AP Physics 2 Practice Test 1 – 60 Questions with Answers

Test yourself with 60 original AP Physics 2 practice questions covering all 7 units of the course: thermodynamics, electric force, field, and potential, electric circuits, magnetism and electromagnetism, geometric optics, waves, sound, and physical optics, and modern physics. Every answer includes the full working. All questions are algebra-based (no calculus). Take g = 9.8 m/s2 where relevant.

Unit 9: Thermodynamics

Q1. A sealed container holds 3 mol of helium in a volume of 40 L at a temperature of 360 K. What is the pressure of the gas? (Use R = 8.31 J/(mol.K).)

  • (A) 448740 Pa
  • (B) 112185 Pa
  • (C) 224370 Pa
  • (D) 336555 Pa
Show Answer

Answer: C – PV = nRT gives P = nRT ÷ V = (3 × 8.31 × 360) ÷ 0.04 = 224370 Pa.

Q2. A weather balloon contains gas at constant pressure with an initial volume of 24 L at 360 K. The volume changes to 30 L. What is the new temperature of the gas?

  • (A) 900 K
  • (B) 450 K
  • (C) 225 K
  • (D) 675 K
Show Answer

Answer: B – At constant pressure, V ÷ T is constant, so T2 = T1 × V2 ÷ V1 = 360 × 30 ÷ 24 = 450 K.

Q3. A gas in a cylinder absorbs 1000 J of heat while doing 650 J of work on its surroundings. What is the change in internal energy of the gas?

  • (A) 700 J
  • (B) 175 J
  • (C) 525 J
  • (D) 350 J
Show Answer

Answer: D – First law: ΔU = Q – W = 1000 – 650 = 350 J.

Q4. A gas expands at a constant pressure of 80 kPa, increasing its volume by 10 L. How much work is done by the gas?

  • (A) 1600 J
  • (B) 400 J
  • (C) 1200 J
  • (D) 800 J
Show Answer

Answer: D – W = PΔV = 80 kPa × 10 L = 800 J, since 1 kPa × 1 L = 1 J.

Q5. A iron plate of mass 1 kg is heated through a temperature rise of 10 °C. The specific heat capacity of the material is 450 J/(kg°C). How much heat is supplied?

  • (A) 9000 J
  • (B) 2250 J
  • (C) 4500 J
  • (D) 6750 J
Show Answer

Answer: C – Q = mcΔT = 1 × 450 × 10 = 4500 J.

Q6. A Carnot engine operates between a hot reservoir at 900 K and a cold reservoir at 250 K. What is its maximum possible efficiency?

  • (A) 72.22 %
  • (B) 108 %
  • (C) 36.11 %
  • (D) 27.78 %
Show Answer

Answer: A – Efficiency = (1 – Tc ÷ Th) × 100% = (1 – 250 ÷ 900) × 100% = 72.22%.

Q7. A heat engine takes in 5000 J of heat in each cycle and rejects 1500 J to the cold reservoir. What is the efficiency of the engine?

  • (A) 30 %
  • (B) 35 %
  • (C) 70 %
  • (D) 77 %
Show Answer

Answer: C – Work per cycle W = Qh – Qc = 5000 – 1500 = 3500 J. Efficiency = W ÷ Qh × 100% = 3500 ÷ 5000 × 100% = 70%.

Q8. A fixed volume of gas has a pressure of 80 kPa at 320 K. It is heated to 600 K at constant volume. What is its new pressure?

  • (A) 300 kPa
  • (B) 75 kPa
  • (C) 150 kPa
  • (D) 225 kPa
Show Answer

Answer: C – At constant volume, P ÷ T is constant, so P2 = P1 × T2 ÷ T1 = 80 × 600 ÷ 320 = 150 kPa.

Q9. Two samples of the same liquid, of masses 1 kg at 80 °C and 1 kg at 30 °C, are mixed in an insulated container. What is the final temperature of the mixture? (Ignore heat loss.)

  • (A) 60.5 °C
  • (B) 50 °C
  • (C) 55 °C
  • (D) 82.5 °C
Show Answer

Answer: C – Heat lost = heat gained, so for the same material Tf = (m1T1 + m2T2) ÷ (m1 + m2) = (1 × 80 + 1 × 30) ÷ 2 = 55 °C.

Unit 10: Electric Force, Field, and Potential

Q10. Two charged balls carry charges of 2 µC and 4 µC and are 25 cm apart in a vacuum. What is the magnitude of the electrostatic force between them? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 2.304 N
  • (B) 0.576 N
  • (C) 1.152 N
  • (D) 1.728 N
Show Answer

Answer: C – F = kq1q2 ÷ r2 = (9 × 109 × 2 × 10-6 × 4 × 10-6) ÷ 0.252 = 1.152 N.

Q11. What is the magnitude of the electric field at a distance of 50 cm from a point charge of 4 µC in a vacuum? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 288000 N/C
  • (B) 72000 N/C
  • (C) 144000 N/C
  • (D) 216000 N/C
Show Answer

Answer: C – E = kQ ÷ r2 = (9 × 109 × 4 × 10-6) ÷ 0.52 = 144000 N/C.

Q12. Two parallel plates are 4 mm apart with a potential difference of 480 V between them. What is the magnitude of the uniform electric field between the plates?

  • (A) 240000 N/C
  • (B) 60000 N/C
  • (C) 180000 N/C
  • (D) 120000 N/C
Show Answer

Answer: D – E = V ÷ d = 480 ÷ 0.004 = 120000 N/C.

Q13. What is the electric potential at a distance of 40 cm from a point charge of 6 µC in a vacuum? (Use k = 9 × 109 N·m2/C2.)

  • (A) 135000 V
  • (B) 270000 V
  • (C) 67500 V
  • (D) 202500 V
Show Answer

Answer: A – V = kQ ÷ r = (9 × 109 × 6 × 10-6) ÷ 0.4 = 135000 V.

Q14. A charge of 8 µC is placed at a point where the electric potential is 1000 V. What is its electric potential energy?

  • (A) 0.016 J
  • (B) 0.008 J
  • (C) 0.004 J
  • (D) 0.012 J
Show Answer

Answer: B – U = qV = (8 × 10-6) × 1000 = 0.008 J.

Q15. A charge of 3 µC is placed in a uniform electric field of strength 10000 N/C. What is the magnitude of the electric force on the charge?

  • (A) 0.03 N
  • (B) 0.06 N
  • (C) 0.015 N
  • (D) 0.045 N
Show Answer

Answer: A – F = qE = (3 × 10-6) × 10000 = 0.03 N.

Q16. A uniform electric field of 1200 N/C points along a straight path of length 15 cm. What is the potential difference between the ends of the path?

  • (A) 180 V
  • (B) 360 V
  • (C) 90 V
  • (D) 270 V
Show Answer

Answer: A – ΔV = Ed = 1200 × 0.15 = 180 V.

Q17. A stationary charge of 4 µC is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 500 V. What kinetic energy does it gain? (Ignore gravity.)

  • (A) 0.004 J
  • (B) 0.001 J
  • (C) 0.003 J
  • (D) 0.002 J
Show Answer

Answer: D – Kinetic energy gained = qΔV = (4 × 10-6) × 500 = 0.002 J.

Q18. Two point charges exert a force of 18 N on each other. If the distance between them is doubled while everything else stays the same, what is the new force between them?

  • (A) 4.5 N
  • (B) 9 N
  • (C) 2.25 N
  • (D) 6.75 N
Show Answer

Answer: A – Coulomb’s law gives F proportional to q1q2 ÷ r2. For this change the force is multiplied by 0.25, so F = 18 × 0.25 = 4.5 N.

Unit 11: Electric Circuits

Q19. A motor of resistance 10 Ω is connected across a 30 V battery. What current flows through it? (Ignore internal resistance.)

  • (A) 6 A
  • (B) 3 A
  • (C) 1.5 A
  • (D) 4.5 A
Show Answer

Answer: B – I = V ÷ R = 30 ÷ 10 = 3 A.

Q20. Three resistors of 15 Ω, 5 Ω and 30 Ω are connected in series. What is their combined resistance?

  • (A) 50 Ω
  • (B) 100 Ω
  • (C) 25 Ω
  • (D) 75 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: A – For series resistors, R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 15 + 5 + 30 = 50 Ω.

Q21. Resistors of 30 Ω and 10 Ω are connected in parallel. What is their combined resistance?

  • (A) 15 Ω
  • (B) 3.75 Ω
  • (C) 11.25 Ω
  • (D) 7.5 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: D – 1 ÷ R = 1 ÷ 30 + 1 ÷ 10, so R = (30 × 10) ÷ (30 + 10) = 7.5 Ω.

Q22. A kettle operates at 24 V and draws a current of 2 A. What power does it use?

  • (A) 96 W
  • (B) 24 W
  • (C) 48 W
  • (D) 72 W
Show Answer

Answer: C – P = VI = 24 × 2 = 48 W.

Q23. A washing machine rated at 2000 W runs for 3 hours. How much electrical energy does it use, in kilowatt-hours?

  • (A) 12 kWh
  • (B) 6 kWh
  • (C) 3 kWh
  • (D) 9 kWh
Show Answer

Answer: B – Energy = Pt = 2000 W × 3 h = 6000 Wh = 6 kWh.

Q24. A cell of emf 36 V and internal resistance 3 Ω is connected to an external resistor of 14 Ω. What current flows in the circuit?

  • (A) 2.118 A
  • (B) 4.235 A
  • (C) 1.059 A
  • (D) 3.176 A
Show Answer

Answer: A – I = emf ÷ (R + r) = 36 ÷ (14 + 3) = 36 ÷ 17 = 2.118 A.

Q25. In a parallel circuit, one branch of resistance 4 Ω is connected across a 24 V supply. What current flows through that branch?

  • (A) 12 A
  • (B) 3 A
  • (C) 9 A
  • (D) 6 A
Show Answer

Answer: D – The branch has the full supply voltage, so I = V ÷ R = 24 ÷ 4 = 6 A.

Q26. A wire has a resistance of 20 Ω. If its length is halved while the material and temperature stay the same, what is its new resistance?

  • (A) 20 Ω
  • (B) 5 Ω
  • (C) 10 Ω
  • (D) 15 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: C – R = ρL ÷ A, so resistance scales as described: R = 20 × 0.5 = 10 Ω.

Q27. Resistors of 8 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected in series with a 6 Ω resistor. What is the total resistance of the circuit?

  • (A) 20 Ω
  • (B) 5 Ω
  • (C) 10 Ω
  • (D) 15 Ω
Show Answer

Answer: C – Parallel part = (8 × 8) ÷ (8 + 8) = 4 Ω. Total = 4 + 6 = 10 Ω.

Unit 12: Magnetism and Electromagnetism

Q28. A charge of 8 µC moves at 5000 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the charge?

  • (A) 0.016 N
  • (B) 0.032 N
  • (C) 0.008 N
  • (D) 0.024 N
Show Answer

Answer: A – F = qvB sin θ with θ = 90° gives F = (8 × 10-6) × 5000 × 0.4 = 0.016 N.

Q29. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 3 A perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T. What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire?

  • (A) 2.4 N
  • (B) 0.6 N
  • (C) 1.8 N
  • (D) 1.2 N
Show Answer

Answer: D – F = BIL sin θ with θ = 90° gives F = 0.2 × 3 × 2 = 1.2 N.

Q30. A particle of mass 0.01 kg and charge 0.25 C moves at 40 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T. What is the radius of its circular path?

  • (A) 8 m
  • (B) 4 m
  • (C) 2 m
  • (D) 6 m
Show Answer

Answer: B – r = mv ÷ qB = (0.01 × 40) ÷ (0.25 × 0.4) = 4 m.


Q31. A long straight wire carries a current of 10 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance of 5 cm from the wire?

  • (A) 0.00008 T
  • (B) 0.00002 T
  • (C) 0.00004 T
  • (D) 0.00006 T
Show Answer

Answer: C – B = µ0I ÷ 2πr = 2 × 10-7 × 10 ÷ 0.05 = 0.00004 T.

Q32. A solenoid has 800 turns per metre and carries a current of 3 A. What is the magnetic field strength inside the solenoid, far from its ends? (Use µ0 = 4π × 10-7 T·m/A.)

  • (A) 0.006032 T
  • (B) 0.001508 T
  • (C) 0.003016 T
  • (D) 0.004524 T
Show Answer

Answer: C – B = µ0nI = (4π × 10-7) × 800 × 3 = 0.003016 T.

Q33. A flat loop of area 0.02 m2 sits in a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T, with the field making an angle of 60° with the normal to the loop. What is the magnetic flux through the loop?

  • (A) 0.008 Wb
  • (B) 0.002 Wb
  • (C) 0.006 Wb
  • (D) 0.004 Wb
Show Answer

Answer: D – Flux = BA cos θ = 0.4 × 0.02 × 0.5 = 0.004 Wb.

Q34. A coil of 250 turns and area 0.02 m2 experiences a magnetic field change of 0.8 T in 0.25 s, with the field perpendicular to the coil. What is the magnitude of the induced emf in the coil?

  • (A) 16 V
  • (B) 32 V
  • (C) 8 V
  • (D) 24 V
Show Answer

Answer: A – emf = N Δflux ÷ Δt = 250 × 0.02 × 0.8 ÷ 0.25 = 16 V.

Q35. A conducting rod of length 0.5 m moves at 2 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T, sliding on rails as in a motional emf setup. What is the induced emf across the rod?

  • (A) 0.8 V
  • (B) 0.4 V
  • (C) 0.2 V
  • (D) 0.6 V
Show Answer

Answer: B – emf = BLv = 0.4 × 0.5 × 2 = 0.4 V.

Unit 13: Geometric Optics

Q36. An object is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. What is the image distance? (A positive value means a real image in front of the mirror.)

  • (A) 30 cm
  • (B) 15 cm
  • (C) 7.5 cm
  • (D) 22.5 cm
Show Answer

Answer: B – 1 ÷ f = 1 ÷ do + 1 ÷ di gives 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ 10 – 1 ÷ 30, so di = 15 cm.

Q37. An object placed 45 cm from a mirror forms an image 22.5 cm from the mirror. What is the lateral magnification?

  • (A) -1
  • (B) -0.25
  • (C) -0.5
  • (D) -0.75
Show Answer

Answer: C – m = -di ÷ do = -22.5 ÷ 45 = -0.5.

Q38. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. What is the image distance? (A positive value means a real image on the opposite side of the lens.)

  • (A) 20 cm
  • (B) 40 cm
  • (C) 10 cm
  • (D) 30 cm
Show Answer

Answer: A – 1 ÷ f = 1 ÷ do + 1 ÷ di gives 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ 10 – 1 ÷ 20, so di = 20 cm.

Q39. A light ray in air (n = 1) strikes a glass block at an angle of incidence of 60° and refracts at an angle of 30° to the normal. What is the refractive index of the glass? (Use sin 60° = 0.866 and sin 30° = 0.5.)

  • (A) 2.6
  • (B) 0.58
  • (C) 1.73
  • (D) 0.87
Show Answer

Answer: C – Snell’s law: n1 sin θ1 = n2 sin θ2, so n2 = 0.866 ÷ 0.5 = 1.73.

Q40. Light inside a material of refractive index 2.42 strikes the boundary with air. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection?

  • (A) 65.6 °
  • (B) 12.2 °
  • (C) 36.6 °
  • (D) 24.4 °
Show Answer

Answer: D – sin θc = 1 ÷ n = 1 ÷ 2.42 = 0.413223, so θc = 24.41°.

Q41. Light travels at 120000000 m/s in a transparent solid. Taking the speed of light in a vacuum as 3 × 108 m/s, what is the refractive index of the solid?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 2.5
  • (C) 1.25
  • (D) 3.75
Show Answer

Answer: B – n = c ÷ v = (3 × 108) ÷ 120000000 = 2.5.

Q42. A spherical mirror has a radius of curvature of 50 cm. What is its focal length?

  • (A) 50 cm
  • (B) 12.5 cm
  • (C) 37.5 cm
  • (D) 25 cm
Show Answer

Answer: D – f = R ÷ 2 = 50 ÷ 2 = 25 cm.

Q43. An object is placed 10 cm in front of a converging lens of focal length 20 cm, inside the focal point. What is the image distance? (A negative value means a virtual image on the same side as the object.)

  • (A) 20 cm
  • (B) -20 cm
  • (C) -40 cm
  • (D) -10 cm
Show Answer

Answer: B – 1 ÷ di = 1 ÷ f – 1 ÷ do = 1 ÷ 20 – 1 ÷ 10 = -0.05, so di = -20 cm.

Unit 14: Waves, Sound, and Physical Optics

Q44. A wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a wavelength of 1.5 m. What is its speed?

  • (A) 600 m/s
  • (B) 300 m/s
  • (C) 150 m/s
  • (D) 450 m/s
Show Answer

Answer: B – v = fλ = 200 × 1.5 = 300 m/s.

Q45. An oscillator completes one full cycle in 0.4 s. What is its frequency?

  • (A) 4 Hz
  • (B) 2.5 Hz
  • (C) 1 Hz
  • (D) 3 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: B – f = 1 ÷ T = 1 ÷ 0.4 = 2.5 Hz.

Q46. A sound source radiates 100 W uniformly in all directions. What is the sound intensity at a distance of 5 m from the source? (Use π = 3.14.)

  • (A) 0.63662 W/m2
  • (B) 0.159155 W/m2
  • (C) 0.477465 W/m2
  • (D) 0.31831 W/m2
Show Answer

Answer: D – I = P ÷ 4πr2 = 100 ÷ (4 × 3.14 × 52) = 0.31831 W/m2.

Q47. A string of length 1.5 m, fixed at both ends, supports waves travelling at 200 m/s. What is the frequency of its 3th harmonic?

  • (A) 400 Hz
  • (B) 100 Hz
  • (C) 300 Hz
  • (D) 200 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: D – For a string fixed at both ends, fn = nv ÷ 2L = 3 × 200 ÷ (2 × 1.5) = 200 Hz.

Q48. An air column of length 0.85 m, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency given by v ÷ 2L with v = 343 m/s. What is its fundamental frequency?

  • (A) 404 Hz
  • (B) 101 Hz
  • (C) 303 Hz
  • (D) 202 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: D – f1 = v ÷ 2L = 343 ÷ (2 × 0.85) = 202 Hz.

Q49. Two tuning forks of frequencies 600 Hz and 603 Hz sound together. What is the beat frequency heard?

  • (A) 3 Hz
  • (B) 6 Hz
  • (C) 1.5 Hz
  • (D) 4.5 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: A – Beat frequency = |f1 – f2| = |600 – 603| = 3 Hz.

Q50. In a double-slit experiment, light of wavelength 450 nm passes through slits 0.2 mm apart, with a screen 2 m away. What is the distance from the central bright fringe to the first bright fringe on the screen?

  • (A) 0.45 cm
  • (B) 0.9 cm
  • (C) 0.225 cm
  • (D) 0.675 cm
Show Answer

Answer: A – y = λL ÷ d = (450 × 10-9 × 2) ÷ (0.2 × 10-3) = 0.0045 m = 0.45 cm.

Q51. A siren emitting 400 Hz moves toward a stationary observer at 60 m/s. Taking the speed of sound as 343 m/s, what frequency does the observer hear?

  • (A) 340 Hz
  • (B) 485 Hz
  • (C) 400 Hz
  • (D) 582 Hz
Show Answer

Answer: B – f’ = f × v ÷ (v – vs) = 400 × 343 ÷ (343 – 60) = 485 Hz.

Unit 15: Modern Physics

Q52. What is the energy, in electron-volts, of a red photon of wavelength 650 nm? (Use hc = 1240 eV·nm.)

  • (A) 1.91 eV
  • (B) 3.82 eV
  • (C) 0.95 eV
  • (D) 2.86 eV
Show Answer

Answer: A – E = hc ÷ λ = 1240 ÷ 650 = 1.91 eV.

Q53. Light of photon energy 4.5 eV strikes a sodium surface whose work function is 1 eV. What is the maximum kinetic energy of an emitted photoelectron?

  • (A) 7 eV
  • (B) 1.75 eV
  • (C) 3.5 eV
  • (D) 5.25 eV
Show Answer

Answer: C – KEmax = hf – work function = 4.5 – 1 = 3.5 eV.

Q54. An electron of mass 9.11 × 10-31 kg moves at 1000000 m/s. What is its de Broglie wavelength? (Use h = 6.63 × 10-34 J·s.)

  • (A) 1.456 nm
  • (B) 0.364 nm
  • (C) 1.092 nm
  • (D) 0.728 nm
Show Answer

Answer: D – λ = h ÷ mv = (6.63 × 10-34) ÷ (9.11 × 10-31 × 1000000) = 0.727772 nm.

Q55. What is the energy of a hydrogen atom in the n = 3 energy level? (Ground-state energy is -13.6 eV.)

  • (A) -40.8 eV
  • (B) -1.511 eV
  • (C) 1.51 eV
  • (D) -4.53 eV
Show Answer

Answer: B – En = -13.6 ÷ n2 = -13.6 ÷ 9 = -1.511 eV.

Q56. A hydrogen atom drops from the n = 4 level to the n = 2 level. What is the energy of the photon emitted?

  • (A) 1.27 eV
  • (B) 2.55 eV
  • (C) 5.1 eV
  • (D) 11.05 eV
Show Answer

Answer: B – ΔE = 13.6 × (1 ÷ 4 – 1 ÷ 16) = 2.55 eV.

Q57. A nucleus has a mass defect of 0.005 u. What is its total binding energy in MeV? (1 u corresponds to 931.5 MeV.)

  • (A) 9.315 MeV
  • (B) 2.329 MeV
  • (C) 6.986 MeV
  • (D) 4.657 MeV
Show Answer

Answer: D – Binding energy = mass defect × 931.5 MeV/u = 0.005 × 931.5 = 4.657 MeV.

Q58. An radon sample of mass 80 g decays through 4 half-lives. What mass remains?

  • (A) 5 g
  • (B) 10 g
  • (C) 2.5 g
  • (D) 7.5 g
Show Answer

Answer: A – After 4 half-lives the fraction remaining is (1 ÷ 2)4 = 0.0625, so mass = 80 × 0.0625 = 5 g.

Q59. A clock moving at 0.8c relative to an observer ticks with a proper time interval of 10 s between two events. What time interval does the stationary observer measure?

  • (A) 16.67 s
  • (B) 6 s
  • (C) 10 s
  • (D) 25 s
Show Answer

Answer: A – With v = 0.8c, the Lorentz factor is 1.667, so Δt = 1.667 × 10 = 16.667 s.

Q60. A rod of proper length 10 m moves at 0.8c relative to an observer. What length does the observer measure?

  • (A) 16.67 m
  • (B) 6 m
  • (C) 10 m
  • (D) 3 m
Show Answer

Answer: B – L = L0 ÷ gamma = 10 ÷ 1.667 = 6 m.

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