AP Chemistry Practice Test 6
60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.
⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties
Q1Which electron configuration represents an atom in an excited state?
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Correct: (B)
The atom has 10 electrons, like Ne, but one electron occupies the 3s subshell instead of completing the 2p subshell, which is an excited-state arrangement.
Q2A sample of an element consists of three isotopes: ^24X (79.0% abundance), ^25X (10.0% abundance), and ^26X (11.0% abundance). The average atomic mass of the element is closest to
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Correct: (D)
(0.790)(24) + (0.100)(25) + (0.110)(26) = 18.96 + 2.50 + 2.86 = 24.32, approximately 24.3.
Q3Which atom has the smallest atomic radius?
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Correct: (A)
Atomic radius decreases across a period because the increasing nuclear charge pulls the electrons closer. Fluorine is farthest to the right in period 2 and has the smallest radius.
Q4The ground-state electron configuration of a copper atom is
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Correct: (C)
Copper is an exception to the usual filling order: a filled 3d subshell with a half-filled 4s subshell is especially stable, giving [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10 (29 electrons).
Q5In the photoelectron spectrum of magnesium, the peak with the highest binding energy corresponds to electrons in which subshell?
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Correct: (B)
The 1s electrons are closest to the nucleus and are attracted most strongly, so they require the most energy to remove and appear at the highest binding energy.
Q6Which element is the most electronegative?
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Correct: (A)
Electronegativity increases toward the top right of the periodic table, and fluorine is the most electronegative element.
Q7The successive ionization energies of an element are 580, 1800, 2700, and 11,600 kJ/mol for the first four ionizations. The element is most likely in which group of the periodic table?
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Correct: (D)
The very large jump between the third and fourth ionization energies shows that the first three electrons are valence electrons and the fourth is a core electron, so the element has 3 valence electrons and is in Group 13.
🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure
Q8In a Lewis structure of SO4^2- drawn with two S=O double bonds and two S-O single bonds, the formal charge on the sulfur atom is
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Correct: (C)
Sulfur has 6 valence electrons and is assigned half of the 12 bonding electrons (6) with no lone pairs: formal charge = 6 – 6 = 0.
Q9The molecular geometry of NH3 is
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Correct: (A)
Nitrogen has four electron domains (three bonds and one lone pair). The electron geometry is tetrahedral, but the lone pair makes the molecular geometry trigonal pyramidal.
Q10Which molecule contains polar covalent bonds but is nonpolar overall?
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Correct: (D)
The C-Cl bonds in CCl4 are polar, but the four bonds are arranged symmetrically in a tetrahedron, so the bond dipoles cancel and the molecule is nonpolar.
Q11Which ionic compound has the smallest lattice energy?
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Correct: (B)
Lattice energy decreases as the distance between ion centers increases. KF combines a large cation with a relatively large overall ion separation, giving the smallest lattice energy of the choices.
Q12According to molecular orbital theory, which species has a bond order of 2.5?
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Correct: (C)
O2 has a bond order of 2. Removing one electron to form O2+ removes an antibonding electron, increasing the bond order to 2.5.
Q13The F-B-F bond angles in BF3 are
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Correct: (A)
BF3 has three electron domains around boron and is trigonal planar, so the bond angles are 120°.
Q14The hybridization of each carbon atom in ethene, CH2=CH2, is
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Correct: (D)
Each carbon has three electron domains (two C-H bonds and one C=C bond region) in a trigonal planar arrangement, which corresponds to sp^2 hybridization.
💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties
Q15Which substance has the lowest boiling point?
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Correct: (A)
Propane is nonpolar and experiences only weak London dispersion forces. The other substances are polar, and the alcohol and carboxylic acid also hydrogen bond, so all have higher boiling points.
Q16What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 11.7 g of NaCl (molar mass 58.44 g/mol) in enough water to make 250.0 mL of solution?
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Correct: (C)
Moles of NaCl = 11.7 / 58.44 = 0.200 mol. Molarity = 0.200 mol / 0.2500 L = 0.801 M.
Q17How much heat is required to vaporize 9.00 g of water at 100°C? (ΔHvap of water = 40.7 kJ/mol)
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Correct: (B)
9.00 g / 18.0 g/mol = 0.500 mol of water; 0.500 mol × 40.7 kJ/mol = 20.3 kJ.
Q18Which aqueous solution has the highest boiling point?
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Correct: (D)
Boiling point elevation depends on the total concentration of dissolved particles. CaCl2 produces three ions per formula unit, more than NaCl or KBr (two each) or glucose (one molecule), so it has the highest boiling point.
Q19Which type of solid is characterized by high electrical conductivity in the solid state and by malleability?
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Correct: (B)
In metals, mobile delocalized electrons carry current, and the nondirectional bonding between the positive ion cores allows the solid to be deformed without breaking apart.
Q20The dominant intermolecular force between H2S molecules in liquid H2S is
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Correct: (A)
H2S is a bent, polar molecule, so dipole-dipole forces dominate. Hydrogen bonding requires hydrogen bonded to N, O, or F, and sulfur does not meet that requirement.
⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions
Q21When the equation C2H6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced using the smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of CO2 is
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Correct: (C)
The balanced equation is 2 C2H6 + 7 O2 → 4 CO2 + 6 H2O, so the coefficient of CO2 is 4.
Q22When solutions of AgNO3 and KCl are mixed, a precipitate forms. The net ionic equation for the reaction is
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Correct: (A)
AgCl is insoluble, so Ag+ and Cl- combine to form the precipitate; K+ and NO3- are spectator ions and are omitted.
Q23Nitrogen and hydrogen react according to the equation N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3. If 28.0 g of N2 and 9.00 g of H2 are reacted, the maximum mass of NH3 that can be produced is (molar masses: N2 = 28.0 g/mol, NH3 = 17.0 g/mol)
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Correct: (D)
28.0 g of N2 is 1.00 mol, which can produce 2.00 mol of NH3 = 34.0 g. The 9.00 g of H2 (4.46 mol) is more than the 3.00 mol needed, so N2 is the limiting reactant.
Q24What is the theoretical yield of H2O when 16.0 g of CH4 undergoes complete combustion, CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O? (Molar masses: CH4 = 16.0 g/mol, H2O = 18.0 g/mol)
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Correct: (B)
16.0 g of CH4 is 1.00 mol, which produces 2.00 mol of H2O; 2.00 mol × 18.0 g/mol = 36.0 g.
Q25In the reaction 2 Fe^3+ + Sn^2+ → 2 Fe^2+ + Sn^4+, the species that is oxidized is
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Correct: (C)
The oxidation number of Sn increases from +2 to +4, meaning Sn^2+ loses electrons and is oxidized. Fe^3+ is reduced.
Q26How many grams of O2 are needed to react completely with 12.0 g of CH4, according to the equation CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O? (Molar masses: CH4 = 16.0 g/mol, O2 = 32.0 g/mol)
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Correct: (A)
12.0 g / 16.0 g/mol = 0.750 mol of CH4, which requires 2 × 0.750 = 1.50 mol of O2; 1.50 mol × 32.0 g/mol = 48.0 g.
Q27A 20.00 mL sample of H2SO4 solution of unknown concentration is titrated with 0.200 M NaOH. It requires 30.00 mL of the NaOH solution to reach the equivalence point. The concentration of the H2SO4 solution is
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Correct: (D)
Moles of NaOH = 0.03000 L × 0.200 M = 0.00600 mol. Because H2SO4 reacts with 2 NaOH, moles of H2SO4 = 0.00300 mol, and the concentration is 0.00300 mol / 0.02000 L = 0.150 M.
⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics
Q28The reaction X + Y → products was studied, giving the following data. Experiment 1: [X] = 0.20 M, [Y] = 0.10 M, rate = 1.2 × 10^-4 M/s. Experiment 2: [X] = 0.20 M, [Y] = 0.20 M, rate = 4.8 × 10^-4 M/s. Experiment 3: [X] = 0.40 M, [Y] = 0.10 M, rate = 2.4 × 10^-4 M/s. The rate law for the reaction is
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Correct: (B)
Doubling [Y] (experiments 1 and 2) quadruples the rate, so the reaction is second order in Y. Doubling [X] (experiments 1 and 3) doubles the rate, so it is first order in X.
Q29The half-life of a reaction is measured at several different starting concentrations and is found to be the same in every case. The reaction must be
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Correct: (C)
A half-life that is independent of the starting concentration is the defining characteristic of first-order kinetics.
Q30A second-order reaction has k = 0.050 M^-1 s^-1 and an initial concentration of 0.40 M. The concentration of the reactant after 100. s is
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Correct: (D)
For a second-order reaction, 1/[A] = kt + 1/[A]0 = (0.050)(100.) + 1/0.40 = 5.0 + 2.5 = 7.5, so [A] = 1/7.5 = 0.13 M.
Q31Raising the temperature of a reaction mixture increases the reaction rate primarily because
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Correct: (A)
At a higher temperature the molecules move faster, increasing both the collision frequency and, most importantly, the fraction of collisions energetic enough to overcome the activation energy barrier.
Q32A reaction is proposed to occur by the following mechanism. Step 1 (fast equilibrium): A2 ⇌ 2 A. Step 2 (slow): A + B → products. The rate law predicted by this mechanism is
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Correct: (C)
The slow step gives rate = k[A][B]. From the fast equilibrium in step 1, [A] is proportional to [A2]^1/2, so substituting gives rate = k[A2]^1/2[B].
Q33A first-order reaction is 75% complete after 60.0 min. The half-life of the reaction is
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Correct: (B)
Completing 75% of a first-order reaction means two half-lives have elapsed (100% → 50% → 25% remaining), so the half-life is 60.0 / 2 = 30.0 min.
Q34A potential energy diagram for a reaction shows the reactants at 20 kJ/mol, the transition state at 90 kJ/mol, and the products at 60 kJ/mol. The activation energy for the reverse reaction is
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Correct: (D)
The activation energy of the reverse reaction is the energy difference between the products and the transition state: 90 − 60 = 30 kJ/mol. (The forward activation energy is 70 kJ/mol.)
🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics
Q35Given the following thermochemical equations: N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g), ΔH = +180.5 kJ. N2(g) + 2 O2(g) → 2 NO2(g), ΔH = +66.4 kJ. The value of ΔH for the reaction 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g) is
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Correct: (A)
Subtracting the first equation from the second (Hess's law) gives the target reaction, with ΔH = 66.4 − 180.5 = −114 kJ.
Q36A 100.0 g sample of a metal at 100.0°C is placed in 100.0 g of water at 25.0°C in an insulated container. The final temperature of the mixture is 30.0°C. The specific heat of the metal is (specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g·°C)
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Correct: (D)
Heat gained by the water = (100.0)(4.184)(5.0) = 2092 J. This equals the heat lost by the metal: (100.0)(c)(70.0), so c = 2092 / 7000 = 0.299 J/g·°C.
Q37Using standard enthalpies of formation (SO2 = −296.8 kJ/mol, SO3 = −395.7 kJ/mol), the enthalpy change for the reaction 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g) is
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Correct: (B)
ΔH = [2(−395.7)] − [2(−296.8) + 0] = −791.4 + 593.6 = −197.8 kJ.
Q38Estimate the enthalpy change for the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) using average bond enthalpies (N≡N = 941 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, N-H = 391 kJ/mol).
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Correct: (C)
Bonds broken: 941 + 3(436) = 2249 kJ. Bonds formed: 6(391) = 2346 kJ. ΔH = 2249 − 2346 = −97 kJ.
Q39Which reaction is accompanied by a decrease in the entropy of the system?
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Correct: (A)
The reaction converts 3 mol of gas into 2 mol of gas, decreasing the number of freely moving particles and therefore the entropy. The other choices produce a gas from a condensed phase and increase entropy.
Q40How much heat is required to convert 18.0 g of ice at 0°C to liquid water at 50.0°C? (ΔHfus of ice = 6.01 kJ/mol; specific heat of liquid water = 4.184 J/g·°C)
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Correct: (D)
Melting 1.00 mol of ice requires 6.01 kJ. Heating the liquid from 0°C to 50.0°C requires (18.0)(4.184)(50.0) = 3766 J = 3.77 kJ. The total is 6.01 + 3.77 = 9.78 kJ.
Q41A coffee-cup calorimeter contains 200.0 g of water. A reaction carried out in the calorimeter causes the temperature of the water to rise from 20.0°C to 24.5°C. The heat released by the reaction is approximately (specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g·°C)
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Correct: (B)
The heat absorbed by the water is q = (200.0)(4.184)(4.5) = 3766 J = 3.77 kJ, so the reaction released approximately 3.77 kJ of heat.
⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium
Q42For the equilibrium 2 NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g), Kc = 170 at 298 K. If a mixture has [NO2] = 0.10 M and [N2O4] = 0.50 M, which statement is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Q = [N2O4] / [NO2]^2 = 0.50 / (0.10)^2 = 50. Because Q is less than Kc (170), the net reaction proceeds toward the products.
Q43For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), Kc = 0.040. A flask is filled with 0.20 M PCl5, and the system is allowed to reach equilibrium. The equilibrium concentration of Cl2 is closest to
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Correct: (D)
With x = [Cl2] at equilibrium, Kc = x^2 / (0.20 − x) = 0.040, so x^2 + 0.040x − 0.0080 = 0. Solving the quadratic gives x = 0.072 M.
Q44For the equilibrium CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g), which change will increase the amount of CaO present at equilibrium?
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Correct: (A)
Removing the product CO2 shifts the equilibrium toward the products, forming more CaO. Adding solids does not affect the equilibrium position, and decreasing the volume shifts the equilibrium toward fewer gas molecules (the reactants).
Q45For which reaction are Kp and Kc equal at a given temperature?
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Correct: (B)
Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn, so Kp = Kc when Δn = 0. The reaction CO + H2O ⇌ CO2 + H2 has 2 mol of gas on each side, so Δn = 0.
Q46The Ksp of CaF2 is 3.9 × 10^-11. In a saturated solution of CaF2, the concentration of Ca^2+ is
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Correct: (C)
For CaF2(s) ⇌ Ca^2+(aq) + 2 F-(aq), Ksp = (s)(2s)^2 = 4s^3. So s = (3.9 × 10^-11 / 4)^1/3 = 2.1 × 10^-4 M, and [Ca^2+] = s.
Q47Which addition will decrease the solubility of PbCl2 in water?
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Correct: (D)
The Cl- in NaCl is a common ion. Adding it shifts the dissolution equilibrium PbCl2(s) ⇌ Pb^2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq) toward the solid, decreasing the solubility.
Q48For the equilibrium Fe3O4(s) + 4 H2(g) ⇌ 3 Fe(s) + 4 H2O(g), the equilibrium constant expression, Kc, is
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Correct: (A)
Pure solids do not appear in the equilibrium expression, so Kc = [H2O]^4 / [H2]^4, with each gas raised to its stoichiometric coefficient.
🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases
Q49The pH of a 0.050 M solution of NaOH is
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Correct: (D)
NaOH is a strong base, so [OH-] = 0.050 M. pOH = −log(0.050) = 1.30, and pH = 14.00 − 1.30 = 12.70.
Q50The pH of a 0.10 M solution of NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10^-5) is closest to
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Correct: (B)
[OH-] = sqrt(Kb × C) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.10) = 1.34 × 10^-3 M. Then pOH = 2.87 and pH = 14.00 − 2.87 = 11.13.
Q51A buffer solution contains 0.25 M HF and 0.15 M NaF. The pKa of HF is 3.17. The pH of the buffer is
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Correct: (A)
pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 3.17 + log(0.15/0.25) = 3.17 − 0.22 = 2.95.
Q52Carbonic acid, H2CO3, is a diprotic acid with Ka1 = 4.3 × 10^-7 and Ka2 = 5.6 × 10^-11. In a solution of carbonic acid, which anion is present at the greatest concentration?
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Correct: (C)
The first ionization produces HCO3-, while the second ionization is far weaker (Ka2 is much smaller than Ka1), so HCO3- is far more concentrated than CO3^2-.
Q53A 25.0 mL sample of 0.10 M HCl is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH. After 12.5 mL of the NaOH solution has been added (the half-equivalence point), the pH of the mixture is closest to
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Correct: (D)
Half of the acid has been neutralized, leaving 0.00125 mol of H+ in a total volume of 37.5 mL, so [H+] = 0.0333 M and pH = −log(0.0333) = 1.48.
Q54The conjugate acid of HCO3- is
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Correct: (A)
A conjugate acid is formed by adding one H+ to the base. Adding H+ to HCO3- gives H2CO3.
🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics
Q55A reaction at 298 K has an equilibrium constant Kc = 1.0 × 10^5. The standard Gibbs free energy change for the reaction is closest to (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
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Correct: (B)
ΔG° = −RT ln K = −(8.314)(298) ln(1.0 × 10^5) = −(2478)(11.51) ≈ −28,500 J = −28.5 kJ.
Q56A reaction has ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0. Which statement about the reaction is correct?
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Correct: (C)
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS. With ΔH positive and −TΔS also positive, ΔG is positive at every temperature, so the reaction is never spontaneous.
Q57Given E°(Ag+/Ag) = +0.80 V and E°(Ni^2+/Ni) = −0.25 V, which species is the strongest oxidizing agent?
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Correct: (A)
The strongest oxidizing agent is the species most easily reduced, which is the one with the most positive reduction potential. Ag+, with E° = +0.80 V, is reduced more readily than Ni^2+.
Q58A current of 5.00 A is passed through molten NaCl for 30.0 min. The mass of sodium produced at the cathode is (Na = 22.99 g/mol, F = 96,485 C/mol e-)
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Correct: (D)
Q = It = (5.00)(1800 s) = 9000 C, which is 9000 / 96,485 = 0.0933 mol of electrons. Since Na+ + e- → Na, 0.0933 mol of Na forms, with a mass of 0.0933 × 22.99 = 2.14 g.
Q59A proposed galvanic cell has E°cell = −0.40 V for the reaction as written. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (B)
A negative E°cell means ΔG° = −nFE° is positive, so the reaction is nonspontaneous as written; the reverse reaction has E° = +0.40 V and is spontaneous.
Q60In an electrolytic cell, electrical energy from an external source is used to drive a chemical reaction for which
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Correct: (C)
Electrolysis drives a nonspontaneous reaction, one with ΔG > 0 (equivalently E°cell < 0), by supplying electrical work from an external power source.
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