AP Physics 2 Practice Test 4 – 60 Questions with Answers

Test yourself with 60 original AP Physics 2 practice questions covering all 7 units of the course: thermodynamics, electric force, field, and potential, electric circuits, magnetism and electromagnetism, geometric optics, waves, sound, and physical optics, and modern physics. Every answer includes the full working. All questions are algebra-based (no calculus). Take g = 9.8 m/s2 where relevant.

Unit 9: Thermodynamics

Q1. A sealed container holds 1 mol of helium in a volume of 50 L at a temperature of 354 K. What is the pressure of the gas? (Use R = 8.31 J/(mol.K).)

  • (A) 117670 Pa
  • (B) 29417 Pa
  • (C) 88252 Pa
  • (D) 58835 Pa
Show Answer

Answer: D – PV = nRT gives P = nRT ÷ V = (1 × 8.31 × 354) ÷ 0.05 = 58835 Pa.

Q2. A weather balloon contains gas at constant pressure with an initial volume of 40 L at 360 K. The volume changes to 36 L. What is the new temperature of the gas?

  • (A) 648 K
  • (B) 324 K
  • (C) 162 K
  • (D) 486 K
Show Answer

Answer: B – At constant pressure, V ÷ T is constant, so T2 = T1 × V2 ÷ V1 = 360 × 36 ÷ 40 = 324 K.

Q3. A steam sample absorbs 300 J of heat while doing 100 J of work on its surroundings. What is the change in internal energy of the gas?

  • (A) 200 J
  • (B) 400 J
  • (C) 100 J
  • (D) 300 J
Show Answer

Answer: A – First law: ΔU = Q – W = 300 – 100 = 200 J.

Q4. A gas expands at a constant pressure of 250 kPa, increasing its volume by 12 L. How much work is done by the gas?

  • (A) 6000 J
  • (B) 1500 J
  • (C) 4500 J
  • (D) 3000 J
Show Answer

Answer: D – W = PΔV = 250 kPa × 12 L = 3000 J, since 1 kPa × 1 L = 1 J.

Q5. A steel bolt of mass 2 kg is heated through a temperature rise of 10 °C. The specific heat capacity of the material is 490 J/(kg°C). How much heat is supplied?

  • (A) 19600 J
  • (B) 4900 J
  • (C) 9800 J
  • (D) 14700 J
Show Answer

Answer: C – Q = mcΔT = 2 × 490 × 10 = 9800 J.

Q6. A Carnot engine operates between a hot reservoir at 550 K and a cold reservoir at 350 K. What is its maximum possible efficiency?

  • (A) 36.36 %
  • (B) 54.55 %
  • (C) 18.18 %
  • (D) 63.64 %
Show Answer

Answer: A – Efficiency = (1 – Tc ÷ Th) × 100% = (1 – 350 ÷ 550) × 100% = 36.36%.

Q7. A heat engine takes in 2000 J of heat in each cycle and rejects 1200 J to the cold reservoir. What is the efficiency of the engine?

  • (A) 60 %
  • (B) 80 %
  • (C) 20 %
  • (D) 40 %
Show Answer

Answer: D – Work per cycle W = Qh – Qc = 2000 – 1200 = 800 J. Efficiency = W ÷ Qh × 100% = 800 ÷ 2000 × 100% = 40%.

Q8. A fixed volume of gas has a pressure of 120 kPa at 320 K. It is heated to 600 K at constant volume. What is its new pressure?

  • (A) 450 kPa
  • (B) 225 kPa
  • (C) 112 kPa
  • (D) 338 kPa
Show Answer

Answer: B – At constant volume, P ÷ T is constant, so P2 = P1 × T2 ÷ T1 = 120 × 600 ÷ 320 = 225 kPa.

Q9. Two samples of the same liquid, of masses 3 kg at 80 °C and 1 kg at 10 °C, are mixed in an insulated container. What is the final temperature of the mixture? (Ignore heat loss.)

  • (A) 62.5 °C
  • (B) 45 °C
  • (C) 70 °C
  • (D) 93.75 °C
Show Answer

Answer: A – Heat lost = heat gained, so for the same material Tf = (m1T1 + m2T2) ÷ (m1 + m2) = (3 × 80 + 1 × 10) ÷ 4 = 62.5 °C.

Unit 10: Electric Force, Field, and Potential

Q10. Two charged balls carry charges of 3 µC and 5 µC and are 15 cm apart in a vacuum. What is the magnitude of the electrostatic force between them? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 12 N
  • (B) 6 N
  • (C) 3 N
  • (D) 9 N
Show Answer

Answer: B – F = kq1q2 ÷ r2 = (9 × 109 × 3 × 10-6 × 5 × 10-6) ÷ 0.152 = 6 N.

Q11. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance of 25 cm from a point charge of 4 µC in a vacuum? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 1152000 N/C
  • (B) 288000 N/C
  • (C) 576000 N/C
  • (D) 864000 N/C
Show Answer

Answer: C – E = kQ ÷ r2 = (9 × 109 × 4 × 10-6) ÷ 0.252 = 576000 N/C.

Q12. Two parallel plates are 2 mm apart with a potential difference of 120 V between them. What is the magnitude of the uniform electric field between the plates?

  • (A) 120000 N/C
  • (B) 60000 N/C
  • (C) 30000 N/C
  • (D) 90000 N/C
Show Answer

Answer: B – E = V ÷ d = 120 ÷ 0.002 = 60000 N/C.

Q13. What is the electric potential at a distance of 15 cm from a point charge of 6 µC in a vacuum? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 360000 V
  • (B) 720000 V
  • (C) 180000 V
  • (D) 540000 V
Show Answer

Answer: A – V = kQ ÷ r = (9 × 109 × 6 × 10-6) ÷ 0.15 = 360000 V.

Q14. A charge of 20 µC is placed at a point where the electric potential is 300 V. What is its electric potential energy?

  • (A) 0.012 J
  • (B) 0.003 J
  • (C) 0.009 J
  • (D) 0.006 J
Show Answer

Answer: D – U = qV = (20 × 10-6) × 300 = 0.006 J.

Q15. A charge of 4 µC is placed in a uniform electric field of strength 4000 N/C. What is the magnitude of the electric force on the charge?

  • (A) 0.016 N
  • (B) 0.032 N
  • (C) 0.008 N
  • (D) 0.024 N
Show Answer

Answer: A – F = qE = (4 × 10-6) × 4000 = 0.016 N.

Q16. A uniform electric field of 800 N/C points along a straight path of length 20 cm. What is the potential difference between the ends of the path?

  • (A) 320 V
  • (B) 160 V
  • (C) 80 V
  • (D) 240 V
Show Answer

Answer: B – ΔV = Ed = 800 × 0.2 = 160 V.

Q17. A stationary charge of 2 µC is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 400 V. What kinetic energy does it gain? (Ignore gravity.)

  • (A) 0.0008 J
  • (B) 0.0016 J
  • (C) 0.0004 J
  • (D) 0.0012 J
Show Answer

Answer: A – Kinetic energy gained = qΔV = (2 × 10-6) × 400 = 0.0008 J.

Q18. Two point charges exert a force of 48 N on each other. If the distance between them is doubled while everything else stays the same, what is the new force between them?

  • (A) 24 N
  • (B) 6 N
  • (C) 12 N
  • (D) 18 N
Show Answer

Answer: C – Coulomb’s law gives F proportional to q1q2 ÷ r2. For this change the force is multiplied by 0.25, so F = 48 × 0.25 = 12 N.

Unit 11: Electric Circuits

Q19. A torch bulb of resistance 12 Ω is connected across a 18 V battery. What current flows through it? (Ignore internal resistance.)

  • (A) 3 A
  • (B) 0.75 A
  • (C) 1.5 A
  • (D) 2.25 A
Show Answer

Answer: C – I = V ÷ R = 18 ÷ 12 = 1.5 A.

Q20. Three resistors of 20 Ω, 10 Ω and 20 Ω are connected in series. What is their combined resistance?

  • (A) 100 Ω
  • (B) 25 Ω
  • (C) 50 Ω
  • (D) 75 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: C – For series resistors, R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 20 + 10 + 20 = 50 Ω.

Q21. Resistors of 8 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in parallel. What is their combined resistance?

  • (A) 4 Ω
  • (B) 8 Ω
  • (C) 2 Ω
  • (D) 6 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: A – 1 ÷ R = 1 ÷ 8 + 1 ÷ 8, so R = (8 × 8) ÷ (8 + 8) = 4 Ω.

Q22. A kettle operates at 120 V and draws a current of 4 A. What power does it use?

  • (A) 480 W
  • (B) 960 W
  • (C) 240 W
  • (D) 720 W
Show Answer

Answer: A – P = VI = 120 × 4 = 480 W.

Q23. A oven rated at 1500 W runs for 2 hours. How much electrical energy does it use, in kilowatt-hours?

  • (A) 3 kWh
  • (B) 6 kWh
  • (C) 1.5 kWh
  • (D) 4.5 kWh
Show Answer

Answer: A – Energy = Pt = 1500 W × 2 h = 3000 Wh = 3 kWh.

Q24. A cell of emf 15 V and internal resistance 2 Ω is connected to an external resistor of 14 Ω. What current flows in the circuit?

  • (A) 1.875 A
  • (B) 0.46875 A
  • (C) 1.406 A
  • (D) 0.9375 A
Show Answer

Answer: D – I = emf ÷ (R + r) = 15 ÷ (14 + 2) = 15 ÷ 16 = 0.9375 A.

Q25. In a parallel circuit, one branch of resistance 10 Ω is connected across a 36 V supply. What current flows through that branch?

  • (A) 7.2 A
  • (B) 1.8 A
  • (C) 5.4 A
  • (D) 3.6 A
Show Answer

Answer: D – The branch has the full supply voltage, so I = V ÷ R = 36 ÷ 10 = 3.6 A.

Q26. A wire has a resistance of 15 Ω. If its length is doubled and its area is halved while the material and temperature stay the same, what is its new resistance?

  • (A) 120 Ω
  • (B) 30 Ω
  • (C) 90 Ω
  • (D) 60 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: D – R = ρL ÷ A, so resistance scales as described: R = 15 × 4 = 60 Ω.

Q27. Resistors of 12 Ω and 4 Ω are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series with a 8 Ω resistor. What is the total resistance of the circuit?

  • (A) 22 Ω
  • (B) 11 Ω
  • (C) 5.5 Ω
  • (D) 16.5 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: B – Parallel part = (12 × 4) ÷ (12 + 4) = 3 Ω. Total = 3 + 8 = 11 Ω.

Unit 12: Magnetism and Electromagnetism

Q28. A charge of 8 µC moves at 4000 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the charge?

  • (A) 0.0128 N
  • (B) 0.0064 N
  • (C) 0.0032 N
  • (D) 0.0096 N
Show Answer

Answer: B – F = qvB sin θ with θ = 90° gives F = (8 × 10-6) × 4000 × 0.2 = 0.0064 N.

Q29. A straight wire of length 0.5 m carries a current of 2 A perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.8 T. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire?

  • (A) 1.6 N
  • (B) 0.8 N
  • (C) 0.4 N
  • (D) 1.2 N
Show Answer

Answer: B – F = BIL sin θ with θ = 90° gives F = 0.8 × 2 × 0.5 = 0.8 N.

Q30. A particle of mass 0.005 kg and charge 0.25 C moves at 30 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T. What is the radius of its circular path?

  • (A) 2.4 m
  • (B) 1.2 m
  • (C) 0.6 m
  • (D) 1.8 m
Show Answer

Answer: B – r = mv ÷ qB = (0.005 × 30) ÷ (0.25 × 0.5) = 1.2 m.


Q31. A long straight wire carries a current of 10 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance of 10 cm from the wire?

  • (A) 0.00004 T
  • (B) 0.00002 T
  • (C) 0.00001 T
  • (D) 0.00003 T
Show Answer

Answer: B – B = µ0I ÷ 2πr = 2 × 10-7 × 10 ÷ 0.1 = 0.00002 T.

Q32. A solenoid has 400 turns per metre and carries a current of 2 A. What is the magnetic field strength inside the solenoid, far from its ends? (Use µ0 = 4π × 10-7 T·m/A.)

  • (A) 0.002011 T
  • (B) 0.000503 T
  • (C) 0.001508 T
  • (D) 0.001005 T
Show Answer

Answer: D – B = µ0nI = (4π × 10-7) × 400 × 2 = 0.001005 T.

Q33. A flat loop of area 0.05 m2 sits in a uniform magnetic field of 0.8 T, with the field making an angle of 60° with the normal to the loop. What is the magnetic flux through the loop?

  • (A) 0.04 Wb
  • (B) 0.02 Wb
  • (C) 0.01 Wb
  • (D) 0.03 Wb
Show Answer

Answer: B – Flux = BA cos θ = 0.8 × 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.02 Wb.

Q34. A coil of 50 turns and area 0.1 m2 experiences a magnetic field change of 0.2 T in 0.1 s, with the field perpendicular to the coil. What is the magnitude of the induced emf in the coil?

  • (A) 20 V
  • (B) 5 V
  • (C) 10 V
  • (D) 15 V
Show Answer

Answer: C – emf = N Δflux ÷ Δt = 50 × 0.1 × 0.2 ÷ 0.1 = 10 V.

Q35. A conducting rod of length 2 m moves at 5 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T, sliding on rails as in a motional emf setup. What is the induced emf across the rod?

  • (A) 5 V
  • (B) 10 V
  • (C) 2.5 V
  • (D) 7.5 V
Show Answer

Answer: A – emf = BLv = 0.5 × 2 × 5 = 5 V.

Unit 13: Geometric Optics

Q36. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. What is the image distance? (A positive value means a real image in front of the mirror.)

  • (A) 120 cm
  • (B) 30 cm
  • (C) 60 cm
  • (D) 90 cm
Show Answer

Answer: C – 1 ÷ f = 1 ÷ do + 1 ÷ di gives 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ 30 – 1 ÷ 60, so di = 60 cm.

Q37. An object placed 50 cm from a mirror forms an image 25 cm from the mirror. What is the lateral magnification?

  • (A) -1
  • (B) -0.25
  • (C) -0.5
  • (D) -0.75
Show Answer

Answer: C – m = -di ÷ do = -25 ÷ 50 = -0.5.

Q38. An object is placed 30 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 15 cm. What is the image distance? (A positive value means a real image on the opposite side of the lens.)

  • (A) 60 cm
  • (B) 15 cm
  • (C) 45 cm
  • (D) 30 cm
Show Answer

Answer: D – 1 ÷ f = 1 ÷ do + 1 ÷ di gives 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ 15 – 1 ÷ 30, so di = 30 cm.

Q39. A light ray in air (n = 1) strikes a glass block at an angle of incidence of 30° and refracts at an angle of 45° to the normal. What is the refractive index of the glass? (Use sin 30° = 0.5 and sin 45° = 0.707.)

  • (A) 1.06
  • (B) 1.41
  • (C) 0.71
  • (D) 0.35
Show Answer

Answer: C – Snell’s law: n1 sin θ1 = n2 sin θ2, so n2 = 0.5 ÷ 0.707 = 0.71.

Q40. Light inside a material of refractive index 1.5 strikes the boundary with air. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection?

  • (A) 48.2 °
  • (B) 41.8 °
  • (C) 20.9 °
  • (D) 62.7 °
Show Answer

Answer: B – sin θc = 1 ÷ n = 1 ÷ 1.5 = 0.666667, so θc = 41.81°.

Q41. Light travels at 200000000 m/s in a transparent solid. Taking the speed of light in a vacuum as 3 × 108 m/s, what is the refractive index of the solid?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 0.75
  • (C) 2.25
  • (D) 1.5
Show Answer

Answer: D – n = c ÷ v = (3 × 108) ÷ 200000000 = 1.5.

Q42. A spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of 30 cm. What is its focal length?

  • (A) 30 cm
  • (B) 7.5 cm
  • (C) 22.5 cm
  • (D) 15 cm
Show Answer

Answer: D – f = R ÷ 2 = 30 ÷ 2 = 15 cm.

Q43. An object is placed 10 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 25 cm, inside the focal point. What is the image distance? (A negative value means a virtual image on the same side as the object.)

  • (A) 16.667 cm
  • (B) -33.333 cm
  • (C) -8.333 cm
  • (D) -16.667 cm
Show Answer

Answer: D – 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ f – 1 ÷ do = 1 ÷ 25 – 1 ÷ 10 = -0.06, so di = -16.667 cm.

Unit 14: Waves, Sound, and Physical Optics

Q44. A wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a wavelength of 1 m. What is its speed?

  • (A) 400 m/s
  • (B) 100 m/s
  • (C) 300 m/s
  • (D) 200 m/s
Show Answer

Answer: D – v = fλ = 200 × 1 = 200 m/s.

Q45. An oscillator completes one full cycle in 0.1 s. What is its frequency?

  • (A) 20 Hz
  • (B) 5 Hz
  • (C) 10 Hz
  • (D) 15 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: C – f = 1 ÷ T = 1 ÷ 0.1 = 10 Hz.

Q46. A sound source radiates 50 W uniformly in all directions. What is the sound intensity at a distance of 5 m from the source? (Use π = 3.14.)

  • (A) 0.31831 W/m2
  • (B) 0.159155 W/m2
  • (C) 0.079577 W/m2
  • (D) 0.238732 W/m2
Show Answer

Answer: B – I = P ÷ 4πr2 = 50 ÷ (4 × 3.14 × 52) = 0.159155 W/m2.

Q47. A string of length 2 m, fixed at both ends, supports waves travelling at 300 m/s. What is the frequency of its 3th harmonic?

  • (A) 450 Hz
  • (B) 112 Hz
  • (C) 338 Hz
  • (D) 225 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: D – For a string fixed at both ends, fn = nv ÷ 2L = 3 × 300 ÷ (2 × 2) = 225 Hz.

Q48. An air column of length 0.25 m, closed at one end, has a fundamental frequency given by v ÷ 4L with v = 343 m/s. What is its fundamental frequency?

  • (A) 686 Hz
  • (B) 172 Hz
  • (C) 343 Hz
  • (D) 514 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: C – f1 = v ÷ 4L = 343 ÷ (4 × 0.25) = 343 Hz.

Q49. Two tuning forks of frequencies 800 Hz and 808 Hz sound together. What is the beat frequency heard?

  • (A) 16 Hz
  • (B) 4 Hz
  • (C) 12 Hz
  • (D) 8 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: D – Beat frequency = |f1 – f2| = |800 – 808| = 8 Hz.

Q50. In a double-slit experiment, light of wavelength 650 nm passes through slits 0.2 mm apart, with a screen 2 m away. What is the distance from the central bright fringe to the first bright fringe on the screen?

  • (A) 1.3 cm
  • (B) 0.325 cm
  • (C) 0.65 cm
  • (D) 0.975 cm
Show Answer

Answer: C – y = λL ÷ d = (650 × 10-9 × 2) ÷ (0.2 × 10-3) = 0.0065 m = 0.65 cm.

Q51. A siren emitting 600 Hz moves toward a stationary observer at 60 m/s. Taking the speed of sound as 343 m/s, what frequency does the observer hear?

  • (A) 511 Hz
  • (B) 727 Hz
  • (C) 600 Hz
  • (D) 873 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: B – f’ = f × v ÷ (v – vs) = 600 × 343 ÷ (343 – 60) = 727 Hz.

Unit 15: Modern Physics

Q52. What is the energy, in electron-volts, of a violet photon of wavelength 400 nm? (Use hc = 1240 eV·nm.)

  • (A) 3.1 eV
  • (B) 6.2 eV
  • (C) 1.55 eV
  • (D) 4.65 eV
Show Answer

Answer: A – E = hc ÷ λ = 1240 ÷ 400 = 3.1 eV.

Q53. Light of photon energy 3 eV strikes a potassium surface whose work function is 1 eV. What is the maximum kinetic energy of an emitted photoelectron?

  • (A) 4 eV
  • (B) 1 eV
  • (C) 2 eV
  • (D) 3 eV
Show Answer

Answer: C – KEmax = hf – work function = 3 – 1 = 2 eV.

Q54. An electron of mass 9.11 × 10-31 kg moves at 2000000 m/s. What is its de Broglie wavelength? (Use h = 6.63 × 10-34 J·s.)

  • (A) 0.728 nm
  • (B) 0.182 nm
  • (C) 0.364 nm
  • (D) 0.546 nm
Show Answer

Answer: C – λ = h ÷ mv = (6.63 × 10-34) ÷ (9.11 × 10-31 × 2000000) = 0.363886 nm.

Q55. What is the energy of a hydrogen atom in the n = 4 energy level? (Ground-state energy is -13.6 eV.)

  • (A) -54.4 eV
  • (B) -0.85 eV
  • (C) 0.85 eV
  • (D) -3.4 eV
Show Answer

Answer: B – En = -13.6 ÷ n2 = -13.6 ÷ 16 = -0.85 eV.

Q56. A hydrogen atom drops from the n = 5 level to the n = 1 level. What is the energy of the photon emitted?

  • (A) 13.06 eV
  • (B) 6.53 eV
  • (C) 26.11 eV
  • (D) 0.54 eV
Show Answer

Answer: A – ΔE = 13.6 × (1 ÷ 1 – 1 ÷ 25) = 13.06 eV.

Q57. A nucleus has a mass defect of 0.01 u. What is its total binding energy in MeV? (1 u corresponds to 931.5 MeV.)

  • (A) 9.315 MeV
  • (B) 18.63 MeV
  • (C) 4.657 MeV
  • (D) 13.973 MeV
Show Answer

Answer: A – Binding energy = mass defect × 931.5 MeV/u = 0.01 × 931.5 = 9.315 MeV.

Q58. An cobalt-60 sample of mass 64 g decays through 3 half-lives. What mass remains?

  • (A) 8 g
  • (B) 16 g
  • (C) 4 g
  • (D) 12 g
Show Answer

Answer: A – After 3 half-lives the fraction remaining is (1 ÷ 2)3 = 0.125, so mass = 64 × 0.125 = 8 g.

Q59. A clock moving at 0.6c relative to an observer ticks with a proper time interval of 2 s between two events. What time interval does the stationary observer measure?

  • (A) 1.6 s
  • (B) 2 s
  • (C) 2.5 s
  • (D) 3.75 s
Show Answer

Answer: C – With v = 0.6c, the Lorentz factor is 1.25, so Δt = 1.25 × 2 = 2.5 s.

Q60. A rod of proper length 50 m moves at 0.8c relative to an observer. What length does the observer measure?

  • (A) 30 m
  • (B) 83.34 m
  • (C) 50 m
  • (D) 15 m
Show Answer

Answer: A – L = L0 ÷ gamma = 50 ÷ 1.667 = 30 m.

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