GCSE Biology Practice Test 14 – 60 Questions with Answers (AQA 8461)

Work through all 60 GCSE questions, checking each answer as you go and revising any topic you find tricky.

Cell biology

Q1. Which medical use of stem cells is being researched?

  • (A) Replacing whole organs with plastic models
  • (B) Treating conditions such as diabetes by replacing damaged cells
  • (C) Curing all infections at once
  • (D) Stopping all cell division in the body
Show Answer

Answer: B – Stem cell research aims to replace damaged or lost cells.

Q2. What is meant by a concentration gradient?

  • (A) A difference in concentration between two regions
  • (B) The energy needed for active transport
  • (C) A membrane that blocks all particles
  • (D) The speed of water moving through a root
Show Answer

Answer: A – Particles diffuse down a concentration gradient, from higher to lower concentration.

Q3. Which process describes the movement of water from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution through a partially permeable membrane?

  • (A) Active transport
  • (B) Diffusion of glucose
  • (C) Osmosis
  • (D) Respiration
Show Answer

Answer: C – Osmosis is specifically the movement of water across a partially permeable membrane.

Q4. Where does the energy for active transport come from?

  • (A) Respiration in the cell
  • (B) Photosynthesis in the leaf only
  • (C) Diffusion of water
  • (D) The breakdown of starch in the gut
Show Answer

Answer: A – Active transport uses energy released by respiration to move substances against a concentration gradient.

Q5. Root hair cells take up mineral ions from soil water even when the concentration in the soil is lower than in the cell. How?

  • (A) By osmosis only
  • (B) By diffusion only
  • (C) By photosynthesis
  • (D) By active transport
Show Answer

Answer: D – Mineral ions are moved against the gradient, so energy is needed.

Q6. Why do root hair cells have a large surface area and many mitochondria?

  • (A) To carry out photosynthesis underground
  • (B) To store starch
  • (C) To prevent water loss
  • (D) To absorb more water and minerals and to provide energy for active transport
Show Answer

Answer: D – A large surface area increases absorption and mitochondria supply energy.

Q7. In the gut, glucose is absorbed into blood even when blood glucose is higher than gut glucose. Which process is used?

  • (A) Osmosis
  • (B) Active transport
  • (C) Simple diffusion of water
  • (D) Filtration
Show Answer

Answer: B – Glucose is moved against its gradient using energy.

Q8. A red blood cell placed in pure water swells and may burst. Why?

  • (A) Salt leaves by active transport
  • (B) Water enters by osmosis because the cell contents are more concentrated than pure water
  • (C) Glucose diffuses out rapidly
  • (D) The cell membrane dissolves
Show Answer

Answer: B – Water moves into the more concentrated cell by osmosis.

Q9. A plant cell placed in a concentrated salt solution becomes plasmolysed. What happens?

  • (A) Water leaves the cell by osmosis and the vacuole shrinks
  • (B) Water enters the cell rapidly
  • (C) The cell wall dissolves
  • (D) The nucleus divides
Show Answer

Answer: A – Water leaves by osmosis, so the cytoplasm pulls away from the wall.

Organisation

Q10. Which tissue transports dissolved sugars around a plant?

  • (A) Xylem
  • (B) Phloem
  • (C) Cortex
  • (D) Pith
Show Answer

Answer: B – Phloem carries sugars made in leaves to other parts.

Q11. What is meant by translocation in plants?

  • (A) The loss of water vapour from leaves
  • (B) The movement of dissolved sugars through the phloem
  • (C) The uptake of water by roots
  • (D) The opening of stomata
Show Answer

Answer: B – Translocation moves sugars made in photosynthesis to growing and storage parts of the plant.

Q12. Which condition will speed up transpiration from leaves?

  • (A) Lower light intensity
  • (B) Higher humidity
  • (C) Higher temperature
  • (D) Still air
Show Answer

Answer: C – Warm, dry, windy and bright conditions increase transpiration.

Q13. How do guard cells control water loss?

  • (A) They make chlorophyll
  • (B) They absorb water from soil
  • (C) They transport sugars
  • (D) They open and close the stomata
Show Answer

Answer: D – Guard cells change shape to open or close stomatal pores.

Q14. Which plant tissue is the main site of photosynthesis?

  • (A) Palisade mesophyll
  • (B) Xylem
  • (C) Root epidermis
  • (D) Phloem
Show Answer

Answer: A – Palisade cells contain many chloroplasts near the leaf surface.

Q15. What is the function of the coronary arteries?

  • (A) To supply the lungs
  • (B) To return blood to the heart
  • (C) To supply the brain only
  • (D) To supply the heart muscle itself with oxygenated blood
Show Answer

Answer: D – The heart muscle needs its own blood supply via coronary arteries.

Q16. Which sequence correctly shows blood flow through the heart?

  • (A) Aorta, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, vena cava
  • (B) Pulmonary vein, right atrium, lungs, left ventricle
  • (C) Vena cava, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs
  • (D) Vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta
Show Answer

Answer: D – Deoxygenated blood enters the right side, goes to the lungs, then the left side pumps it to the body.

Q17. A person has a blocked coronary artery. Which organ is directly affected?

  • (A) The liver
  • (B) The lung
  • (C) The kidney
  • (D) The heart
Show Answer

Answer: D – Coronary arteries feed the heart muscle, so a blockage starves heart tissue.

Q18. Why is the wall of the left ventricle thicker than the right ventricle?

  • (A) It pumps blood only to the lungs
  • (B) It holds more valves
  • (C) It must pump blood much further, around the whole body
  • (D) It stores blood
Show Answer

Answer: C – The left ventricle works against higher resistance to supply the body.

Infection and response

Q19. What is the best way to reduce spread of a disease spread by contaminated water?

  • (A) Increase contact between people
  • (B) Use antibiotics for viruses
  • (C) Provide clean drinking water and good sanitation
  • (D) Close all hospitals
Show Answer

Answer: C – Clean water and sanitation break the waterborne transmission route.

Q20. Why is it important to wash hands to prevent infection?

  • (A) It makes skin waterproof
  • (B) It produces antibodies
  • (C) It kills viruses inside cells
  • (D) It removes pathogens from the skin before they can enter the body or be passed on
Show Answer

Answer: D – Hand washing physically removes microbes.

Q21. Which statement about measles is correct?

  • (A) It is caused by bacteria and treated with antibiotics
  • (B) It is spread only by mosquitoes
  • (C) It is a viral disease that can be prevented by the MMR vaccine
  • (D) It is a fungal skin infection
Show Answer

Answer: C – MMR vaccination protects against measles, mumps and rubella.

Q22. What happens when a pathogen enters the body and white blood cells recognise its antigens?

  • (A) Red blood cells divide rapidly
  • (B) Specific antibodies are produced to target that pathogen
  • (C) The pathogen becomes a vaccine
  • (D) Blood clotting stops
Show Answer

Answer: B – The specific immune response targets the recognised antigen.

Q23. Which is an example of a non-specific defence?

  • (A) Phagocytosis by white blood cells
  • (B) Production of a specific antibody
  • (C) Memory cells
  • (D) Vaccination
Show Answer

Answer: A – Phagocytes act against many pathogens, not just one type.

Q24. Why do some people need a booster vaccination?

  • (A) Because immunity can fade over time
  • (B) Because the first vaccine was faulty in all cases
  • (C) Because pathogens change the vaccine
  • (D) Because antibodies expire in a day
Show Answer

Answer: A – Boosters refresh memory cell levels.

Q25. Tobacco mosaic virus affects which organism?

  • (A) Tobacco plants
  • (B) Humans only
  • (C) Cattle
  • (D) Fish
Show Answer

Answer: A – TMV is a plant virus that discolours leaves.

Q26. Rose black spot is caused by what?

  • (A) A virus
  • (B) A bacterium
  • (C) A protist
  • (D) A fungus
Show Answer

Answer: D – Rose black spot is a fungal disease of roses.

Q27. Which symptom is typical of salmonella food poisoning?

  • (A) Fever, cramps, vomiting and diarrhoea
  • (B) A rash on leaves
  • (C) Discoloured leaves
  • (D) Sneezing only
Show Answer

Answer: A – Salmonella causes gut symptoms after eating contaminated food.

Bioenergetics

Q28. Why do plants need nitrate ions?

  • (A) To make amino acids and proteins
  • (B) To make glucose
  • (C) To make chlorophyll only
  • (D) To make water
Show Answer

Answer: A – Nitrate provides nitrogen for amino acids and proteins.

Q29. For which plant process are magnesium ions essential?

  • (A) To make cell walls
  • (B) To make chlorophyll
  • (C) To make starch directly
  • (D) To make oxygen
Show Answer

Answer: B – Magnesium is the central atom in chlorophyll.

Q30. What happens to the rate of photosynthesis as temperature rises from 10 C to about 30 C?

  • (A) It decreases steadily
  • (B) It increases because enzymes work faster
  • (C) It stays the same
  • (D) It stops at 20 C
Show Answer

Answer: B – Enzyme activity increases with temperature up to an optimum.


Q31. What happens to photosynthesis above about 40 C?

  • (A) Chlorophyll increases
  • (B) Stomata open wider forever
  • (C) Roots absorb more light
  • (D) Enzymes denature and the rate falls
Show Answer

Answer: D – High temperature denatures enzymes involved in photosynthesis.

Q32. Which gas is released by a pond plant in bright light?

  • (A) Carbon dioxide only
  • (B) Oxygen
  • (C) Nitrogen
  • (D) Hydrogen
Show Answer

Answer: B – Photosynthesis releases oxygen bubbles in light.

Q33. How can the rate of photosynthesis be measured using pondweed?

  • (A) By measuring root length
  • (B) By counting oxygen bubbles per minute
  • (C) By weighing the soil
  • (D) By counting leaves
Show Answer

Answer: B – Bubble count is a proxy for oxygen production rate.

Q34. Which description of anaerobic respiration is true?

  • (A) It releases more energy than aerobic respiration
  • (B) It needs oxygen
  • (C) It releases less energy per glucose molecule than aerobic respiration
  • (D) It produces no waste products
Show Answer

Answer: C – Anaerobic respiration is incomplete and releases less energy.

Q35. During long, gentle exercise, which type of respiration mainly supplies muscle energy?

  • (A) Anaerobic respiration in yeast
  • (B) Photosynthesis
  • (C) Aerobic respiration
  • (D) Fermentation to ethanol
Show Answer

Answer: C – Steady exercise can be supplied aerobically.

Homeostasis and response

Q36. How does the body reduce heat loss on a cold day?

  • (A) Blood vessels dilate and sweating increases
  • (B) Shivering stops
  • (C) The skin produces more oil
  • (D) Blood vessels in the skin constrict and hairs stand up
Show Answer

Answer: D – Vasoconstriction reduces blood flow to the skin surface.

Q37. What is meant by a stimulus in a response?

  • (A) A change in the environment that is detected by a receptor
  • (B) A hormone released by a gland
  • (C) A muscle that carries out a response
  • (D) A neurone in the spinal cord
Show Answer

Answer: A – A stimulus, such as a change in temperature, is detected by a receptor and triggers a response.

Q38. Why do we shiver when cold?

  • (A) Muscles relax to save energy
  • (B) Blood vessels dilate
  • (C) Muscles contract rapidly to release heat by respiration
  • (D) The skin produces sweat
Show Answer

Answer: C – Shivering is involuntary muscle activity that generates heat.

Q39. What is the role of the coordinator in a control system?

  • (A) To receive information from receptors and organise a response
  • (B) To detect the stimulus
  • (C) To carry out the response
  • (D) To produce energy for the response
Show Answer

Answer: A – The coordinator, such as the brain or spinal cord, processes information and decides the response.

Q40. When a root is lit from one side, in which direction does it grow?

  • (A) Towards the light
  • (B) Straight down regardless of light
  • (C) It stops growing
  • (D) Away from the light
Show Answer

Answer: D – Roots are negatively phototropic, so they grow away from light.

Q41. In which direction does a root grow in response to gravity?

  • (A) Downwards, towards gravity
  • (B) Upwards, away from gravity
  • (C) Towards light
  • (D) It does not respond to gravity
Show Answer

Answer: A – Roots are positively gravitropic, growing downwards into the soil.

Q42. By what mechanism does auxin bend a shoot towards light?

  • (A) Auxin stops all growth on the shaded side
  • (B) Auxin is destroyed on the shaded side only in roots
  • (C) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, making those cells elongate more
  • (D) Auxin moves to the light side and stops growth there
Show Answer

Answer: C – Unequal auxin distribution causes unequal elongation and bending.

Q43. Which plant hormone promotes seed germination and stem elongation?

  • (A) Auxin only
  • (B) Ethene
  • (C) Gibberellin
  • (D) Abscisic acid
Show Answer

Answer: C – Gibberellins stimulate germination and stem growth.

Inheritance, variation and evolution

Q44. How are most fossils formed?

  • (A) By animals turning to stone instantly
  • (B) By remains being buried and gradually replaced by minerals
  • (C) By DNA surviving unchanged for millions of years
  • (D) By footprints in wet mud only
Show Answer

Answer: B – Most fossils form when remains are buried by sediment and minerals slowly replace the original material.

Q45. Why are genetically modified crops sometimes made resistant to insects?

  • (A) To make them grow without water
  • (B) To make them taste like meat
  • (C) To reduce crop damage and pesticide use
  • (D) To stop photosynthesis
Show Answer

Answer: C – Insect-resistant crops suffer less pest damage.

Q46. What is a concern about genetically modified crops?

  • (A) That they always cause disease in humans
  • (B) That they cannot photosynthesise
  • (C) That they need no soil
  • (D) That modified genes could spread to wild plants
Show Answer

Answer: D – Gene flow to wild relatives is a debated ecological concern.

Q47. What did Darwin observe that supported evolution?

  • (A) That all species are identical
  • (B) That fossils never change
  • (C) That species on islands differed but were similar to mainland species
  • (D) That selective breeding is impossible
Show Answer

Answer: C – Darwin’s island observations suggested species change over time.

Q48. What is a fossil?

  • (A) A living organism
  • (B) A type of rock with no life
  • (C) A seed from an ancient plant only
  • (D) The remains or traces of an organism preserved in rock
Show Answer

Answer: D – Fossils provide evidence of past life.

Q49. Why is the fossil record incomplete?

  • (A) Because fossils dissolve in all rocks
  • (B) Because many organisms decay before fossilisation and conditions are rare
  • (C) Because evolution stopped
  • (D) Because rocks are too young
Show Answer

Answer: B – Fossilisation requires specific conditions, so many species leave no fossils.

Q50. How does the fossil record support evolution?

  • (A) It shows gradual changes in organisms over time
  • (B) It shows all organisms appeared at once unchanged
  • (C) It proves no species ever became extinct
  • (D) It shows only modern species
Show Answer

Answer: A – Sequences of fossils show change over geological time.

Q51. Which event could cause a species to become extinct?

  • (A) A small seasonal change in temperature
  • (B) The birth of new offspring
  • (C) The migration of a few individuals to a new area
  • (D) The destruction of its only habitat
Show Answer

Answer: D – If its habitat is destroyed, a species may have nowhere to live and can die out completely.

Ecology

Q52. What process is described by the term eutrophication?

  • (A) Drying out of a lake
  • (B) Acid rain falling on soil
  • (C) Enrichment of water with nutrients leading to algal growth and oxygen loss
  • (D) Loss of soil nutrients
Show Answer

Answer: C – Eutrophication is nutrient enrichment of water bodies.

Q53. How can farmers reduce water pollution from fertilisers?

  • (A) By using more fertiliser
  • (B) By draining fields into rivers
  • (C) By using fertiliser carefully and keeping it away from waterways
  • (D) By removing hedges
Show Answer

Answer: C – Careful application reduces run-off into water.

Q54. What is the effect of removing a top predator from a food web?

  • (A) No species is affected
  • (B) Producers increase only
  • (C) Decomposers disappear
  • (D) Prey populations may increase and affect other species
Show Answer

Answer: D – Removing a predator can unbalance the whole web.

Q55. If a disease kills most rabbits in a grassland, what happens to foxes?

  • (A) Fox numbers rise immediately
  • (B) Fox numbers may fall due to less food, unless they eat other prey
  • (C) Grass decreases
  • (D) Rabbits increase
Show Answer

Answer: B – Fewer prey means less food for predators.

Q56. What is meant by a stable community?

  • (A) A community where species numbers stay roughly constant over time
  • (B) A community with only one species
  • (C) A community with no predators
  • (D) A community that never changes at all
Show Answer

Answer: A – Stability means populations remain balanced.

Q57. Which is a biotic factor affecting a population?

  • (A) Temperature
  • (B) Competition for food
  • (C) Rainfall
  • (D) Soil pH
Show Answer

Answer: B – Biotic factors are living influences such as competition and predation.

Q58. What is meant by an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?

  • (A) A living predator
  • (B) A non-living factor that affects organisms
  • (C) A disease-causing microorganism
  • (D) The total number of species in an area
Show Answer

Answer: B – Abiotic factors include light intensity, temperature, water availability and soil pH.

Q59. How does competition affect organisms?

  • (A) Organisms compete for limited resources such as food, light and space
  • (B) It always increases population size
  • (C) It removes all predators
  • (D) It creates new species instantly
Show Answer

Answer: A – Competition limits growth when resources are scarce.

Q60. What is interdependence?

  • (A) When species live alone
  • (B) When one species eats all others
  • (C) When species in a community depend on each other for food, shelter or other needs
  • (D) When species never interact
Show Answer

Answer: C – Interdependent species rely on each other.

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