FDE-EST (Elementary School Teacher) Chemistry Solved Paper April 2024

The 2024 Federal Directorate of Education (FDE) – Elementary School Teacher (EST) Chemistry exam is for individuals seeking BPS-14 teaching positions in Pakistan. This multiple-choice test is worth 100 marks and covers three main subjects: Chemistry (60 questions), English (20 questions), and Pedagogy (20 questions).

Chemistry Portion (Questions 1–38)

  1. Standard Reduction Potential of Fluorine and Bromine is:
    • a) +2.87 & +1.08
    • b) +2.87 & +1.09
    • c) +1.09 & +2.87
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: a) +2.87 & +1.08
      • Explanation: Fluorine has a standard reduction potential of approximately +2.87 V, and Bromine is approximately +1.08 V.
  2. Excluded volume is represented by:
    • a) a
    • b) b
    • c) c
    • d) d
    • Answer: b) b
      • Explanation: In the van der Waals equation, the excluded volume per mole of gas is represented by the constant ‘b’.
  3. Number of oxygen atoms in metaformaldehyde?
    • a) 2
    • b) 3
    • c) 4
    • d) 5
    • Answer: b) 3
      • Explanation: Metaformaldehyde (trioxane, (CH₂O)₃) contains three oxygen atoms in its cyclic structure.
  4. Heat of vaporization of Radon is:
    • a) 0.4
    • b) 2.89
    • c) 0.09
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: d) None of these
      • Explanation: The heat of vaporization of Radon is approximately 16.4 kJ/mol, which is not listed among the options.
  5. Which of the following has the shortest C-C bond?
    • a) Benzene
    • b) Ethane
    • c) Diamond
    • d) Acetylene
    • Answer: d) Acetylene
      • Explanation: Acetylene (C₂H₂) has a triple bond (C≡C), which is the shortest among the options (bond length ~120 pm).
  6. How many Sulphur atoms are in Rhombic Sulphur?
    • a) 4
    • b) 6
    • c) 8
    • d) 10
    • Answer: c) 8
      • Explanation: Rhombic sulphur has a molecular formula of S₈, containing 8 sulphur atoms per molecule.
  7. Dipole moment of H₂ is:
    • a) 0
    • b) 1
    • c) 2
    • d) 3
    • Answer: a) 0
      • Explanation: H₂ is a non-polar molecule due to its symmetrical structure, resulting in a dipole moment of 0.
  8. Paramagnetic Effect is due to:
    • a) Unpaired electrons
    • b) Paired electrons
    • c) Unpaired neutrons
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: a) Unpaired electrons
      • Explanation: Paramagnetism arises from the presence of unpaired electrons in a substance.
  9. (Question 9 is incomplete in the document)
    • Note: The OCR data for question 9 is garbled (“What w will y y y y y18 y y y y y y y6 y…”). No clear question or options are provided, so it cannot be included.
  10. When Grignard reagent reacts with ketone, it yields:
    • a) Alkane
    • b) Alcohol
    • c) Alkyne
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: b) Alcohol
      • Explanation: Grignard reagents react with ketones to form tertiary alcohols after hydrolysis.
  11. Coinage metals are present in which group:
    • a) G-11
    • b) G-7
    • c) G-16
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: a) G-11
      • Explanation: Coinage metals (Cu, Ag, Au) are in Group 11 of the periodic table.
  12. What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄?
    • a) +4
    • b) +5
    • c) +6
    • d) +7
    • Answer: d) +7
      • Explanation: In KMnO₄, K is +1, each O is -2 (total -8 for 4 oxygens), so Mn must be +7 to balance the charge.
  13. Slow cooling of the crystals yields:
    • a) Small crystal
    • b) Large crystal
    • c) Both A & B
    • d) None
    • Answer: b) Large crystal
      • Explanation: Slow cooling allows for larger, more ordered crystal formation.
  14. Velocity of electron will be maximum in which orbit?
    • a) 1st
    • b) 2nd
    • c) 3rd
    • d) 4th
    • Answer: a) 1st
      • Explanation: Electron velocity is highest in the 1st orbit (n=1) due to its proximity to the nucleus (Bohr’s model).
  15. Which Organic Acid is used in pulping of wood?
    • a) Acetic acid
    • b) Citric acid
    • c) Benzoic Acid
    • d) None
    • Answer: a) Acetic acid
      • Explanation: Acetic acid is used in the pulping process, particularly in the kraft process for wood pulp production.
  16. IUPAC name of Formaldehyde is:
    • a) Methanol
    • b) Ethanol
    • c) Ether
    • d) Methanal
    • Answer: d) Methanal
      • Explanation: Formaldehyde (HCHO) is named methanal in IUPAC nomenclature.
  17. Number of carbon atoms in Formaldehyde:
    • a) 1
    • b) 2
    • c) 3
    • d) 4
    • Answer: a) 1
      • Explanation: Formaldehyde (HCHO) contains one carbon atom.
  18. Which substance when used with butter having butyric acid can cure acidity?
    • a) Lime juice
    • b) Calcium Carbonate
    • c) Soda water
    • d) Lime water
    • Answer: b) Calcium Carbonate
      • Explanation: Calcium carbonate neutralizes acidity (e.g., butyric acid) by acting as a base.
  19. One carbon less than parent atom carboxylic acid is produced by the hydrolysis of:
    • a) Acid amide
    • b) Ester
    • c) Acid Chloride
    • d) Bisulphate
    • Answer: a) Acid amide
      • Explanation: Hydrolysis of an acid amide (RCONH₂) yields a carboxylic acid (RCOOH) with the same carbon count, but the question likely refers to a specific reaction context (e.g., nitrile hydrolysis, which was possibly intended).
  20. Heating of Boric acid at 100°C produces:
    • a) B₂O₃
    • b) H₂B₄O₇
    • c) H₂B₂O₃
    • d) HBO₂
    • Answer: d) HBO₂
      • Explanation: Heating boric acid (H₃BO₃) at ~100°C produces metaboric acid (HBO₂).
  21. Percentage of Methanol and Ethanol in methylated spirit:
    • a) 10 & 30
    • b) 10 & 50
    • c) 10 & 80
    • d) 10 & 90
    • Answer: d) 10 & 90
      • Explanation: Methylated spirit typically contains ~10% methanol and ~90% ethanol.
  22. Geometry of SF₆ is:
    • a) Octahedral
    • b) Tetrahedral
    • c) Trigonal Bipyramidal
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: a) Octahedral
      • Explanation: SF₆ has an octahedral geometry due to six fluorine atoms around the sulfur atom.
  23. Boiling Point of Benzene is:
    • a) 78°C
    • b) 100°C
    • c) 120°C
    • d) 5.6°C
    • Answer: a) 78°C
      • Explanation: Benzene’s boiling point is approximately 80°C, closest to 78°C among the options.
  24. In a Chemical reacción, heat of formation:
    • a) evolved
    • b) absorbed
    • c) either evolved or absorbed
    • d) none
    • Answer: c) either evolved or absorbed
      • Explanation: Heat of formation can be exothermic (evolved) or endothermic (absorbed) depending on the reaction.
  25. Real gas equation is:
    • a) PV = nRT
    • b) V = nb
    • c) (P + an²/V²)(V – nb) = nRT
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: c) (P + an²/V²)(V – nb) = nRT
      • Explanation: This is the van der Waals equation for real gases.
  26. Lysine is a:
    • a) Basic Amino acid
    • b) Acidic Amino acid
    • c) Neutral
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: a) Basic Amino acid
      • Explanation: Lysine is a basic amino acid due to its amine group.
  27. (Question 27 is incomplete in the document)
    • Note: The OCR data lists options (a) Principle QN, b) Azimuthal QN, c) Principle & Azimuthal QN, d) Magnetic QN) but no clear question, so it cannot be included.
  28. Oxidation state of +5 & +7 of which element:
    • a) Chlorine
    • b) Fluorine
    • c) Oxygen
    • d) Nitrogen
    • Answer: d) Nitrogen
      • Explanation: Nitrogen can exhibit +5 (e.g., in HNO₃) and +7 (less common, but possible in some compounds).
  29. When electron jumps from 4th orbit to 1st orbit, that series is called:
    • a) Lyman series
    • b) Balmer
    • c) Paschen
    • d) Pfund
    • Answer: a) Lyman series
      • Explanation: Electron transitions to n=1 belong to the Lyman series (UV region).
  30. When electron jumps from 6th orbit to 2nd orbit, that series is called:
    • a) Lyman series
    • b) Balmer
    • c) Paschen
    • d) Pfund
    • Answer: b) Balmer
      • Explanation: Electron transitions to n=2 belong to the Balmer series (visible region).
  31. Vulcanizing agent is:
    • a) Sulphur
    • b) Carbon Black
    • c) Calcium Carbonate
    • d) Oxygen
    • Answer: a) Sulphur
      • Explanation: Sulphur is used as a vulcanizing agent in rubber production.
  32. Which of the following is not a type of Boric Acid?
    • a) Orthoboric acid
    • b) Nanoboric acid
    • c) Metaboric acid
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: b) Nanoboric acid
      • Explanation: Orthoboric (H₃BO₃) and metaboric (HBO₂) acids exist, but “nanoboric acid” is not a recognized type.
  33. Molecular solids differ from other solids due to:
    • a) Low melting and boiling points
    • b) Strong covalent bonds between molecules
    • c) Presence of free electrons
    • d) High melting and boiling points
    • Answer: a) Low melting and boiling points
      • Explanation: Molecular solids are held by weak intermolecular forces, leading to low melting/boiling points.
  34. With increasing temperature, which will decrease?
    • a) Surface tension
    • b) Vapor pressure
    • c) Viscosity of gases
    • d) Both A & C
    • Answer: a) Surface tension
      • Explanation: Surface tension decreases with increasing temperature; vapor pressure increases, and gas viscosity increases.
  35. Standard Reduction potential of copper is:
    • a) +0.34
    • b) -0.76
    • c) -0.34
    • d) +0.76
    • Answer: a) +0.34
      • Explanation: The standard reduction potential of Cu²⁺/Cu is approximately +0.34 V.
  36. Outer Transition elements are:
    • a) d-block elements
    • b) f-Block
    • c) P-Block
    • d) None
    • Answer: a) d-block elements
      • Explanation: Outer transition elements are d-block elements (groups 3–12).
  37. Inner Transition elements are:
    • a) d-block elements
    • b) f-Block
    • c) P-Block
    • d) None
    • Answer: b) f-Block
      • Explanation: Inner transition elements are f-block elements (lanthanides and actinides).
  38. Formula of Epsom salt is:
    • a) MgSO₄·7H₂O
    • b) CaSO₄·2H₂O
    • c) CuSO₄·5H₂O
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: a) MgSO₄·7H₂O
      • Explanation: Epsom salt is magnesium sulfate heptahydrate (MgSO₄·7H₂O).

English Portion (Questions 39–46)

  1. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Accord”:
    • a) Disunity
    • b) Cord
    • c) Concurrence
    • d) Pack
    • Answer: c) Concurrence
      • Explanation: “Accord” means agreement, similar to “concurrence.”
  2. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Mediation”:
    • a) Annoyance
    • b) Initiating
    • c) Aggregate
    • d) Intercession
    • Answer: d) Intercession
      • Explanation: “Mediation” involves intervening to resolve disputes, synonymous with “intercession.”
  3. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Hasty”:
    • a) Kind
    • b) Slow
    • c) Wise
    • d) Impulsive
    • Answer: d) Impulsive
      • Explanation: “Hasty” means rushed or impulsive.
  4. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Negligible”:
    • a) Seize
    • b) Momentous
    • c) Hefty
    • d) Trivial
    • Answer: d) Trivial
      • Explanation: “Negligible” means insignificant or trivial.
  5. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to “Validate”?
    • a) Ratify
    • b) Sanction
    • c) Endorse
    • d) Repudiate
    • Answer: d) Repudiate
      • Explanation: “Validate” means to confirm; “repudiate” means to reject, its opposite.
  6. The most nearest meaning to the word “Categorical”:
    • a) Assertive
    • b) Indirect
    • c) Conditional
    • d) Unambiguous
    • Answer: d) Unambiguous
      • Explanation: “Categorical” means clear and unambiguous.
  7. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Vivid”:
    • a) Glowing
    • b) Flamboyant
    • c) Fade
    • d) None
    • Answer: a) Glowing
      • Explanation: “Vivid” means bright or intense, similar to “glowing.”
  8. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to “Opportunity”?
    • a) Antonymy
    • b) Prospective
    • c) Closure
    • d) Root
    • Answer: c) Closure
      • Explanation: “Opportunity” means a chance; “closure” implies an end, its opposite.
  9. Choose the correct spellings:
    • a) Tongue
    • b) (Incomplete options in OCR)
    • Answer: a) Tongue
      • Explanation: “Tongue” is the correct spelling; other options are not provided clearly.
  10. Catching the earlier train will give us the ___ to do some shopping.
    • a) Chance
    • b) Luck
    • c) Possibility
    • d) Occasion
    • Answer: a) Chance
      • Explanation: “Chance” fits best in the context of having an opportunity.
  11. Success in the examination depends ___ hard work alone.
    • a) At
    • b) Over
    • c) For
    • d) On
    • Answer: d) On
      • Explanation: The phrase is “depends on.”
  12. Man does not live by ___ alone.
    • a) Food
    • b) Bread
    • c) Meals
    • d) Diet
    • Answer: b) Bread
      • Explanation: The phrase is a biblical reference: “Man does not live by bread alone.”

Pedagogy Portion (Questions 51–70)

  1. Conferences are face to face:
    • a) Discussion
    • b) Negotiations
    • c) Meetings
    • d) None
    • Answer: c) Meetings
      • Explanation: Conferences are formal face-to-face meetings.
  2. In a student’s formally present material then respond to questions from the audience?
    • a) Dialogue
    • b) Discussion
    • c) Symposium
    • d) Seminar
    • Answer: c) Symposium
      • Explanation: A symposium involves formal presentations followed by audience questions.
  3. If students don’t understand what is taught in the class, the teacher should:
    • a) Repeat the lesson once again
    • b) Teach the lesson again giving more examples
    • c) Proceed to the next lesson to that syllabus could be covered
    • d) Checkup the previous knowledge of students in the topic
    • Answer: b) Teach the lesson again giving more examples
      • Explanation: Providing more examples aids understanding without rushing forward.
  4. What was the relation b/w Socrates and Plato?
    • a) Socrates was the student of Plato
    • b) Plato was the student of Socrates
    • c) Both were Brothers
    • d) Both were Colleagues
    • Answer: b) Plato was the student of Socrates
      • Explanation: Plato was a student of Socrates in ancient Greek philosophy.
  5. The advocators of philosophy of pragmatism believe that reality is:
    • a) Imagination
    • b) Stagnant
    • c) Constantly changing
    • d) Related to Mind
    • Answer: c) Constantly changing
      • Explanation: Pragmatism views reality as dynamic and evolving.
  6. Rather than “telling,” teacher leads students to concept through a series of ordered questions in:
    • a) Socratic Method
    • b) Aristotelian Method
    • c) Heuristic Method
    • d) Platonic Method
    • Answer: a) Socratic Method
      • Explanation: The Socratic Method involves questioning to stimulate critical thinking.
  7. When taking a project you would:
    • a) Not mind failure as you feel even then you will learn something
    • b) Take it up only when you are assured of co-operation of others and success
    • c) Plan it very carefully and see that there is no chance of failure
    • d) Be hurt if criticized and leave the project if criticism is too much
    • Answer: a) Not mind failure as you feel even then you will learn something
      • Explanation: This reflects a growth mindset, valuable in pedagogy.
  8. The simplest skill in cognitive domain in Bloom’s Taxonomy is:
    • a) Remembering
    • b) Understanding
    • c) Evaluating
    • d) Synthesizing
    • Answer: a) Remembering
      • Explanation: Remembering is the lowest level in Bloom’s cognitive taxonomy.
  9. ___ is a student-generated list of words maintained by the student to remind them of words they need more work on.
    • a) Word list
    • b) Spelling Note-book
    • c) Matching words
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: b) Spelling Note-book
      • Explanation: A spelling notebook tracks words for practice.
  10. According to the theory of forms (or theory of Ideas), material world is a/an ___ of the real world.
    • a) Shadow
    • b) Image
    • c) Part
    • d) None
    • Answer: a) Shadow
      • Explanation: Plato’s Theory of Forms describes the material world as a shadow of the ideal world.
  11. An aspect of pragmatism, experiential learning, which says, education should come through:
    • a) Experience
    • b) Practice
    • c) Knowledge
    • d) Observations
    • Answer: a) Experience
      • Explanation: Experiential learning emphasizes learning through experience.
  12. Which one is not among the elements of active learning?
    • a) Language
    • b) Manipulation
    • c) Practically
    • d) Materials
    • Answer: a) Language
      • Explanation: Active learning involves manipulation, practical activities, and materials, but language is not a core element.
  13. The person is an influential communicator if:
    • a) He is comedian Characteristics
    • b) If his communication is very clear
    • c) If he communicates in his mother tongue
    • d) If he has dramatic characteristics
    • Answer: b) If his communication is very clear
      • Explanation: Clarity is key to effective communication.
  14. Developing new rules and principles on the basis of given facts and information in memory level is called:
    • a) Association
    • b) Generalization
    • c) Application
    • d) Assimilation
    • Answer: b) Generalization
      • Explanation: Generalization involves deriving rules from facts at the memory level.
  15. Purpose of evaluative phase of teaching is:
    • a) To know to what extent objectives are realized
    • b) To know the shortcoming of the teacher
    • c) To know the effectiveness of strategies
    • d) All of these
    • Answer: d) All of these
      • Explanation: The evaluative phase assesses objectives, teacher performance, and strategy effectiveness.
  16. Complexities of scoring of matching types of tests can be reduced by:
    • a) Assigning only one mark for the item
    • b) Increasing the item in two columns
    • c) Supplementing the matched items with four alternative items
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: c) Supplementing the matched items with four alternative items
      • Explanation: Adding alternatives simplifies scoring by reducing ambiguity.
  17. What is the meaning of growth?
    • a) Change related to measurement
    • b) Change related to result
    • c) Both A & B
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: c) Both A & B
      • Explanation: Growth involves measurable changes and outcomes.
  18. Teacher-centred instruction which includes lecture, presentation & recitation is also known as:
    • a) Classical instruction
    • b) Direct instruction
    • c) Old method instruction
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: b) Direct instruction
      • Explanation: Direct instruction involves teacher-led methods like lectures.
  19. ___ is an organizing tool to help the students visualize how many events can be tied to or contribute to a result.
    • a) Fishbone
    • b) Fishpond
    • c) Backbone
    • d) None
    • Answer: a) Fishbone
      • Explanation: A fishbone diagram visualizes causes and effects.
  20. When a notebook is maintained by a group in which each member of the group is expected to add an idea, the notebook is known as:
    • a) Collective Notebook
    • b) Collective work sample
    • c) Collective homework
    • d) None of these
    • Answer: a) Collective Notebook
      • Explanation: A collective notebook is used for group idea-sharing.