GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 10

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1An atom of carbon-14 has 6 protons. How many neutrons does it contain?

(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 14
(D) 20
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 14 – 6 = 8.

Q2What is the approximate radius of an atom?

(A) 0.1 nm
(B) 1 nm
(C) 10 nm
(D) 0.1 mm
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Atoms have a radius of about 0.1 nm (1 × 10^-10 m).

Q3Oxygen has atomic number 8. What is its electronic structure?

(A) 2,4
(B) 2,8
(C) 8
(D) 2,6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

8 electrons are arranged as 2 in the first shell and 6 in the second shell.

Q4Why do isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties?

(A) They have the same mass
(B) They have the same number of neutrons
(C) They have the same electron arrangement
(D) They have equal numbers of protons and neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Chemical reactions depend on the arrangement of electrons, which is the same for all isotopes of an element.

Q5Why are the noble gases (Group 0) very unreactive?

(A) They have no electrons
(B) They have very high melting points
(C) They are all gases at room temperature
(D) They have a full outer shell of electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With a full outer shell, noble gas atoms do not need to gain, lose or share electrons, so they are stable and unreactive.

Q6A sample of magnesium is 80% Mg-24, 10% Mg-25 and 10% Mg-26. What is its relative atomic mass?

(A) 24.0
(B) 25.0
(C) 24.3
(D) 24.8
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ar = (80 × 24 + 10 × 25 + 10 × 26) / 100 = (1920 + 250 + 260) / 100 = 24.3.

Q7Which is a typical property of the transition metals?

(A) They form coloured compounds
(B) They are soft and can be cut with a knife
(C) They have low densities
(D) They react very quickly with cold water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Transition metals form coloured compounds and many act as catalysts; they are hard, dense and far less reactive than Group 1 metals.

Q8Which element is in Period 3 and Group 2 of the periodic table?

(A) Calcium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Sodium
(D) Aluminium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In Period 3, the Group 2 element is magnesium (sodium is Group 1 and aluminium is Group 3).

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9What is a covalent bond?

(A) A shared pair of electrons between two atoms
(B) An electron transferred from one atom to another
(C) The attraction between oppositely charged ions
(D) A weak force between molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons, usually formed between non-metal atoms.

Q10Why do simple molecular substances, such as chlorine, have low melting points?

(A) The covalent bonds inside the molecules are very weak
(B) The molecules contain very few electrons
(C) The atoms all have full outer shells
(D) Only the weak intermolecular forces need to be broken, not the covalent bonds
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

When a simple molecular substance melts, only the weak forces between molecules are overcome; the strong covalent bonds within the molecules stay intact.

Q11Silicon dioxide (sand) has a very high melting point and does not conduct electricity. Which structure does it have?

(A) Simple molecular
(B) Giant covalent
(C) Ionic
(D) Metallic
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Silicon dioxide has a giant covalent structure, like diamond, with strong covalent bonds in all directions.

Q12What is a fullerene?

(A) A single layer of graphite
(B) A long tube made of metal atoms
(C) A hollow cage of carbon atoms
(D) A soft form of diamond
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fullerenes, such as buckminsterfullerene (C60), are carbon molecules shaped as hollow spheres or tubes.

Q13Why can ionic compounds conduct electricity when molten or dissolved in water, but not as solids?

(A) The ions change into atoms when heated
(B) The electrons become delocalised when the compound melts
(C) The ions are in fixed positions in the solid, but are free to move when the compound is molten or dissolved
(D) The covalent bonds break when the solid melts
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Charge can only be carried if the ions are free to move to the electrodes, which happens in the liquid state or in solution.

Q14Calcium ions have a 2+ charge and fluoride ions have a 1- charge. What is the formula of calcium fluoride?

(A) CaF
(B) CaF2
(C) Ca2F
(D) Ca2F2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Two F^- ions are needed to balance the charge of one Ca^2+ ion, giving CaF2.

Q15Why do thermosetting polymers stay hard and not melt when heated?

(A) They have very weak intermolecular forces
(B) They are made from only one type of monomer
(C) They contain metal ions
(D) Their polymer chains are joined by strong covalent cross-links
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Covalent cross-links between the chains stop thermosetting polymers from softening or melting on heating.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of sulfuric acid, H2SO4? (H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

(A) 98
(B) 82
(C) 50
(D) 114
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mr = (2 × 1) + 32 + (4 × 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.

Q17What is the mass of 0.25 mol of calcium carbonate? (Mr of CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 2.5 g
(B) 25 g
(C) 250 g
(D) 0.25 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mass = moles × Mr = 0.25 × 100 = 25 g.

Q18In a reaction, all of reactant A is used up while some of reactant B is left over. What is reactant A called?

(A) The product
(B) The catalyst
(C) The limiting reactant
(D) The excess reactant
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The limiting reactant is the one that is completely used up, and it limits the amount of product that can form.

Q1910 g of a solute is dissolved to make 500 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution in g/dm^3?

(A) 20 g/dm^3
(B) 5 g/dm^3
(C) 10 g/dm^3
(D) 50 g/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = 500 cm^3 = 0.500 dm^3, so concentration = 10 / 0.500 = 20 g/dm^3.

Q20A reaction produces 13 g of product. The theoretical yield was 20 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 54%
(B) 35%
(C) 154%
(D) 65%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (13 / 20) × 100 = 65%.

Q21What volume do 2.0 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (1 mol of gas occupies 24 dm^3)

(A) 48 dm^3
(B) 12 dm^3
(C) 24 dm^3
(D) 2.4 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Volume = moles × 24 = 2.0 × 24 = 48 dm^3.

Q22Hydrogen is manufactured by the reaction CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2. Hydrogen is the only desired product. What is the atom economy? (Mr: CO = 28, H2 = 2)

(A) 82.4%
(B) 17.6%
(C) 6.0%
(D) 34.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Total Mr of all products = 28 + (3 × 2) = 34; atom economy = (6 / 34) × 100 = 17.6%.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23A few drops of universal indicator are added to dilute hydrochloric acid. What colour is seen?

(A) Green
(B) Purple
(C) Blue
(D) Red
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid with a pH of about 1, so universal indicator turns red.

Q24What is the name of the salt formed when sulfuric acid reacts with a metal or a base?

(A) A chloride
(B) A nitrate
(C) A sulfate
(D) A carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfuric acid always forms salts called sulfates.

Q25Copper sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert graphite electrodes. What forms at the anode (positive electrode)?

(A) Copper
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Sulfur dioxide
(D) Oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxygen is produced at the anode, while copper is deposited at the cathode.

Q26Why is aluminium extracted from its ore by electrolysis rather than by heating with carbon?

(A) Aluminium is more reactive than carbon, so carbon cannot remove the oxygen from aluminium oxide
(B) Aluminium oxide does not contain any oxygen
(C) Carbon reacts explosively with aluminium
(D) Aluminium has a very low melting point
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metals that are more reactive than carbon, such as aluminium, must be extracted by electrolysis of the molten compound.

Q27What are the products when a reactive metal reacts with a dilute acid?

(A) Salt + water
(B) Salt + carbon dioxide
(C) Salt + hydrogen
(D) Salt + oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen.

Q28In an acid-alkali titration, how do you know that the alkali has just been neutralised?

(A) Bubbles of gas stop forming
(B) The indicator changes colour at the end point
(C) The solution stops getting warmer
(D) A solid precipitate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The indicator changes colour at the end point, showing the volume of acid needed for exact neutralisation.

Q29A piece of iron is placed in copper sulfate solution. What happens?

(A) Nothing, because iron is less reactive than copper
(B) Hydrogen gas is produced
(C) Copper coats the iron and the blue colour fades
(D) The solution turns a darker blue
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Iron is more reactive than copper and displaces it, forming pink-brown copper and a pale green iron(II) sulfate solution as the blue colour fades.

Q30During electrolysis, to which electrode do cations (positive ions) move?

(A) The anode (positive electrode)
(B) They stay in the middle of the solution
(C) The power supply
(D) The cathode (negative electrode)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Positive ions are attracted to the oppositely charged negative electrode, which is the cathode.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which of these reactions is endothermic?

(A) Combustion of methane
(B) Thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) Neutralisation of an acid by an alkali
(D) Respiration
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Thermal decomposition takes in energy from the surroundings and is endothermic; combustion, neutralisation and respiration are all exothermic.

Q32Calculate the energy change for the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3. Bond energies (kJ/mol): N≡N = 941, H-H = 436, N-H = 391.

(A) -97 kJ/mol
(B) +97 kJ/mol
(C) -2249 kJ/mol
(D) +2346 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy to break bonds = 941 + (3 × 436) = 2249 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346 kJ; energy change = 2249 – 2346 = -97 kJ/mol.

Q33What affects the voltage produced by a simple chemical cell?

(A) The difference in reactivity between the two metal electrodes
(B) The colour of the electrolyte
(C) The size of the beaker
(D) The length of the connecting wires
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The greater the difference in reactivity between the two metals used as electrodes, the greater the voltage of the cell.

Q34Which statement best defines activation energy?

(A) The energy released when products form
(B) The minimum energy that colliding particles must have for a reaction to take place
(C) The energy needed to light a fuel in air
(D) The total energy of all the particles in a mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Only collisions with energy equal to or greater than the activation energy result in bonds breaking and a reaction occurring.

Q35In the reaction profile for an endothermic reaction…

(A) the products are lower in energy than the reactants
(B) no activation energy is needed
(C) the products are higher in energy than the reactants
(D) the curve falls steadily from reactants to products
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In an endothermic reaction, energy is taken in from the surroundings, so the products sit higher on the energy profile than the reactants.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Which method can be used to measure the rate of a reaction that produces a gas?

(A) Watching the colour of the flame
(B) Measuring the temperature at the end only
(C) Titrating the product after the reaction
(D) Collecting the gas in a gas syringe and recording the volume every 10 seconds
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The rate can be followed by measuring how the volume of gas produced changes with time.

Q37Why does powdered calcium carbonate react faster with acid than the same mass of large lumps?

(A) The powder has a lower activation energy
(B) The powder is a different chemical
(C) The powder contains more impurities
(D) The powder has a larger surface area, so collisions between particles are more frequent
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Powder exposes more particles to the acid, giving a much larger surface area and more frequent collisions.

Q38A reaction forms 100 cm^3 of gas in 40 seconds. What is the mean rate of the reaction?

(A) 4.0 cm^3/s
(B) 2.5 cm^3/s
(C) 0.4 cm^3/s
(D) 40 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mean rate = volume of gas produced / time = 100 / 40 = 2.5 cm^3/s.

Q39Which is an example of a reversible reaction?

(A) Heating hydrated copper sulfate, which turns white, and adding water, which turns it blue again
(B) Burning magnesium in oxygen
(C) Neutralising an acid with an alkali
(D) The rusting of iron
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrated copper sulfate ⇌ anhydrous copper sulfate + water is reversible, shown by the blue-white colour changes in each direction.

Q40In a reversible reaction the forward reaction is exothermic. What happens to the equilibrium yield of products if the temperature is increased?

(A) It increases
(B) It stays exactly the same
(C) It decreases, because the equilibrium shifts in the endothermic direction
(D) The reaction stops completely
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Raising the temperature favours the endothermic (reverse) reaction, so the equilibrium moves to the left and the yield of products falls.

Q41A catalyst is added to a reversible reaction that is at equilibrium. What happens to the position of equilibrium?

(A) It shifts to the right
(B) It does not change, because the catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally
(C) It shifts to the left
(D) The equilibrium is destroyed
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst increases the rates of both the forward and reverse reactions by the same amount, so the position of equilibrium is unchanged.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42What is a hydrocarbon?

(A) A compound containing hydrogen and carbon only
(B) A compound containing carbon and oxygen only
(C) Any compound that contains carbon
(D) A mixture of alkanes
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Hydrocarbons are compounds whose molecules contain hydrogen and carbon atoms only.

Q43What is the formula of propane?

(A) C3H6
(B) CH4
(C) C3H8
(D) C4H10
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Alkanes follow the general formula CnH2n+2, so propane (n = 3) is C3H8.

Q44Which product of the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon is a poisonous gas?

(A) Carbon (soot)
(B) Water
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Carbon monoxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With a limited supply of oxygen, poisonous carbon monoxide is formed instead of carbon dioxide.

Q45Which functional group is present in carboxylic acids such as ethanoic acid?

(A) -OH
(B) C=C
(C) -COOH
(D) -NH2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH functional group.

Q46Poly(ethene) is made from ethene. What type of polymerisation is this?

(A) Condensation polymerisation
(B) Fermentation
(C) Cracking
(D) Addition polymerisation
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ethene monomers add together by opening their C=C bonds, with no other product formed, so this is addition polymerisation.

Q47Ethanol for drinks and fuels can be made by fermenting glucose solution. What else is needed for fermentation?

(A) Yeast, warm temperatures and anaerobic conditions
(B) A nickel catalyst and high pressure
(C) Oxygen and bright sunlight
(D) A strong acid and a high temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Enzymes in yeast convert glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide at about 30°C in the absence of oxygen.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48What is the test for oxygen gas?

(A) It turns limewater cloudy
(B) It relights a glowing splint
(C) A lighted splint gives a squeaky pop
(D) It bleaches damp litmus paper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxygen relights a glowing splint, which is the standard test for the gas.

Q49What is the test for chlorine gas?

(A) It relights a glowing splint
(B) It turns limewater cloudy
(C) It gives a squeaky pop with a lighted splint
(D) It bleaches damp litmus paper
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper white (the paper may turn red first, then bleach).

Q50Which test identifies sulfate ions in a solution?

(A) Add dilute hydrochloric acid and barium chloride solution; a white precipitate forms
(B) Add sodium hydroxide solution; a green precipitate forms
(C) Carry out a flame test; the flame turns yellow
(D) Add silver nitrate solution; a cream precipitate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Barium chloride solution, after adding dilute hydrochloric acid, gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate if sulfate ions are present.

Q51A solid fizzes when dilute acid is added to it, and the gas produced turns limewater cloudy. Which ion does the solid contain?

(A) Chloride
(B) Carbonate
(C) Sulfate
(D) Nitrate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Carbonates react with dilute acids to release carbon dioxide, which turns limewater cloudy.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52How did the proportion of oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere increase over billions of years?

(A) Volcanoes released oxygen
(B) Animals began to respire
(C) Algae and plants photosynthesised, releasing oxygen
(D) Oxygen arrived on Earth from space
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Photosynthesis by algae, and later by plants, released oxygen into the atmosphere over billions of years.

Q53Why did the amount of carbon dioxide in the early atmosphere decrease?

(A) It dissolved in the oceans and became locked up in sedimentary rocks and fossil fuels
(B) It escaped into space
(C) It was used up by volcanoes
(D) It was converted into nitrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Carbon dioxide dissolved in the oceans and was locked away as carbonates in sedimentary rocks such as limestone, and in fossil fuels.

Q54Which gases are responsible for acid rain?

(A) Carbon dioxide and methane
(B) Oxygen and nitrogen
(C) Sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
(D) Argon and water vapour
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, formed when fossil fuels burn, dissolve in rainwater to form acid rain.

Q55What problem do particulates (soot) in the air cause?

(A) Acid rain
(B) Rising sea levels
(C) Damage to the ozone layer
(D) Global dimming and breathing (respiratory) problems
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Particulates reflect sunlight back into space, causing global dimming, and they can damage the lungs and cause health problems.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Why is chlorine added to drinking water?

(A) To remove dissolved salts
(B) To kill harmful microbes
(C) To improve the taste
(D) To remove insoluble solids
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine sterilises drinking water by killing microorganisms, making it safe to drink.

Q57What is bioleaching?

(A) Washing ores with acid to remove waste rock
(B) Using bacteria to produce a solution containing a metal compound
(C) Growing plants to absorb metals from soil
(D) Melting scrap metal so it can be recycled
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In bioleaching, bacteria convert insoluble metal compounds in low-grade ores into soluble compounds that leach out in a solution.

Q58In the Haber process, where does the hydrogen come from?

(A) The air
(B) The electrolysis of water
(C) Sea water
(D) Natural gas
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In the Haber process, nitrogen is obtained from the air and hydrogen is obtained mainly from natural gas.

Q59Why are alloys usually harder than pure metals?

(A) They contain no metal atoms
(B) They always melt at higher temperatures
(C) Atoms of different sizes distort the layers, so the layers cannot slide over each other easily
(D) They have more delocalised electrons
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In an alloy, atoms of a different size disrupt the regular layers of metal atoms, stopping the layers sliding and making the alloy harder.

Q60Which of these is a finite (non-renewable) resource?

(A) Crude oil
(B) Timber from managed forests
(C) Wind energy
(D) Solar energy
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Crude oil is a finite resource that took millions of years to form and will eventually run out.