AP Physics 2 Practice Test 2 – 60 Questions with Answers

Test yourself with 60 original AP Physics 2 practice questions covering all 7 units of the course: thermodynamics, electric force, field, and potential, electric circuits, magnetism and electromagnetism, geometric optics, waves, sound, and physical optics, and modern physics. Every answer includes the full working. All questions are algebra-based (no calculus). Take g = 9.8 m/s2 where relevant.

Unit 9: Thermodynamics

Q1. A sealed container holds 4 mol of helium in a volume of 60 L at a temperature of 349 K. What is the pressure of the gas? (Use R = 8.31 J/(mol.K).)

  • (A) 386692 Pa
  • (B) 96673 Pa
  • (C) 193346 Pa
  • (D) 290019 Pa
Show Answer

Answer: C – PV = nRT gives P = nRT ÷ V = (4 × 8.31 × 349) ÷ 0.06 = 193346 Pa.

Q2. A piston chamber contains gas at constant pressure with an initial volume of 24 L at 240 K. The volume changes to 60 L. What is the new temperature of the gas?

  • (A) 1200 K
  • (B) 600 K
  • (C) 300 K
  • (D) 900 K
Show Answer

Answer: B – At constant pressure, V ÷ T is constant, so T2 = T1 × V2 ÷ V1 = 240 × 60 ÷ 24 = 600 K.

Q3. A air sample absorbs 950 J of heat while doing 450 J of work on its surroundings. What is the change in internal energy of the gas?

  • (A) 1000 J
  • (B) 500 J
  • (C) 250 J
  • (D) 750 J
Show Answer

Answer: B – First law: ΔU = Q – W = 950 – 450 = 500 J.

Q4. A gas expands at a constant pressure of 90 kPa, increasing its volume by 4 L. How much work is done by the gas?

  • (A) 720 J
  • (B) 360 J
  • (C) 180 J
  • (D) 540 J
Show Answer

Answer: B – W = PΔV = 90 kPa × 4 L = 360 J, since 1 kPa × 1 L = 1 J.

Q5. A aluminium block of mass 3 kg is heated through a temperature rise of 60 °C. The specific heat capacity of the material is 900 J/(kg°C). How much heat is supplied?

  • (A) 324000 J
  • (B) 81000 J
  • (C) 162000 J
  • (D) 243000 J
Show Answer

Answer: C – Q = mcΔT = 3 × 900 × 60 = 162000 J.

Q6. A Carnot engine operates between a hot reservoir at 900 K and a cold reservoir at 290 K. What is its maximum possible efficiency?

  • (A) 102 %
  • (B) 33.89 %
  • (C) 67.78 %
  • (D) 32.22 %
Show Answer

Answer: C – Efficiency = (1 – Tc ÷ Th) × 100% = (1 – 290 ÷ 900) × 100% = 67.78%.

Q7. A heat engine takes in 3000 J of heat in each cycle and rejects 800 J to the cold reservoir. What is the efficiency of the engine?

  • (A) 26.67 %
  • (B) 73.33 %
  • (C) 36.67 %
  • (D) 80.663 %
Show Answer

Answer: B – Work per cycle W = Qh – Qc = 3000 – 800 = 2200 J. Efficiency = W ÷ Qh × 100% = 2200 ÷ 3000 × 100% = 73.33%.

Q8. A fixed volume of gas has a pressure of 100 kPa at 300 K. It is heated to 560 K at constant volume. What is its new pressure?

  • (A) 373 kPa
  • (B) 93.333 kPa
  • (C) 187 kPa
  • (D) 280 kPa
Show Answer

Answer: C – At constant volume, P ÷ T is constant, so P2 = P1 × T2 ÷ T1 = 100 × 560 ÷ 300 = 187 kPa.

Q9. Two samples of the same liquid, of masses 3 kg at 100 °C and 1 kg at 10 °C, are mixed in an insulated container. What is the final temperature of the mixture? (Ignore heat loss.)

  • (A) 55 °C
  • (B) 90 °C
  • (C) 77.5 °C
  • (D) 116 °C
Show Answer

Answer: C – Heat lost = heat gained, so for the same material Tf = (m1T1 + m2T2) ÷ (m1 + m2) = (3 × 100 + 1 × 10) ÷ 4 = 77.5 °C.

Unit 10: Electric Force, Field, and Potential

Q10. Two charged beads carry charges of 6 µC and 9 µC and are 40 cm apart in a vacuum. What is the magnitude of the electrostatic force between them? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 6.075 N
  • (B) 1.519 N
  • (C) 3.037 N
  • (D) 4.556 N
Show Answer

Answer: C – F = kq1q2 ÷ r2 = (9 × 109 × 6 × 10-6 × 9 × 10-6) ÷ 0.42 = 3.037 N.

Q11. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance of 20 cm from a point charge of 16 µC in a vacuum? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 7200000 N/C
  • (B) 1800000 N/C
  • (C) 3600000 N/C
  • (D) 5400000 N/C
Show Answer

Answer: C – E = kQ ÷ r2 = (9 × 109 × 16 × 10-6) ÷ 0.22 = 3600000 N/C.

Q12. Two parallel plates are 10 mm apart with a potential difference of 180 V between them. What is the magnitude of the uniform electric field between the plates?

  • (A) 36000 N/C
  • (B) 9000 N/C
  • (C) 18000 N/C
  • (D) 27000 N/C
Show Answer

Answer: C – E = V ÷ d = 180 ÷ 0.01 = 18000 N/C.

Q13. What is the electric potential at a distance of 40 cm from a point charge of 18 µC in a vacuum? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 405000 V
  • (B) 810000 V
  • (C) 202500 V
  • (D) 607500 V
Show Answer

Answer: A – V = kQ ÷ r = (9 × 109 × 18 × 10-6) ÷ 0.4 = 405000 V.

Q14. A charge of 4 µC is placed at a point where the electric potential is 300 V. What is its electric potential energy?

  • (A) 0.0024 J
  • (B) 0.0012 J
  • (C) 0.0006 J
  • (D) 0.0018 J
Show Answer

Answer: B – U = qV = (4 × 10-6) × 300 = 0.0012 J.

Q15. A charge of 2 µC is placed in a uniform electric field of strength 3000 N/C. What is the magnitude of the electric force on the charge?

  • (A) 0.012 N
  • (B) 0.003 N
  • (C) 0.009 N
  • (D) 0.006 N
Show Answer

Answer: D – F = qE = (2 × 10-6) × 3000 = 0.006 N.

Q16. A uniform electric field of 800 N/C points along a straight path of length 40 cm. What is the potential difference between the ends of the path?

  • (A) 640 V
  • (B) 160 V
  • (C) 320 V
  • (D) 480 V
Show Answer

Answer: C – ΔV = Ed = 800 × 0.4 = 320 V.

Q17. A stationary charge of 1 µC is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 800 V. What kinetic energy does it gain? (Ignore gravity.)

  • (A) 0.0016 J
  • (B) 0.0004 J
  • (C) 0.0012 J
  • (D) 0.0008 J
Show Answer

Answer: D – Kinetic energy gained = qΔV = (1 × 10-6) × 800 = 0.0008 J.

Q18. Two point charges exert a force of 48 N on each other. If one charge is doubled while everything else stays the same, what is the new force between them?

  • (A) 96 N
  • (B) 192 N
  • (C) 48 N
  • (D) 144 N
Show Answer

Answer: A – Coulomb’s law gives F proportional to q1q2 ÷ r2. For this change the force is multiplied by 2, so F = 48 × 2 = 96 N.

Unit 11: Electric Circuits

Q19. A resistor of resistance 4 Ω is connected across a 18 V battery. What current flows through it? (Ignore internal resistance.)

  • (A) 9 A
  • (B) 4.5 A
  • (C) 2.25 A
  • (D) 6.75 A
Show Answer

Answer: B – I = V ÷ R = 18 ÷ 4 = 4.5 A.

Q20. Three resistors of 20 Ω, 15 Ω and 30 Ω are connected in series. What is their combined resistance?

  • (A) 130 Ω
  • (B) 65 Ω
  • (C) 32.5 Ω
  • (D) 97.5 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: B – For series resistors, R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 20 + 15 + 30 = 65 Ω.

Q21. Resistors of 12 Ω and 4 Ω are connected in parallel. What is their combined resistance?

  • (A) 3 Ω
  • (B) 6 Ω
  • (C) 1.5 Ω
  • (D) 4.5 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: A – 1 ÷ R = 1 ÷ 12 + 1 ÷ 4, so R = (12 × 4) ÷ (12 + 4) = 3 Ω.

Q22. A lamp operates at 60 V and draws a current of 1.5 A. What power does it use?

  • (A) 180 W
  • (B) 45 W
  • (C) 90 W
  • (D) 135 W
Show Answer

Answer: C – P = VI = 60 × 1.5 = 90 W.

Q23. A washing machine rated at 1500 W runs for 4 hours. How much electrical energy does it use, in kilowatt-hours?

  • (A) 12 kWh
  • (B) 3 kWh
  • (C) 9 kWh
  • (D) 6 kWh
Show Answer

Answer: D – Energy = Pt = 1500 W × 4 h = 6000 Wh = 6 kWh.

Q24. A cell of emf 9 V and internal resistance 2 Ω is connected to an external resistor of 5 Ω. What current flows in the circuit?

  • (A) 2.571 A
  • (B) 1.286 A
  • (C) 0.642857 A
  • (D) 1.929 A
Show Answer

Answer: B – I = emf ÷ (R + r) = 9 ÷ (5 + 2) = 9 ÷ 7 = 1.286 A.

Q25. In a parallel circuit, one branch of resistance 12 Ω is connected across a 60 V supply. What current flows through that branch?

  • (A) 10 A
  • (B) 2.5 A
  • (C) 5 A
  • (D) 7.5 A
Show Answer

Answer: C – The branch has the full supply voltage, so I = V ÷ R = 60 ÷ 12 = 5 A.

Q26. A wire has a resistance of 40 Ω. If its cross-sectional area is doubled while the material and temperature stay the same, what is its new resistance?

  • (A) 40 Ω
  • (B) 10 Ω
  • (C) 20 Ω
  • (D) 30 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: C – R = ρL ÷ A, so resistance scales as described: R = 40 × 0.5 = 20 Ω.

Q27. Resistors of 8 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series with a 10 Ω resistor. What is the total resistance of the circuit?

  • (A) 28 Ω
  • (B) 14 Ω
  • (C) 7 Ω
  • (D) 21 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: B – Parallel part = (8 × 8) ÷ (8 + 8) = 4 Ω. Total = 4 + 10 = 14 Ω.

Unit 12: Magnetism and Electromagnetism

Q28. A charge of 10 µC moves at 4000 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the charge?

  • (A) 0.016 N
  • (B) 0.032 N
  • (C) 0.008 N
  • (D) 0.024 N
Show Answer

Answer: A – F = qvB sin θ with θ = 90° gives F = (10 × 10-6) × 4000 × 0.4 = 0.016 N.

Q29. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 6 A perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.6 T. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire?

  • (A) 7.2 N
  • (B) 14.4 N
  • (C) 3.6 N
  • (D) 10.8 N
Show Answer

Answer: A – F = BIL sin θ with θ = 90° gives F = 0.6 × 6 × 2 = 7.2 N.

Q30. A particle of mass 0.005 kg and charge 2 C moves at 30 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 1.0 T. What is the radius of its circular path?

  • (A) 0.15 m
  • (B) 0.0375 m
  • (C) 0.075 m
  • (D) 0.1125 m
Show Answer

Answer: C – r = mv ÷ qB = (0.005 × 30) ÷ (2 × 1.0) = 0.075 m.


Q31. A long straight wire carries a current of 5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance of 5 cm from the wire?

  • (A) 0.00004 T
  • (B) 0.00001 T
  • (C) 0.00003 T
  • (D) 0.00002 T
Show Answer

Answer: D – B = µ0I ÷ 2πr = 2 × 10-7 × 5 ÷ 0.05 = 0.00002 T.

Q32. A solenoid has 400 turns per metre and carries a current of 5 A. What is the magnetic field strength inside the solenoid, far from its ends? (Use µ0 = 4π × 10-7 T·m/A.)

  • (A) 0.005027 T
  • (B) 0.001257 T
  • (C) 0.00377 T
  • (D) 0.002513 T
Show Answer

Answer: D – B = µ0nI = (4π × 10-7) × 400 × 5 = 0.002513 T.

Q33. A flat loop of area 0.25 m2 sits in a uniform magnetic field of 1.0 T, with the field making an angle of 60° with the normal to the loop. What is the magnetic flux through the loop?

  • (A) 0.25 Wb
  • (B) 0.0625 Wb
  • (C) 0.1875 Wb
  • (D) 0.125 Wb
Show Answer

Answer: D – Flux = BA cos θ = 1.0 × 0.25 × 0.5 = 0.125 Wb.

Q34. A coil of 500 turns and area 0.05 m2 experiences a magnetic field change of 0.2 T in 0.25 s, with the field perpendicular to the coil. What is the magnitude of the induced emf in the coil?

  • (A) 40 V
  • (B) 10 V
  • (C) 20 V
  • (D) 30 V
Show Answer

Answer: C – emf = N Δflux ÷ Δt = 500 × 0.05 × 0.2 ÷ 0.25 = 20 V.

Q35. A conducting rod of length 1 m moves at 4 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T, sliding on rails as in a motional emf setup. What is the induced emf across the rod?

  • (A) 0.8 V
  • (B) 1.6 V
  • (C) 0.4 V
  • (D) 1.2 V
Show Answer

Answer: A – emf = BLv = 0.2 × 1 × 4 = 0.8 V.

Unit 13: Geometric Optics

Q36. An object is placed 60 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. What is the image distance? (A positive value means a real image in front of the mirror.)

  • (A) 60 cm
  • (B) 30 cm
  • (C) 15 cm
  • (D) 45 cm
Show Answer

Answer: B – 1 ÷ f = 1 ÷ do + 1 ÷ di gives 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ 20 – 1 ÷ 60, so di = 30 cm.

Q37. An object placed 20 cm from a mirror forms an image 40 cm from the mirror. What is the lateral magnification?

  • (A) -2
  • (B) -4
  • (C) -1
  • (D) -3
Show Answer

Answer: A – m = -di ÷ do = -40 ÷ 20 = -2.

Q38. An object is placed 24 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 12 cm. What is the image distance? (A positive value means a real image on the opposite side of the lens.)

  • (A) 24 cm
  • (B) 48 cm
  • (C) 12 cm
  • (D) 36 cm
Show Answer

Answer: A – 1 ÷ f = 1 ÷ do + 1 ÷ di gives 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ 12 – 1 ÷ 24, so di = 24 cm.

Q39. A light ray in air (n = 1) strikes a glass block at an angle of incidence of 45° and refracts at an angle of 30° to the normal. What is the refractive index of the glass? (Use sin 45° = 0.707 and sin 30° = 0.5.)

  • (A) 1.41
  • (B) 2.12
  • (C) 0.71
  • (D) 1.551
Show Answer

Answer: A – Snell’s law: n1 sin θ1 = n2 sin θ2, so n2 = 0.707 ÷ 0.5 = 1.41.

Q40. Light inside a material of refractive index 1.33 strikes the boundary with air. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection?

  • (A) 48.8 °
  • (B) 41.2 °
  • (C) 24.4 °
  • (D) 73.1 °
Show Answer

Answer: A – sin θc = 1 ÷ n = 1 ÷ 1.33 = 0.75188, so θc = 48.75°.

Q41. Light travels at 150000000 m/s in a transparent solid. Taking the speed of light in a vacuum as 3 × 108 m/s, what is the refractive index of the solid?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2
Show Answer

Answer: D – n = c ÷ v = (3 × 108) ÷ 150000000 = 2.

Q42. A spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of 80 cm. What is its focal length?

  • (A) 80 cm
  • (B) 40 cm
  • (C) 20 cm
  • (D) 60 cm
Show Answer

Answer: B – f = R ÷ 2 = 80 ÷ 2 = 40 cm.

Q43. An object is placed 15 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 30 cm, inside the focal point. What is the image distance? (A negative value means a virtual image on the same side as the object.)

  • (A) 30 cm
  • (B) -30 cm
  • (C) -60 cm
  • (D) -15 cm
Show Answer

Answer: B – 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ f – 1 ÷ do = 1 ÷ 30 – 1 ÷ 15 = -0.033333, so di = -30 cm.

Unit 14: Waves, Sound, and Physical Optics

Q44. A wave has a frequency of 120 Hz and a wavelength of 1 m. What is its speed?

  • (A) 240 m/s
  • (B) 60 m/s
  • (C) 180 m/s
  • (D) 120 m/s
Show Answer

Answer: D – v = fλ = 120 × 1 = 120 m/s.

Q45. An oscillator completes one full cycle in 2.5 s. What is its frequency?

  • (A) 0.4 Hz
  • (B) 1 Hz
  • (C) 0.25 Hz
  • (D) 0.75 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: A – f = 1 ÷ T = 1 ÷ 2.5 = 0.4 Hz.

Q46. A sound source radiates 50 W uniformly in all directions. What is the sound intensity at a distance of 1 m from the source? (Use π = 3.14.)

  • (A) 7.958 W/m2
  • (B) 1.989 W/m2
  • (C) 5.968 W/m2
  • (D) 3.979 W/m2
Show Answer

Answer: D – I = P ÷ 4πr2 = 50 ÷ (4 × 3.14 × 12) = 3.979 W/m2.

Q47. A string of length 0.75 m, fixed at both ends, supports waves travelling at 400 m/s. What is the frequency of its 2th harmonic?

  • (A) 1067 Hz
  • (B) 267 Hz
  • (C) 533 Hz
  • (D) 800 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: C – For a string fixed at both ends, fn = nv ÷ 2L = 2 × 400 ÷ (2 × 0.75) = 533 Hz.

Q48. An air column of length 1.7 m, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency given by v ÷ 2L with v = 343 m/s. What is its fundamental frequency?

  • (A) 202 Hz
  • (B) 101 Hz
  • (C) 50.441 Hz
  • (D) 151 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: B – f1 = v ÷ 2L = 343 ÷ (2 × 1.7) = 101 Hz.

Q49. Two tuning forks of frequencies 800 Hz and 805 Hz sound together. What is the beat frequency heard?

  • (A) 10 Hz
  • (B) 2.5 Hz
  • (C) 7.5 Hz
  • (D) 5 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: D – Beat frequency = |f1 – f2| = |800 – 805| = 5 Hz.

Q50. In a double-slit experiment, light of wavelength 500 nm passes through slits 0.25 mm apart, with a screen 1.5 m away. What is the distance from the central bright fringe to the first bright fringe on the screen?

  • (A) 0.6 cm
  • (B) 0.15 cm
  • (C) 0.45 cm
  • (D) 0.3 cm
Show Answer

Answer: D – y = λL ÷ d = (500 × 10-9 × 1.5) ÷ (0.25 × 10-3) = 0.003 m = 0.3 cm.

Q51. A siren emitting 600 Hz moves toward a stationary observer at 30 m/s. Taking the speed of sound as 343 m/s, what frequency does the observer hear?

  • (A) 658 Hz
  • (B) 552 Hz
  • (C) 600 Hz
  • (D) 789 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: A – f’ = f × v ÷ (v – vs) = 600 × 343 ÷ (343 – 30) = 658 Hz.

Unit 15: Modern Physics

Q52. What is the energy, in electron-volts, of a blue photon of wavelength 450 nm? (Use hc = 1240 eV·nm.)

  • (A) 5.51 eV
  • (B) 1.38 eV
  • (C) 4.13 eV
  • (D) 2.76 eV
Show Answer

Answer: D – E = hc ÷ λ = 1240 ÷ 450 = 2.76 eV.

Q53. Light of photon energy 2.5 eV strikes a sodium surface whose work function is 1.5 eV. What is the maximum kinetic energy of an emitted photoelectron?

  • (A) 2 eV
  • (B) 0.5 eV
  • (C) 1.5 eV
  • (D) 1 eV
Show Answer

Answer: D – KEmax = hf – work function = 2.5 – 1.5 = 1 eV.

Q54. An electron of mass 9.11 × 10-31 kg moves at 1500000 m/s. What is its de Broglie wavelength? (Use h = 6.63 × 10-34 J·s.)

  • (A) 0.97 nm
  • (B) 0.2425 nm
  • (C) 0.7275 nm
  • (D) 0.485 nm
Show Answer

Answer: D – λ = h ÷ mv = (6.63 × 10-34) ÷ (9.11 × 10-31 × 1500000) = 0.485181 nm.

Q55. What is the energy of a hydrogen atom in the n = 5 energy level? (Ground-state energy is -13.6 eV.)

  • (A) -68 eV
  • (B) -0.544 eV
  • (C) 0.54 eV
  • (D) -2.72 eV
Show Answer

Answer: B – En = -13.6 ÷ n2 = -13.6 ÷ 25 = -0.544 eV.

Q56. A hydrogen atom drops from the n = 3 level to the n = 1 level. What is the energy of the photon emitted?

  • (A) 12.09 eV
  • (B) 6.04 eV
  • (C) 24.18 eV
  • (D) 1.51 eV
Show Answer

Answer: A – ΔE = 13.6 × (1 ÷ 1 – 1 ÷ 9) = 12.09 eV.

Q57. A nucleus has a mass defect of 0.05 u. What is its total binding energy in MeV? (1 u corresponds to 931.5 MeV.)

  • (A) 93.15 MeV
  • (B) 23.288 MeV
  • (C) 69.863 MeV
  • (D) 46.575 MeV
Show Answer

Answer: D – Binding energy = mass defect × 931.5 MeV/u = 0.05 × 931.5 = 46.575 MeV.

Q58. An iodine-131 sample of mass 160 g decays through 3 half-lives. What mass remains?

  • (A) 20 g
  • (B) 40 g
  • (C) 10 g
  • (D) 30 g
Show Answer

Answer: A – After 3 half-lives the fraction remaining is (1 ÷ 2)3 = 0.125, so mass = 160 × 0.125 = 20 g.

Q59. A clock moving at 0.6c relative to an observer ticks with a proper time interval of 4 s between two events. What time interval does the stationary observer measure?

  • (A) 3.2 s
  • (B) 5 s
  • (C) 4 s
  • (D) 7.5 s
Show Answer

Answer: B – With v = 0.6c, the Lorentz factor is 1.25, so Δt = 1.25 × 4 = 5 s.

Q60. A rod of proper length 40 m moves at 0.8c relative to an observer. What length does the observer measure?

  • (A) 24 m
  • (B) 66.67 m
  • (C) 40 m
  • (D) 12 m
Show Answer

Answer: A – L = L0 ÷ gamma = 40 ÷ 1.667 = 24 m.

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