GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 1
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.
Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.
⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table
Q1Which subatomic particle is found in shells around the nucleus and has a relative charge of -1?
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Correct: (C)
Electrons are arranged in shells around the nucleus; they have a relative charge of -1 and a very small relative mass.
Q2An atom of sodium has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?
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Correct: (B)
Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.
Q3What is the electronic structure of an aluminium atom (atomic number 13)?
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Correct: (D)
Aluminium has 13 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 3 in the third shell.
Q4Isotopes of the same element have:
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Correct: (A)
Isotopes have the same atomic number (protons) but different mass numbers because they contain different numbers of neutrons.
Q5Which element is in Group 2 and Period 3 of the periodic table?
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Correct: (B)
Magnesium is the Group 2 element in the third row (Period 3) of the periodic table.
Q6Mendeleev's periodic table was accepted by scientists partly because he:
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Correct: (D)
Mendeleev left gaps for elements not yet discovered, and his predictions of their properties were later shown to be correct.
Q7Why are the Group 0 noble gases very unreactive?
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Correct: (A)
Noble gas atoms have a stable, full outer shell of electrons, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.
Q8A sample of chlorine contains 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?
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Correct: (C)
Ar = (75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.
🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties
Q9Which statement about ionic compounds is correct?
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Correct: (B)
In a solid the ions are locked in a lattice and cannot move; when molten the ions are free to move and carry charge.
Q10A covalent bond is formed when atoms:
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Correct: (A)
A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between two atoms.
Q11Diamond is very hard because:
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Correct: (D)
Diamond has a giant covalent structure in which every carbon atom is bonded to four others, making it extremely hard.
Q12Graphite conducts electricity because:
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Correct: (C)
Each carbon atom in graphite is bonded to three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.
Q13In a metal, the atoms are held together by:
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Correct: (A)
Metallic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons.
Q14Nanoparticles have diameters approximately between:
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Correct: (B)
Nanoparticles are between 1 nm and 100 nm in size, containing only a few hundred atoms.
Q15Which substance has a low boiling point because of weak intermolecular forces between its molecules?
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Correct: (D)
Methane is a simple molecule; only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome to boil it, so its boiling point is low.
⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry
Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
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Correct: (C)
Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.
Q17How many moles are there in 8.0 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)
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Correct: (C)
Moles = mass / Mr = 8.0 / 16 = 0.50 mol.
Q185.0 g of calcium carbonate (Mr = 100) is heated until it fully decomposes: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide (Mr = 44) is produced?
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Correct: (B)
Moles of CaCO3 = 5.0 / 100 = 0.050 mol, so moles of CO2 = 0.050; mass = 0.050 × 44 = 2.2 g.
Q19A solution contains 0.50 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?
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Correct: (D)
250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3; concentration = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.
Q20In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 45 g but only 36 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (A)
Percentage yield = (36 / 45) × 100 = 80%.
Q21For the reaction CaCO3 → CaO + CO2, what is the atom economy for making CaO? (Mr: CaO = 56, CaCO3 = 100)
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Correct: (B)
Atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.
Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at RTP)
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Correct: (C)
Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.
🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes
Q23A solution has a pH of 2. This solution is:
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Correct: (D)
A pH of 2 is well below 7, showing a strongly acidic solution with a high concentration of H^+ ions.
Q24When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate, the products are:
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Correct: (A)
Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.
Q25Copper oxide is added to warm sulfuric acid until no more reacts. What is the salt formed?
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Correct: (C)
Sulfuric acid forms sulfate salts; copper oxide + sulfuric acid → copper sulfate + water.
Q26Which metal does NOT react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (B)
Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from the acid.
Q27Aqueous copper sulfate is electrolysed using inert graphite electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so copper ions are discharged at the cathode and copper metal forms.
Q28Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed. What is formed at the positive electrode (anode)?
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Correct: (D)
Bromide ions are discharged at the positive electrode, forming bromine. Lead forms at the negative electrode.
Q29A gas is tested with a lit splint and gives a squeaky pop. The gas is:
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Correct: (C)
Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lit splint is held at the mouth of the tube.
Q30Zinc is added to blue copper sulfate solution and the blue colour fades. This is because:
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Correct: (B)
Zinc is higher in the reactivity series, so it displaces copper: zinc + copper sulfate → zinc sulfate + copper.
🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes
Q31Which of the following reactions is exothermic?
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Correct: (A)
Combustion releases energy to the surroundings, so it is exothermic; the others take in energy.
Q32On an energy (reaction) profile, the activation energy is:
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Correct: (D)
The activation energy is the minimum energy particles must have for a reaction to occur, measured from the reactant level to the top of the profile.
Q33Using bond energies (H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol), calculate the energy change for: H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.
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Correct: (C)
Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.
Q34What is the overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell?
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Correct: (B)
In a hydrogen fuel cell hydrogen is oxidised to form water only: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.
Q35During a reaction the temperature of the mixture falls from 22 °C to 15 °C. The reaction is:
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Correct: (D)
A fall in temperature shows energy has been taken in from the surroundings, so the reaction is endothermic.
⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change
Q36Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because:
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Correct: (B)
At higher temperatures particles move faster, collide more often and a greater proportion of collisions have enough energy to react.
Q37A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by:
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing a different pathway, and it is not used up.
Q38Which method could be used to measure the rate of a reaction that produces a gas?
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Correct: (C)
Collecting the gas in a syringe or over water and recording the volume at regular intervals gives the rate of the reaction.
Q39A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Mean rate = volume of gas / time = 90 / 30 = 3.0 cm^3/s.
Q40In a system at dynamic equilibrium:
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Correct: (A)
At equilibrium the forward and reverse reactions continue at the same rate, so the concentrations stay constant. Equilibrium requires a closed system.
Q41Ammonia is made in the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. Increasing the pressure will:
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Correct: (C)
There are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 moles on the right, so higher pressure favours the forward reaction, which produces fewer gas molecules.
🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry
Q42Crude oil is separated into useful fractions by:
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Correct: (B)
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into fractions according to their different boiling points.
Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?
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Correct: (D)
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.
Q44Ethene quickly decolourises bromine water because ethene:
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Correct: (A)
The C=C double bond in ethene opens up and bromine atoms add on, removing the orange colour of the bromine water.
Q45The products of the complete combustion of propane are:
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Correct: (C)
With a plentiful supply of oxygen, a hydrocarbon burns completely to give carbon dioxide and water.
Q46Ethanol can be produced industrially by reacting ethene with:
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Correct: (B)
Ethene reacts with steam at high temperature and pressure, with a catalyst, to form ethanol (hydration).
Q47Poly(ethene) is manufactured from ethene by:
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Correct: (D)
In addition polymerisation the double bonds in many ethene monomers open up and join together to form the polymer; no other product is formed.
🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis
Q48A pure substance can be recognised from its melting point because a pure substance:
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Correct: (A)
Pure substances melt and boil at specific temperatures; impurities lower the melting point and make it melt over a range.
Q49In a chromatography experiment a dye moves 6.0 cm and the solvent front moves 15.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?
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Correct: (C)
Rf = distance moved by the dye / distance moved by the solvent = 6.0 / 15.0 = 0.40.
Q50Which is the correct test for chlorine gas?
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Correct: (B)
Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper, turning it white.
Q51A flame test on a compound containing potassium ions gives a flame colour of:
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Correct: (D)
Potassium compounds give a lilac flame in a flame test.
🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere
Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere today is nitrogen?
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Correct: (C)
The atmosphere is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and small amounts of other gases including carbon dioxide.
Q53Which of the following gases is a greenhouse gas?
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Correct: (A)
Methane absorbs long wavelength radiation from the Earth and keeps the surface warm; carbon dioxide and water vapour are also greenhouse gases.
Q54Carbon monoxide is a dangerous gas because it:
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Correct: (D)
Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin in red blood cells, preventing oxygen from being transported around the body.
Q55Sulfur dioxide released when fossil fuels burn is a major cause of:
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Correct: (B)
Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages buildings, trees and aquatic life.
♻ Topic 10: Using Resources
Q56Which processes are used to make fresh water potable (safe to drink)?
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Correct: (D)
Fresh water is filtered to remove insoluble solids and then sterilised, for example with chlorine, to kill microbes.
Q57Phytomining is used to extract metals from low-grade ores. It involves:
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Correct: (A)
In phytomining, plants take up metal compounds through their roots; the harvested plants are burned and the metal is extracted from the ash.
Q58Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?
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Correct: (B)
The Haber process uses a compromise temperature of about 450 °C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst.
Q59A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product considers:
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Correct: (C)
An LCA assesses the environmental impact of every stage of a product's life, from obtaining raw materials to its final disposal.
Q60Recycling aluminium is important because it:
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Correct: (A)
Recycling aluminium uses far less energy than electrolysis of bauxite and conserves the ore and fossil fuels.
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