environmental impact of a product at every stage of its life, from raw materials to disposal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

An LCA considers extracting and processing raw materials, manufacture, use, and disposal, including transport and energy at each stage.

Q60Which is an advantage of recycling aluminium rather than extracting it from its ore?

(A) It gives a purer metal every time
(B) It uses much less energy, conserving resources and reducing pollution
(C) It produces more aluminium than was recycled
(D) It removes the need to sort waste
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Recycling aluminium uses a fraction of the energy needed for extraction by electrolysis, saving finite ores and reducing emissions.