GCSE Biology Practice Test 17 – 60 Questions with Answers (AQA 8461)

Attempt every question in order and use the answer explanations to strengthen any weaker topics.

Cell biology

Q1. Which microscope type provides the greatest magnification and resolution?

  • (A) An electron microscope
  • (B) A light microscope
  • (C) A magnifying glass
  • (D) A telescope
Show Answer

Answer: A – Electron microscopes use electrons and give far higher magnification and resolution than light microscopes.

Q2. During mitosis, how many daughter cells are produced from one parent cell?

  • (A) Four genetically different cells
  • (B) Two genetically identical cells
  • (C) One cell with double the chromosomes
  • (D) Two genetically different cells
Show Answer

Answer: B – Mitosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells for growth and repair.

Q3. Before a cell divides by mitosis, what happens to its DNA during interphase?

  • (A) It is halved
  • (B) It is broken into gametes
  • (C) It is copied so each daughter cell receives a full set
  • (D) It moves into the vacuole
Show Answer

Answer: C – DNA replication in interphase ensures each new cell gets a complete copy.

Q4. A human body cell normally contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each cell produced by mitosis from it?

  • (A) 23
  • (B) 92
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 46
Show Answer

Answer: D – Mitosis keeps the chromosome number the same, so each daughter cell has 46.

Q5. Which statement best describes a stem cell?

  • (A) An unspecialised cell that can divide and become specialised cells
  • (B) A cell that can only divide once
  • (C) A dead cell that supports a plant
  • (D) A cell found only in leaves
Show Answer

Answer: A – Stem cells are unspecialised and can differentiate into specialised cell types.

Q6. Where are meristems found in a plant?

  • (A) Inside seeds only
  • (B) At the tips of roots and shoots
  • (C) In the veins of leaves only
  • (D) In the centre of flowers only
Show Answer

Answer: B – Meristem tissue at root and shoot tips contains plant stem cells for growth.

Q7. Bone marrow stem cells in adults can develop into which type of cell?

  • (A) Nerve cells only
  • (B) Leaf cells
  • (C) Blood cells
  • (D) Muscle cells only in plants
Show Answer

Answer: C – Adult stem cells in bone marrow produce red and white blood cells.

Q8. Diffusion is best described as the movement of particles from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. What else is true of diffusion?

  • (A) It always needs a partially permeable membrane
  • (B) It only happens in liquids
  • (C) It moves particles against a concentration gradient
  • (D) It needs no energy from the cell
Show Answer

Answer: D – Diffusion is passive and spreads particles down a concentration gradient without cell energy.

Organisation

Q9. In the lock and key model, what fits into the active site of an enzyme?

  • (A) The substrate
  • (B) The product only
  • (C) Another enzyme
  • (D) A hormone
Show Answer

Answer: A – The substrate fits the specific shape of the active site.

Q10. Which organ pumps blood around the body?

  • (A) The liver
  • (B) The heart
  • (C) The lung
  • (D) The kidney
Show Answer

Answer: B – The heart is a muscular pump that circulates blood through the body.

Q11. Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?

  • (A) Veins
  • (B) Capillaries
  • (C) Arteries
  • (D) Lymph vessels
Show Answer

Answer: C – Arteries carry blood away from the heart, usually at high pressure.

Q12. Veins have valves. What is the purpose of these valves?

  • (A) To increase blood pressure
  • (B) To filter blood
  • (C) To carry oxygen only
  • (D) To prevent backflow of blood
Show Answer

Answer: D – Valves in veins stop blood flowing backwards as it returns to the heart.

Q13. Capillaries have very thin walls, one cell thick. Why is this an advantage?

  • (A) It allows rapid exchange of substances by diffusion
  • (B) It makes blood flow faster
  • (C) It prevents blood clotting
  • (D) It stores red blood cells
Show Answer

Answer: A – Thin capillary walls shorten the diffusion distance for oxygen, nutrients and waste.

Q14. Blood leaving which heart chamber travels to the lungs?

  • (A) The left ventricle
  • (B) The right ventricle
  • (C) The right atrium
  • (D) The left atrium
Show Answer

Answer: B – The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.

Q15. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the whole body?

  • (A) The right atrium
  • (B) The right ventricle
  • (C) The left ventricle
  • (D) The left atrium
Show Answer

Answer: C – The left ventricle has the thickest wall and pumps blood around the body.

Q16. The pulmonary vein carries blood from the lungs to which chamber?

  • (A) The right atrium
  • (B) The left ventricle
  • (C) The right ventricle
  • (D) The left atrium
Show Answer

Answer: D – The pulmonary vein returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium.

Infection and response

Q17. Phagocytes defend the body by doing what?

  • (A) Engulfing and digesting pathogens
  • (B) Producing antitoxins only
  • (C) Making red blood cells
  • (D) Blocking blood vessels
Show Answer

Answer: A – Phagocytes ingest pathogens and break them down with enzymes.

Q18. Antibodies are produced by which type of white blood cell?

  • (A) Red blood cells
  • (B) Lymphocytes
  • (C) Platelets
  • (D) Phagocytes
Show Answer

Answer: B – Lymphocytes produce specific antibodies that bind to antigens on pathogens.

Q19. An antibody is specific to one antigen. What does this mean?

  • (A) It kills all pathogens
  • (B) It works in any animal
  • (C) It only binds to the pathogen it was made for
  • (D) It lasts for one hour only
Show Answer

Answer: C – Each antibody shape matches one specific antigen.

Q20. After an infection, memory cells remain in the blood. What advantage do they give?

  • (A) Permanent immunity to all diseases
  • (B) More red blood cells
  • (C) Resistance to antibiotics
  • (D) A faster response if the same pathogen returns
Show Answer

Answer: D – Memory cells allow a rapid secondary immune response on reinfection.

Q21. Vaccination works by introducing a dead or weakened pathogen. What does this stimulate?

  • (A) Production of antibodies and memory cells without causing serious illness
  • (B) Production of antibiotics
  • (C) Direct killing of all bacteria
  • (D) Formation of blood clots
Show Answer

Answer: A – Vaccines trigger an immune response so memory cells are ready for the real pathogen.

Q22. Why is herd immunity important?

  • (A) It makes vaccines stronger
  • (B) It protects people who cannot be vaccinated because the disease spreads less
  • (C) It stops all mutations
  • (D) It replaces antibiotics
Show Answer

Answer: B – When most people are immune, a pathogen spreads rarely and vulnerable people are protected.

Q23. Antibiotics kill bacteria but have no effect on viruses. Why?

  • (A) Because viruses are too large
  • (B) Because viruses hide in the stomach
  • (C) Because antibiotics target bacterial structures that viruses do not have
  • (D) Because antibiotics only work in the lungs
Show Answer

Answer: C – Antibiotics disrupt bacterial cell walls or protein synthesis; viruses lack these targets.

Q24. A patient does not finish a course of antibiotics. Why is this a problem?

  • (A) The bacteria become viruses
  • (B) The patient becomes immune to all drugs
  • (C) Antibiotics become vaccines
  • (D) Resistant bacteria may survive and multiply
Show Answer

Answer: D – Stopping early can leave resistant bacteria alive to reproduce and spread.

Q25. Bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics are a growing problem. Which practice increases resistance?

  • (A) Overuse of antibiotics
  • (B) Using vaccines
  • (C) Washing hands
  • (D) Isolating patients
Show Answer

Answer: A – Overuse and misuse of antibiotics select for resistant strains.

Bioenergetics

Q26. Anaerobic respiration in yeast produces ethanol and which gas?

  • (A) Oxygen
  • (B) Carbon dioxide
  • (C) Nitrogen
  • (D) Hydrogen
Show Answer

Answer: B – Yeast fermentation produces ethanol and carbon dioxide, which makes bread rise.

Q27. Why does anaerobic respiration in muscles cause cramp and fatigue?

  • (A) Because oxygen builds up
  • (B) Because glucose runs out instantly
  • (C) Because lactic acid builds up in the muscles
  • (D) Because carbon dioxide is stored
Show Answer

Answer: C – Lactic acid accumulation causes muscle fatigue and pain during vigorous exercise.

Q28. After vigorous exercise, a person continues to breathe heavily. What is this extra oxygen used for?

  • (A) To make more lactic acid
  • (B) To store glucose in the lungs
  • (C) To cool the body only
  • (D) To break down lactic acid into carbon dioxide and water
Show Answer

Answer: D – Oxygen debt is repaid by oxidising lactic acid, which requires extra oxygen after exercise.

Q29. The oxygen debt after exercise is the amount of extra oxygen needed to do what?

  • (A) Remove lactic acid built up during anaerobic respiration
  • (B) Replace lost sweat
  • (C) Increase heart rate
  • (D) Make ethanol
Show Answer

Answer: A – Oxygen debt is the oxygen needed to oxidise lactic acid to carbon dioxide and water.

Q30. During exercise, heart rate and breathing rate increase. Why is this important?

  • (A) To reduce blood flow
  • (B) To supply more oxygen and glucose to muscles and remove carbon dioxide faster
  • (C) To store fat
  • (D) To slow respiration
Show Answer

Answer: B – Increased circulation delivers oxygen and glucose and removes waste products more quickly.


Q31. Metabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in the body. Which of these is a metabolic reaction?

  • (A) Breathing in air
  • (B) Chewing food
  • (C) Converting glucose into glycogen for storage
  • (D) Sweating
Show Answer

Answer: C – Metabolic reactions include building glycogen from glucose, breaking down molecules and synthesising proteins.

Q32. Excess glucose in the body can be converted into which storage substances?

  • (A) Protein and starch
  • (B) Cellulose and ethanol
  • (C) Lactic acid and urea
  • (D) Glycogen and fat
Show Answer

Answer: D – Surplus glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or converted to fat.

Q33. In plants, glucose made in photosynthesis can be converted into starch for storage. Why is starch a good storage molecule?

  • (A) It is insoluble, so it does not affect water movement by osmosis
  • (B) It dissolves easily in water
  • (C) It is sweet
  • (D) It releases oxygen
Show Answer

Answer: A – Insoluble starch does not draw water into cells by osmosis and can be stored compactly.

Q34. Plants also convert glucose into cellulose. What is cellulose used for?

  • (A) Storing energy in seeds
  • (B) Building strong cell walls
  • (C) Making chlorophyll
  • (D) Transporting sugars
Show Answer

Answer: B – Cellulose is a structural carbohydrate that strengthens plant cell walls.

Homeostasis and response

Q35. Type 1 diabetes is caused by the pancreas failing to produce enough insulin. How is it usually treated?

  • (A) By taking antibiotics
  • (B) By avoiding all sugar forever with no treatment
  • (C) By injecting insulin
  • (D) By removing the pancreas
Show Answer

Answer: C – Type 1 diabetics need insulin injections to control blood glucose.

Q36. In type 2 diabetes, body cells do not respond properly to insulin. Which factor increases the risk of type 2 diabetes?

  • (A) Short sight
  • (B) A viral infection only
  • (C) Low blood pressure
  • (D) Obesity
Show Answer

Answer: D – Obesity is a major risk factor for type 2 diabetes, which is often managed by diet and exercise.

Q37. Glucagon has the opposite effect to insulin. What does glucagon do?

  • (A) It raises blood glucose by breaking down glycogen
  • (B) It lowers blood glucose
  • (C) It increases insulin release only
  • (D) It stores fat
Show Answer

Answer: A – Glucagon stimulates the liver to break down glycogen into glucose.

Q38. Adrenaline is released in stressful situations. Which effect does it have?

  • (A) It lowers heart rate
  • (B) It increases heart rate and blood flow to muscles
  • (C) It stops breathing
  • (D) It decreases blood glucose
Show Answer

Answer: B – Adrenaline prepares the body for fight or flight by raising heart rate and glucose supply.

Q39. Thyroxine is produced by the thyroid gland. What does it control?

  • (A) Blood glucose level
  • (B) The menstrual cycle
  • (C) The rate of metabolism
  • (D) Water balance
Show Answer

Answer: C – Thyroxine regulates metabolic rate.

Q40. If thyroxine levels are too low, metabolism slows. Which treatment may be given?

  • (A) Insulin injections
  • (B) Adrenaline injections
  • (C) Antibiotics
  • (D) Thyroxine tablets
Show Answer

Answer: D – Thyroxine replacement restores metabolic rate.

Q41. Negative feedback keeps conditions stable. When blood glucose falls, which response restores it?

  • (A) Glucagon release and glycogen breakdown
  • (B) More insulin release
  • (C) Less glucagon release
  • (D) Increased sweating
Show Answer

Answer: A – Low glucose triggers glucagon, which raises glucose back towards normal.

Q42. During the menstrual cycle, which hormone stimulates an egg to mature in the ovary?

  • (A) Progesterone
  • (B) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • (C) Testosterone
  • (D) Adrenaline
Show Answer

Answer: B – FSH from the pituitary stimulates follicle development and egg maturation.

Q43. Which hormone triggers ovulation, the release of an egg?

  • (A) Oestrogen
  • (B) Progesterone
  • (C) Luteinising hormone (LH)
  • (D) FSH
Show Answer

Answer: C – A surge in LH causes ovulation around day 14 of the cycle.

Inheritance, variation and evolution

Q44. In humans, sex is determined by X and Y chromosomes. Which combination produces a male child?

  • (A) XX
  • (B) YY
  • (C) XO only
  • (D) XY
Show Answer

Answer: D – Males are XY and females are XX; the father determines the sex of the child.

Q45. A woman is XX and a man is XY. What is the probability that their child is a girl?

  • (A) 50 percent
  • (B) 25 percent
  • (C) 75 percent
  • (D) 100 percent
Show Answer

Answer: A – Half the sperm carry X and half carry Y, giving equal chances of XX or XY.

Q46. In a Punnett square cross between two heterozygous parents (Bb x Bb), what proportion of offspring is expected to show the recessive trait?

  • (A) One half
  • (B) One quarter
  • (C) Three quarters
  • (D) All of them
Show Answer

Answer: B – The cross gives BB, Bb, Bb, bb, so one in four shows the recessive phenotype.

Q47. A plant with genotype TT is crossed with a plant with genotype tt. All offspring are Tt. What phenotype will they show if T is dominant?

  • (A) The recessive phenotype
  • (B) A mixture of both
  • (C) The dominant phenotype
  • (D) No phenotype
Show Answer

Answer: C – Tt offspring carry one dominant allele, so they show the dominant trait.

Q48. Two heterozygous pea plants (Rr x Rr) are crossed, where R is dominant for round seeds. What is the expected ratio of round to wrinkled seeds?

  • (A) 1 round : 3 wrinkled
  • (B) 1 round : 1 wrinkled
  • (C) 4 round : 0 wrinkled
  • (D) 3 round : 1 wrinkled
Show Answer

Answer: D – The genotypes are RR, Rr, Rr, rr, giving three round to one wrinkled.

Q49. A brown-eyed parent who is heterozygous (Bb) has children with a blue-eyed parent (bb). What proportion of children is expected to have blue eyes?

  • (A) 50 percent
  • (B) 25 percent
  • (C) 75 percent
  • (D) 0 percent
Show Answer

Answer: A – Bb x bb gives Bb, Bb, bb, bb, so half are expected to be blue-eyed.

Q50. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele. Two carrier parents (both heterozygous) have a child. What is the chance the child has cystic fibrosis?

  • (A) 50 percent
  • (B) 25 percent
  • (C) 75 percent
  • (D) 100 percent
Show Answer

Answer: B – A cross of two carriers gives one in four offspring with two recessive alleles.

Q51. Polydactyly is caused by a dominant allele. If one parent is heterozygous for polydactyly and the other is unaffected, what is the chance of an affected child?

  • (A) 25 percent
  • (B) 75 percent
  • (C) 50 percent
  • (D) 0 percent
Show Answer

Answer: C – Heterozygous x unaffected gives half the children carrying the dominant allele.

Q52. Variation within a species can be genetic, environmental, or both. Which characteristic is controlled mainly by genes?

  • (A) Weight only
  • (B) Language spoken
  • (C) Scars
  • (D) Blood group
Show Answer

Answer: D – Blood group is determined by genes, while weight is influenced by both genes and environment.

Ecology

Q53. The carbon cycle involves photosynthesis and respiration. Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

  • (A) Photosynthesis
  • (B) Respiration
  • (C) Combustion
  • (D) Decomposition
Show Answer

Answer: A – Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide to make glucose.

Q54. Which process returns carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?

  • (A) Photosynthesis
  • (B) Respiration
  • (C) Feeding only
  • (D) Fossilisation
Show Answer

Answer: B – Respiration by plants, animals and decomposers releases carbon dioxide.

Q55. Combustion of fossil fuels increases atmospheric carbon dioxide. Why are fossil fuels a carbon store?

  • (A) Because they absorb carbon dioxide when burned
  • (B) Because they are made of carbon dioxide gas
  • (C) Because they formed from ancient organisms that trapped carbon
  • (D) Because they contain living plants
Show Answer

Answer: C – Fossil fuels store carbon from organisms that lived millions of years ago.

Q56. In the water cycle, which process returns water from plants to the atmosphere?

  • (A) Photosynthesis
  • (B) Respiration
  • (C) Condensation only
  • (D) Transpiration
Show Answer

Answer: D – Transpiration evaporates water from leaves into the air.

Q57. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules convert nitrogen gas into which compounds plants can use?

  • (A) Nitrates and ammonium compounds
  • (B) Carbon dioxide
  • (C) Oxygen
  • (D) Glucose
Show Answer

Answer: A – Nitrogen fixation makes nitrogen available as compounds plants can absorb.

Q58. Lightning also fixes nitrogen. What does lightning do to nitrogen gas in the air?

  • (A) It turns it into oxygen
  • (B) It converts it into nitrogen oxides that dissolve in rain to form nitrates
  • (C) It removes it from the atmosphere permanently
  • (D) It makes it into carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Answer: B – Lightning produces nitrogen oxides that wash into soil as nitrates.

Q59. Decomposers return nitrogen to the soil as ammonium compounds. What happens next in the nitrogen cycle?

  • (A) Plants absorb ammonium directly only
  • (B) Denitrifying bacteria fix nitrogen gas
  • (C) Nitrifying bacteria convert ammonium compounds into nitrites and then nitrates
  • (D) Nitrogen is lost as oxygen
Show Answer

Answer: C – Nitrification converts ammonium to nitrite and then nitrate for plant uptake.

Q60. Denitrifying bacteria in waterlogged soil convert nitrates back into nitrogen gas. What is the effect on soil fertility?

  • (A) It increases fertility
  • (B) It has no effect
  • (C) It adds carbon to soil
  • (D) It reduces fertility because plants lose usable nitrogen
Show Answer

Answer: D – Denitrification removes nitrates, reducing nitrogen available to plants.

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