AQA | EDEXCEL | OCR
GCSE Chemistry Practice Questions
Original exam-style questions with detailed answer explanations — written for each board’s specification.
How to use these: Attempt each question before reading the answer. Then check the explanation to understand exactly how marks are awarded. Questions are grouped by exam board and paper.
AQA GCSE Chemistry (8462)
Paper 1: Topics 1-5 | Paper 2: Topics 6-10
Paper 1 Practice
Q1. A sample of magnesium contains 79% magnesium-24, 10% magnesium-25 and 11% magnesium-26. Calculate the relative atomic mass of magnesium. Give your answer to 1 decimal place. [3 marks]
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Answer: 24.3
Explanation: Multiply each isotope mass by its percentage abundance, add them, then divide by 100: (24 x 79) + (25 x 10) + (26 x 11) = 1896 + 250 + 286 = 2432. Then 2432 / 100 = 24.32, which rounds to 24.3. One mark for the method, one for the correct working, one for the final answer to 1 decimal place.
Q2. Explain, in terms of structure and bonding, why diamond is hard but graphite is soft. [4 marks]
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Answer: Diamond: each carbon forms 4 strong covalent bonds in a rigid tetrahedral lattice — no weak layers to slide, so very hard. Graphite: carbon atoms form layers of hexagons with weak intermolecular forces between layers — layers slide easily, so soft and slippery.
Explanation: Award marks for: (1) diamond has 4 covalent bonds per carbon in 3D lattice, (2) this rigid structure resists scratching, (3) graphite has layered hexagonal structure, (4) weak forces between layers allow sliding. The key contrast is strong covalent bonds throughout vs weak forces between layers.
Q3. 6.5 g of zinc reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid. Calculate the mass of zinc chloride produced. (Relative atomic masses: Zn = 65, Cl = 35.5) [4 marks]
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Answer: 13.6 g
Explanation: Equation: Zn + 2HCl –> ZnCl2 + H2. Moles of Zn = 6.5 / 65 = 0.1 mol. Mole ratio Zn : ZnCl2 = 1:1, so 0.1 mol ZnCl2 formed. Mr of ZnCl2 = 65 + (2 x 35.5) = 136. Mass = 0.1 x 136 = 13.6 g. Marks for: moles of zinc, Mr of product, mole ratio, final mass.
Q4. When sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, hydrogen is produced at the negative electrode. Explain why hydrogen forms rather than sodium. [3 marks]
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Answer: Both Na+ and H+ (from water) are attracted to the negative electrode. Hydrogen is discharged because it is less reactive than sodium — sodium is too reactive to be discharged from aqueous solution, so H+ gains electrons instead: 2H+ + 2e- –> H2.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) both ions present at cathode, (2) hydrogen discharged due to reactivity series position, (3) correct half equation. The rule: if the metal is more reactive than hydrogen, hydrogen is produced at the cathode.
Paper 2 Practice
Q5. A student investigates how temperature affects the rate of reaction between marble chips and hydrochloric acid. Describe how the student could measure the rate, and explain the effect of increasing temperature using collision theory. [5 marks]
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Answer: Measure volume of CO2 produced per unit time using a gas syringe. Higher temperature increases rate because particles have more kinetic energy, move faster, collide more frequently and a greater proportion have energy above the activation energy — so more successful collisions per second.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) gas syringe / volume-time method, (2) particles gain kinetic energy, (3) more frequent collisions, (4) more particles exceed activation energy, (5) more successful collisions per unit time. Collision theory answers need both frequency AND energy points.
Q6. Ethene can be produced by cracking decane (C10H22). Write a balanced equation for the cracking of decane to form ethene and one other product. [2 marks]
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Answer: C10H22 –> C2H4 + C8H18
Explanation: Cracking breaks a long alkane into a shorter alkene and a shorter alkane. Carbon atoms must balance (2 + 8 = 10) and hydrogen atoms must balance (4 + 18 = 22). One mark for correct products, one for balancing. Any valid combination totalling C10H22 is accepted.
Q7. Describe how to carry out a flame test to identify the metal ion in an unknown compound, and state the flame colours for lithium, sodium and potassium ions. [4 marks]
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Answer: Clean a nichrome wire in concentrated HCl, dip in the sample, hold in a blue Bunsen flame and observe the colour. Lithium: crimson red. Sodium: yellow/orange. Potassium: lilac.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) cleaning wire in acid, (2) Bunsen flame method, (3-4) two or three correct flame colours. All three colours needed for full marks. Common error: using a platinum wire — nichrome is standard.
Q8. Explain why the proportion of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased since the industrial revolution, and describe one environmental consequence. [4 marks]
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Answer: Increased combustion of fossil fuels releases CO2. Deforestation reduces CO2 removal by photosynthesis. Consequence: enhanced greenhouse effect leading to global warming, causing sea-level rise / extreme weather / habitat loss.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) fossil fuel combustion, (2) deforestation / reduced photosynthesis, (3) greenhouse effect mechanism, (4) specific consequence. Link the cause to the effect clearly — vague “pollution” answers score poorly.
Edexcel GCSE Chemistry (1CH0)
Paper 1: Topics 1-5 | Paper 2: Topics 6-9
Paper 1 Practice
Q1. Mendeleev arranged elements in order of atomic mass but left gaps in his table. Explain why he left gaps and how this demonstrated the usefulness of his periodic table. [3 marks]
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Answer: He left gaps for undiscovered elements. He predicted their properties based on position in the table. When these elements were later discovered with matching properties, it proved his arrangement was correct.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) gaps for unknown elements, (2) predicted properties, (3) later discovery confirmed predictions. This is a classic “how science works” question — the key idea is prediction followed by verification.
Q2. Draw a dot-and-cross diagram to show the bonding in a molecule of ammonia (NH3). [3 marks]
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Answer: Nitrogen (5 outer electrons) shares one electron with each of three hydrogen atoms, forming three single covalent bonds. Nitrogen retains one lone pair. Each hydrogen has 2 electrons (full shell); nitrogen has 8 (octet).
Explanation: Marks for: (1) three shared pairs shown correctly, (2) lone pair on nitrogen, (3) correct electron counts (H=2, N=8). Use dots for one atom and crosses for the other to distinguish electron origin.
Q3. In a titration, 25.0 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution required 20.0 cm3 of 0.100 mol/dm3 hydrochloric acid for neutralisation. Calculate the concentration of the sodium hydroxide solution. [4 marks]
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Answer: 0.0800 mol/dm3
Explanation: Moles HCl = 0.100 x (20.0/1000) = 0.00200 mol. Equation NaOH + HCl –> NaCl + H2O gives 1:1 ratio, so moles NaOH = 0.00200 mol. Concentration = 0.00200 / (25.0/1000) = 0.0800 mol/dm3. Marks for: moles of acid, mole ratio, volume conversion, final concentration.
Q4. A reactivity series lists metals from most to least reactive. Explain why aluminium, despite being high in the reactivity series, appears unreactive in air. [3 marks]
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Answer: Aluminium reacts with oxygen to form a thin, tough layer of aluminium oxide on its surface. This oxide layer is unreactive and prevents further reaction — it acts as a protective barrier.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) oxide layer forms, (2) layer is protective / prevents further reaction, (3) explains the apparent contradiction with its reactivity series position. Key term: “protective oxide layer”.
Paper 2 Practice
Q5. Explain why increasing the surface area of a solid reactant increases the rate of reaction. [3 marks]
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Answer: Greater surface area exposes more reactant particles to collisions. This increases the frequency of collisions between reactant particles, so there are more successful collisions per second and the rate increases.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) more particles exposed, (2) increased collision frequency, (3) more successful collisions per unit time. Note: surface area affects frequency, NOT energy — do not mention activation energy here.
Q6. Propene (C3H6) reacts with bromine. Name the type of reaction and draw the displayed formula of the product. [3 marks]
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Answer: Addition reaction. Product: CH2Br-CHBr-CH3 (1,2-dibromopropane). The Br-Br bond breaks and each bromine adds across the C=C double bond, which becomes a single bond.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) “addition” named, (2) correct product structure, (3) displayed formula showing all bonds. The orange bromine decolourises — a classic test for alkenes.
Q7. Describe the test for carbon dioxide gas and state the positive result. [2 marks]
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Answer: Bubble the gas through limewater (calcium hydroxide solution). Positive result: limewater turns milky/cloudy white.
Explanation: One mark for limewater, one for “milky”. The cloudiness is calcium carbonate precipitate: CO2 + Ca(OH)2 –> CaCO3 + H2O. With excess CO2 the milkiness disappears — a common follow-up question.
Q8. Poly(ethene) is a polymer made from ethene. Explain why poly(ethene) is non-biodegradable and describe one environmental problem this causes. [4 marks]
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Answer: Poly(ethene) has long chains of strong C-C single bonds that microorganisms cannot break down — no enzymes exist to digest it. Problem: accumulates in landfill taking up space, or enters oceans harming marine life.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) long hydrocarbon chains / strong bonds, (2) microorganisms lack enzymes to break them, (3) specific environmental problem, (4) elaboration. Link structure to property to environmental impact.
OCR GCSE Chemistry A – Gateway (J248)
Papers 1-2: Topics C1-C3 | Papers 3-4: Topics C4-C6
Topics C1-C3 Practice
Q1. Describe how the plum pudding model of the atom was replaced by the nuclear model. Include the evidence from the alpha particle scattering experiment. [4 marks]
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Answer: Rutherford fired alpha particles at thin gold foil. Most passed straight through, some deflected, a few bounced back. This showed: atoms are mostly empty space (passed through), with a small dense positively charged nucleus (deflection/bounce-back) — contradicting the plum pudding model’s uniform positive charge.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) experimental set-up, (2) observations, (3) empty space conclusion, (4) nucleus conclusion. Link each observation to its conclusion — this “evidence to model” reasoning is what examiners reward.
Q2. Explain why solid sodium chloride does not conduct electricity but molten sodium chloride does. [3 marks]
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Answer: In solid NaCl, ions are locked in a fixed lattice and cannot move to carry charge. When molten, the lattice breaks down and ions are free to move towards oppositely charged electrodes, conducting electricity.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) ions fixed in solid lattice, (2) ions free/mobile when molten, (3) moving ions carry charge. The key principle: conductivity requires mobile charged particles.
Q3. 12.0 g of magnesium is burned in oxygen to form magnesium oxide. The actual mass of magnesium oxide obtained is 18.0 g. Calculate the percentage yield. (Relative atomic masses: Mg = 24, O = 16) [4 marks]
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Answer: 90%
Explanation: Moles Mg = 12.0/24 = 0.50 mol. Equation 2Mg + O2 –> 2MgO gives 1:1 ratio, so 0.50 mol MgO. Mr MgO = 24 + 16 = 40. Theoretical mass = 0.50 x 40 = 20.0 g. Percentage yield = (18.0/20.0) x 100 = 90%. Marks for: moles, theoretical mass, formula, final percentage.
Q4. A student adds universal indicator to three solutions. Solution A turns red, B turns green and C turns purple. Identify each solution as acidic, neutral or alkaline, and state the pH range for solution A. [3 marks]
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Answer: A: acidic (pH 1-3). B: neutral (pH 7). C: alkaline (pH 8-14).
Explanation: One mark per correct identification. Red = strongly acidic, green = neutral, purple = strongly alkaline. Remember: universal indicator gives a spectrum — red/orange/yellow (acid), green (neutral), blue/purple (alkali).
Topics C4-C6 Practice
Q5. A student measures the rate of the reaction between calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid by following the loss in mass. Explain why the mass decreases, and sketch the shape of the mass-time graph. [4 marks]
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Answer: Mass decreases because CO2 gas escapes from the flask. The graph starts steep (fast rate, high reactant concentration), curves, then levels off horizontal when the reaction finishes (one reactant used up).
Explanation: Marks for: (1) gas escapes, (2) steep initial gradient, (3) curve flattening, (4) horizontal at end with reason. The gradient of the curve at any point equals the rate — steepest at the start.
Q6. Crude oil is separated by fractional distillation. Explain how the process separates hydrocarbons with different chain lengths. [4 marks]
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Answer: Crude oil is vaporised and fed into a fractionating column with a temperature gradient (hot at bottom, cool at top). Long-chain hydrocarbons have high boiling points and condense near the bottom; short chains rise higher before condensing. Each fraction is collected at its condensation level.
Explanation: Marks for: (1) vaporisation, (2) temperature gradient, (3) boiling point linked to chain length, (4) condensation at different levels. Key link: longer chains = stronger intermolecular forces = higher boiling point.
Q7. A chromatogram of a food dye shows three spots. The solvent front travelled 8.0 cm. The spots travelled 2.0 cm, 4.8 cm and 6.4 cm. Calculate the Rf value of the middle spot. [2 marks]
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Answer: 0.60
Explanation: Rf = distance moved by spot / distance moved by solvent = 4.8 / 8.0 = 0.60. One mark for the formula/substitution, one for the answer. Rf has no units and is always between 0 and 1.
Q8. Evaluate the use of nanoparticles in sun creams. Include one benefit and one risk in your answer. [4 marks]
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Answer: Benefit: nanoparticles (e.g. titanium dioxide) block UV effectively while remaining transparent — no white residue. Risk: particles are so small they may penetrate skin cells; long-term health effects unknown.
Explanation: “Evaluate” requires balanced argument: (1-2) benefit with explanation, (3-4) risk with explanation. High surface-area-to-volume ratio is the key property — link it to both the benefit (effective UV blocking) and the risk (cell penetration).
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