GCSE Chemistry Practice Test 1

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all 10 topics of the GCSE Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), Foundation & Higher tier.

Note: These are original practice questions written in GCSE exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real GCSE Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 10 GCSE topics: atomic structure & the periodic table, bonding & structure, quantitative chemistry, chemical changes, energy changes, rate & equilibrium, organic chemistry, chemical analysis, the atmosphere, and using resources.

⚛ Topic 1: Atomic Structure & the Periodic Table

Q1Which subatomic particle is found in shells around the nucleus and has a relative charge of -1?

(A) proton
(B) neutron
(C) electron
(D) ion
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Electrons are arranged in shells around the nucleus; they have a relative charge of -1 and a very small relative mass.

Q2An atom of sodium has atomic number 11 and mass number 23. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 23
(D) 34
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 23 – 11 = 12.

Q3What is the electronic structure of an aluminium atom (atomic number 13)?

(A) 2,8,1
(B) 2,11
(C) 2,8,2
(D) 2,8,3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Aluminium has 13 electrons: 2 in the first shell, 8 in the second and 3 in the third shell.

Q4Isotopes of the same element have:

(A) the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons
(B) the same number of neutrons but a different number of protons
(C) a different number of protons and neutrons
(D) the same mass number but different chemical properties
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Isotopes have the same atomic number (protons) but different mass numbers because they contain different numbers of neutrons.

Q5Which element is in Group 2 and Period 3 of the periodic table?

(A) beryllium
(B) magnesium
(C) calcium
(D) sodium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Magnesium is the Group 2 element in the third row (Period 3) of the periodic table.

Q6Mendeleev's periodic table was accepted by scientists partly because he:

(A) discovered the electron
(B) arranged the elements by atomic number
(C) included the noble gases
(D) left gaps and predicted the properties of undiscovered elements
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mendeleev left gaps for elements not yet discovered, and his predictions of their properties were later shown to be correct.

Q7Why are the Group 0 noble gases very unreactive?

(A) They have a full outer electron shell
(B) They have no electrons
(C) They have equal numbers of protons and neutrons
(D) They are all metals
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Noble gas atoms have a stable, full outer shell of electrons, so they do not need to gain, lose or share electrons.

Q8A sample of chlorine contains 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. What is the relative atomic mass of chlorine?

(A) 35.0
(B) 36.0
(C) 35.5
(D) 37.0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ar = (75 × 35 + 25 × 37) / 100 = (2625 + 925) / 100 = 35.5.

🔗 Topic 2: Bonding, Structure & Properties

Q9Which statement about ionic compounds is correct?

(A) They have low melting points
(B) They conduct electricity when molten but not when solid
(C) They consist of small molecules
(D) They conduct electricity as solids
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a solid the ions are locked in a lattice and cannot move; when molten the ions are free to move and carry charge.

Q10A covalent bond is formed when atoms:

(A) share pairs of electrons
(B) transfer electrons from metals to non-metals
(C) lose protons
(D) share neutrons
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons between two atoms.

Q11Diamond is very hard because:

(A) it has weak forces between its molecules
(B) it contains free electrons
(C) its ions are arranged in layers that slide
(D) each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a giant structure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Diamond has a giant covalent structure in which every carbon atom is bonded to four others, making it extremely hard.

Q12Graphite conducts electricity because:

(A) it contains metal ions
(B) its layers can slide over each other
(C) it has delocalised electrons that can move through the structure
(D) it is an ionic compound
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each carbon atom in graphite is bonded to three others, leaving one delocalised electron per atom that can carry charge.

Q13In a metal, the atoms are held together by:

(A) attraction between positive metal ions and a sea of delocalised electrons
(B) shared pairs of electrons between two atoms
(C) weak intermolecular forces
(D) forces between molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Metallic bonding is the strong electrostatic attraction between positive ions and delocalised electrons.

Q14Nanoparticles have diameters approximately between:

(A) 1 and 10 mm
(B) 1 and 100 nm
(C) 100 and 1000 nm
(D) 1 and 100 cm
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nanoparticles are between 1 nm and 100 nm in size, containing only a few hundred atoms.

Q15Which substance has a low boiling point because of weak intermolecular forces between its molecules?

(A) diamond
(B) sodium chloride
(C) iron
(D) methane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Methane is a simple molecule; only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome to boil it, so its boiling point is low.

⚖ Topic 3: Quantitative Chemistry

Q16What is the relative formula mass (Mr) of calcium carbonate, CaCO3? (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

(A) 68
(B) 96
(C) 100
(D) 120
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mr = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100.

Q17How many moles are there in 8.0 g of methane, CH4? (Mr of CH4 = 16)

(A) 2.0 mol
(B) 128 mol
(C) 0.50 mol
(D) 0.05 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = mass / Mr = 8.0 / 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q185.0 g of calcium carbonate (Mr = 100) is heated until it fully decomposes: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2. What mass of carbon dioxide (Mr = 44) is produced?

(A) 1.1 g
(B) 2.2 g
(C) 4.4 g
(D) 5.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of CaCO3 = 5.0 / 100 = 0.050 mol, so moles of CO2 = 0.050; mass = 0.050 × 44 = 2.2 g.

Q19A solution contains 0.50 mol of solute dissolved in 250 cm^3 of solution. What is its concentration in mol/dm^3?

(A) 0.50 mol/dm^3
(B) 1.0 mol/dm^3
(C) 0.20 mol/dm^3
(D) 2.0 mol/dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

250 cm^3 = 0.250 dm^3; concentration = 0.50 / 0.250 = 2.0 mol/dm^3.

Q20In an experiment the theoretical yield of a product is 45 g but only 36 g is obtained. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 80%
(B) 125%
(C) 90%
(D) 75%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percentage yield = (36 / 45) × 100 = 80%.

Q21For the reaction CaCO3 → CaO + CO2, what is the atom economy for making CaO? (Mr: CaO = 56, CaCO3 = 100)

(A) 44%
(B) 56%
(C) 100%
(D) 28%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Atom economy = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.

Q22What volume does 0.25 mol of a gas occupy at room temperature and pressure? (One mole of gas occupies 24 dm^3 at RTP)

(A) 96 dm^3
(B) 12 dm^3
(C) 6 dm^3
(D) 24 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Volume = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm^3.

🧪 Topic 4: Chemical Changes

Q23A solution has a pH of 2. This solution is:

(A) a weak alkali
(B) neutral
(C) a weak acid
(D) a strong acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A pH of 2 is well below 7, showing a strongly acidic solution with a high concentration of H^+ ions.

Q24When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate, the products are:

(A) a salt, water and carbon dioxide
(B) a salt and hydrogen
(C) a salt only
(D) a salt, water and oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Acid + metal carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide.

Q25Copper oxide is added to warm sulfuric acid until no more reacts. What is the salt formed?

(A) copper nitrate
(B) copper chloride
(C) copper sulfate
(D) copper carbonate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Sulfuric acid forms sulfate salts; copper oxide + sulfuric acid → copper sulfate + water.

Q26Which metal does NOT react with dilute hydrochloric acid?

(A) magnesium
(B) copper
(C) zinc
(D) iron
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Copper is below hydrogen in the reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from the acid.

Q27Aqueous copper sulfate is electrolysed using inert graphite electrodes. What is formed at the negative electrode (cathode)?

(A) copper
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is less reactive than hydrogen, so copper ions are discharged at the cathode and copper metal forms.

Q28Molten lead(II) bromide is electrolysed. What is formed at the positive electrode (anode)?

(A) lead
(B) hydrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) bromine
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bromide ions are discharged at the positive electrode, forming bromine. Lead forms at the negative electrode.

Q29A gas is tested with a lit splint and gives a squeaky pop. The gas is:

(A) oxygen
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) hydrogen
(D) chlorine
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Hydrogen burns with a squeaky pop when a lit splint is held at the mouth of the tube.

Q30Zinc is added to blue copper sulfate solution and the blue colour fades. This is because:

(A) copper displaces zinc from its compounds
(B) zinc is more reactive than copper and displaces it
(C) no reaction takes place
(D) zinc is less reactive than copper
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zinc is higher in the reactivity series, so it displaces copper: zinc + copper sulfate → zinc sulfate + copper.

🔥 Topic 5: Energy Changes

Q31Which of the following reactions is exothermic?

(A) The combustion of methane
(B) The thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate
(C) Photosynthesis
(D) The melting of ice
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Combustion releases energy to the surroundings, so it is exothermic; the others take in energy.

Q32On an energy (reaction) profile, the activation energy is:

(A) the energy released by the reaction
(B) the difference in energy between the products and the reactants
(C) the total energy of the products
(D) the energy needed to start the reaction, shown by the height from the reactants to the peak of the curve
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The activation energy is the minimum energy particles must have for a reaction to occur, measured from the reactant level to the top of the profile.

Q33Using bond energies (H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol), calculate the energy change for: H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl.

(A) +184 kJ/mol
(B) -67 kJ/mol
(C) -184 kJ/mol
(D) +862 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Energy to break bonds = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; energy released forming bonds = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ; overall change = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ/mol.

Q34What is the overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cell?

(A) hydrogen + nitrogen → ammonia
(B) hydrogen + oxygen → water
(C) methane + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water
(D) zinc + sulfuric acid → zinc sulfate + hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a hydrogen fuel cell hydrogen is oxidised to form water only: 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.

Q35During a reaction the temperature of the mixture falls from 22 °C to 15 °C. The reaction is:

(A) exothermic
(B) a combustion reaction
(C) a neutralisation reaction
(D) endothermic
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A fall in temperature shows energy has been taken in from the surroundings, so the reaction is endothermic.

⏱ Topic 6: Rate & Extent of Chemical Change

Q36Increasing the temperature increases the rate of a reaction because:

(A) the particles collide less often
(B) the particles have more energy, so more collisions are successful
(C) the activation energy increases
(D) the concentration of the reactants decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At higher temperatures particles move faster, collide more often and a greater proportion of collisions have enough energy to react.

Q37A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by:

(A) providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(B) giving the particles more energy
(C) increasing the concentration of the reactants
(D) being used up during the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy by providing a different pathway, and it is not used up.

Q38Which method could be used to measure the rate of a reaction that produces a gas?

(A) Watching for a colour change in an indicator
(B) Measuring the pH at the end of the reaction
(C) Measuring the volume of gas collected over time
(D) Titrating the final mixture
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Collecting the gas in a syringe or over water and recording the volume at regular intervals gives the rate of the reaction.

Q39A reaction produces 90 cm^3 of gas in 30 seconds. What is the mean rate of reaction?

(A) 0.33 cm^3/s
(B) 30 cm^3/s
(C) 2700 cm^3/s
(D) 3.0 cm^3/s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mean rate = volume of gas / time = 90 / 30 = 3.0 cm^3/s.

Q40In a system at dynamic equilibrium:

(A) the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal
(B) both reactions have stopped
(C) the concentrations of reactants and products are always equal
(D) only the forward reaction takes place
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At equilibrium the forward and reverse reactions continue at the same rate, so the concentrations stay constant. Equilibrium requires a closed system.

Q41Ammonia is made in the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3. Increasing the pressure will:

(A) shift the equilibrium to the left
(B) have no effect on the position of equilibrium
(C) shift the equilibrium to the right, towards the side with fewer gas molecules
(D) stop the reaction completely
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

There are 4 moles of gas on the left and 2 moles on the right, so higher pressure favours the forward reaction, which produces fewer gas molecules.




🛢 Topic 7: Organic Chemistry

Q42Crude oil is separated into useful fractions by:

(A) cracking
(B) fractional distillation
(C) filtration
(D) electrolysis
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fractional distillation separates crude oil into fractions according to their different boiling points.

Q43What is the general formula of the alkanes?

(A) CnH2n
(B) CnHn
(C) CnH2n-2
(D) CnH2n+2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with the general formula CnH2n+2.

Q44Ethene quickly decolourises bromine water because ethene:

(A) is unsaturated and reacts by addition across its double bond
(B) is a saturated hydrocarbon
(C) is an acid
(D) is an alkali
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The C=C double bond in ethene opens up and bromine atoms add on, removing the orange colour of the bromine water.

Q45The products of the complete combustion of propane are:

(A) carbon and water
(B) carbon monoxide and water
(C) carbon dioxide and water
(D) carbon dioxide only
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

With a plentiful supply of oxygen, a hydrocarbon burns completely to give carbon dioxide and water.

Q46Ethanol can be produced industrially by reacting ethene with:

(A) oxygen
(B) steam
(C) hydrogen
(D) bromine
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ethene reacts with steam at high temperature and pressure, with a catalyst, to form ethanol (hydration).

Q47Poly(ethene) is manufactured from ethene by:

(A) condensation polymerisation
(B) cracking
(C) combustion
(D) addition polymerisation
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In addition polymerisation the double bonds in many ethene monomers open up and join together to form the polymer; no other product is formed.

🔬 Topic 8: Chemical Analysis

Q48A pure substance can be recognised from its melting point because a pure substance:

(A) melts sharply at one specific temperature
(B) melts over a wide range of temperatures
(C) has no melting point
(D) always melts above 100 °C
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Pure substances melt and boil at specific temperatures; impurities lower the melting point and make it melt over a range.

Q49In a chromatography experiment a dye moves 6.0 cm and the solvent front moves 15.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the dye?

(A) 2.5
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.40
(D) 9.0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rf = distance moved by the dye / distance moved by the solvent = 6.0 / 15.0 = 0.40.

Q50Which is the correct test for chlorine gas?

(A) It turns limewater milky
(B) It bleaches damp litmus paper
(C) It relights a glowing splint
(D) It gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chlorine bleaches damp litmus paper, turning it white.

Q51A flame test on a compound containing potassium ions gives a flame colour of:

(A) yellow
(B) crimson
(C) green
(D) lilac
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Potassium compounds give a lilac flame in a flame test.

🌍 Topic 9: Chemistry of the Atmosphere

Q52Approximately what percentage of the Earth's atmosphere today is nitrogen?

(A) 21%
(B) 0.04%
(C) 78%
(D) 50%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The atmosphere is about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and small amounts of other gases including carbon dioxide.

Q53Which of the following gases is a greenhouse gas?

(A) methane
(B) nitrogen
(C) oxygen
(D) argon
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Methane absorbs long wavelength radiation from the Earth and keeps the surface warm; carbon dioxide and water vapour are also greenhouse gases.

Q54Carbon monoxide is a dangerous gas because it:

(A) causes acid rain
(B) destroys the ozone layer
(C) is highly acidic
(D) binds strongly to haemoglobin and reduces the amount of oxygen carried by the blood
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin in red blood cells, preventing oxygen from being transported around the body.

Q55Sulfur dioxide released when fossil fuels burn is a major cause of:

(A) global dimming only
(B) acid rain
(C) eutrophication of rivers
(D) oxygen depletion in the oceans
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur dioxide dissolves in rainwater to form acid rain, which damages buildings, trees and aquatic life.

♻ Topic 10: Using Resources

Q56Which processes are used to make fresh water potable (safe to drink)?

(A) distillation only
(B) electrolysis and chlorination
(C) cracking and filtration
(D) filtration and sterilisation
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Fresh water is filtered to remove insoluble solids and then sterilised, for example with chlorine, to kill microbes.

Q57Phytomining is used to extract metals from low-grade ores. It involves:

(A) growing plants in metal-rich ground so the plants absorb metal compounds, then burning the plants
(B) using bacteria to dissolve the metal compounds
(C) electrolysing the molten ore
(D) heating the ore with carbon in a furnace
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In phytomining, plants take up metal compounds through their roots; the harvested plants are burned and the metal is extracted from the ash.

Q58Which set of conditions is used in the Haber process?

(A) 25 °C and 1 atmosphere
(B) 450 °C, 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst
(C) 1000 °C and no catalyst
(D) 450 °C and 1 atmosphere
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The Haber process uses a compromise temperature of about 450 °C, a pressure of 200 atmospheres and an iron catalyst.

Q59A life cycle assessment (LCA) of a product considers:

(A) only the manufacturing stage
(B) only how the product is disposed of
(C) extracting raw materials, manufacture, use and disposal
(D) only the transport of the product
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An LCA assesses the environmental impact of every stage of a product's life, from obtaining raw materials to its final disposal.

Q60Recycling aluminium is important because it:

(A) saves energy and conserves resources compared with extracting new aluminium
(B) uses more energy than extracting aluminium from its ore
(C) increases the amount of waste sent to landfill
(D) has no environmental benefit
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Recycling aluminium uses far less energy than electrolysis of bauxite and conserves the ore and fossil fuels.