AP Chemistry Practice Test 5

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.

⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties

Q1What is the ground-state electron configuration of Fe^3+?

(A) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^3
(B) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^4
(C) [Ar] 3d^5
(D) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fe is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. When Fe forms Fe^3+, the 4s electrons are removed first, followed by one 3d electron, leaving [Ar] 3d^5.

Q2The photoelectron spectrum of an element shows three peaks whose relative heights correspond to 2, 2, and 4 electrons in the 1s, 2s, and 2p subshells, respectively. The element is

(A) O
(B) C
(C) Ne
(D) F
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The peaks give the configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^4, a total of 8 electrons, which is oxygen.

Q3Which element has the highest first ionization energy?

(A) Be
(B) B
(C) C
(D) N
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ionization energy generally increases across a period, and nitrogen, with its stable half-filled 2p subshell, has the highest first ionization energy of these elements.

Q4Naturally occurring bromine consists of ^79Br (50.69% abundance) and ^81Br (49.31% abundance). The average atomic mass of bromine is closest to

(A) 79.0
(B) 80.0
(C) 79.6
(D) 81.0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

(0.5069)(79) + (0.4931)(81) = 40.05 + 39.94 = 79.99, approximately 80.0.

Q5The ions Na+, Mg^2+, F-, and O^2- are all isoelectronic. Which ion has the largest radius?

(A) O^2-
(B) F-
(C) Na+
(D) Mg^2+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

All four ions have 10 electrons, but O^2- has the fewest protons (8), so its electron cloud is held least tightly and has the largest radius.

Q6How many unpaired electrons are in a ground-state chromium atom?

(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Chromium has the configuration [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5, with one unpaired 4s electron and five unpaired 3d electrons, for a total of 6.

Q7Which element has the largest second ionization energy?

(A) Mg
(B) Ne
(C) Na
(D) K
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

After losing one electron, Na+ has a stable noble-gas configuration, so removing a second (core) electron requires an exceptionally large amount of energy.

🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure

Q8In the best Lewis structure of NO3-, the formal charge on the nitrogen atom is

(A) +1
(B) 0
(C) -1
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons and is assigned half of the 8 bonding electrons (4) with no lone pair electrons: formal charge = 5 – 4 = +1.

Q9The molecular geometry of SF4 is best described as

(A) tetrahedral
(B) trigonal planar
(C) square planar
(D) seesaw
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sulfur has five electron domains (four bonds and one lone pair). The lone pair occupies an equatorial position of a trigonal bipyramid, giving a seesaw molecular geometry.

Q10What is the hybridization of the central atom in XeF4?

(A) sp^3
(B) sp^3d^2
(C) sp^3d
(D) sp^2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

XeF4 has six electron domains (four bonding pairs and two lone pairs), which requires sp^3d^2 hybridization and gives a square planar geometry.

Q11Which compound has the greatest lattice energy?

(A) NaCl
(B) KCl
(C) MgO
(D) CaO
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Lattice energy increases with ionic charge and decreases with ion size. MgO combines +2 and −2 charges with a relatively small cation, giving the greatest lattice energy.

Q12How many equivalent resonance structures can be drawn for the carbonate ion, CO3^2-?

(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The C=O double bond can be placed on any of the three oxygen atoms, giving three equivalent resonance structures.

Q13Which C-C bond is the shortest?

(A) The single bond in C2H6
(B) The triple bond in C2H2
(C) The double bond in C2H4
(D) All three bonds have the same length
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bond length decreases as bond order increases, so the triple bond in C2H2 is shorter than the double bond in C2H4 and the single bond in C2H6.

Q14Which molecule has a permanent dipole moment?

(A) CCl4
(B) CO2
(C) BF3
(D) CHCl3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

CHCl3 is tetrahedral with different atoms attached to carbon, so its bond dipoles do not cancel. CCl4, CO2, and BF3 are symmetric and nonpolar.

💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties

Q15Which substance has the highest boiling point?

(A) CH4
(B) H2O
(C) NH3
(D) HF
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each water molecule can form an extensive three-dimensional hydrogen-bonding network (two O-H bonds and two lone pairs), giving water the highest boiling point, 100°C.

Q16Which compound is most soluble in water?

(A) CCl4
(B) C6H14
(C) CO2
(D) CH3OH
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Methanol is polar and hydrogen bonds with water, making it miscible in all proportions. The other choices are nonpolar or only slightly soluble.

Q17How much energy is required to melt 36.0 g of ice at 0°C? The molar enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6.01 kJ/mol.

(A) 12.0 kJ
(B) 6.01 kJ
(C) 216 kJ
(D) 3.00 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

36.0 g / 18.0 g/mol = 2.00 mol of ice; 2.00 mol × 6.01 kJ/mol = 12.0 kJ.

Q18Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C?

(A) H2O
(B) CH3CH2OH
(C) CH3OCH3
(D) CH3CH2CH2OH
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Dimethyl ether has no O-H bond, so its molecules cannot hydrogen bond with each other. It has the weakest intermolecular forces and therefore the highest vapor pressure.

Q19Which substance is a covalent network solid?

(A) SiO2
(B) NaCl
(C) CO2(s)
(D) Fe
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Quartz (SiO2) is held together by covalent bonds extending throughout the entire structure. NaCl is ionic, solid CO2 is molecular, and Fe is metallic.

Q20Ethanol, CH3CH2OH, boils at 78°C, while dimethyl ether, CH3OCH3, boils at −24°C, even though the two compounds have the same molar mass. The best explanation for this difference is that

(A) ethanol molecules have stronger London dispersion forces than dimethyl ether molecules
(B) dimethyl ether molecules are much smaller than ethanol molecules
(C) ethanol molecules form hydrogen bonds with each other, while dimethyl ether molecules cannot
(D) ethanol has a greater molar mass than dimethyl ether
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The O-H group in ethanol allows intermolecular hydrogen bonding, which takes much more energy to overcome than the dipole-dipole forces between dimethyl ether molecules.

⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions

Q21When the equation C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced using the smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of O2 is

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The balanced equation is C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O, which balances the C, H, and O atoms.

Q22When solutions of BaCl2 and Na2SO4 are mixed, a precipitate forms. The net ionic equation for the reaction is

(A) Ba^2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq) → BaCl2(s)
(B) Ba^2+(aq) + SO4^2-(aq) → BaSO4(s)
(C) 2 Na+(aq) + SO4^2-(aq) → Na2SO4(s)
(D) Ba^2+(aq) + 2 Na+(aq) → BaNa2(s)
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

BaSO4 is insoluble, so Ba^2+ and SO4^2- combine to form the precipitate; Na+ and Cl- are spectator ions and are omitted.

Q23Hydrogen and oxygen react according to the equation 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O. If 2.00 mol of H2 and 0.80 mol of O2 are mixed, the maximum number of moles of H2O that can form is

(A) 2.00 mol
(B) 0.80 mol
(C) 1.60 mol
(D) 2.80 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

O2 is the limiting reactant: 0.80 mol O2 × (2 mol H2O / 1 mol O2) = 1.60 mol H2O.

Q24A reaction has a theoretical yield of 25.0 g of product. If 20.0 g of product is actually obtained, the percent yield is

(A) 80.0%
(B) 125%
(C) 20.0%
(D) 5.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percent yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100% = (20.0 / 25.0) × 100% = 80.0%.

Q25In the reaction Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s), the reducing agent is

(A) Cu^2+
(B) Cu
(C) Zn^2+
(D) Zn
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Zn is oxidized (its oxidation number increases from 0 to +2), so Zn is the species that causes reduction and is itself the reducing agent.

Q26What mass of CO2 is produced by the complete combustion of 8.80 g of C3H8? (Molar masses: C3H8 = 44.1 g/mol, CO2 = 44.0 g/mol)

(A) 13.2 g
(B) 26.4 g
(C) 8.80 g
(D) 44.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

8.80 g C3H8 / 44.1 g/mol = 0.200 mol C3H8. Each mole of C3H8 produces 3 mol of CO2, so 0.600 mol × 44.0 g/mol = 26.4 g of CO2.

Q27A 25.00 mL sample of 0.100 M HCl is titrated with 0.125 M NaOH. What volume of the NaOH solution is required to reach the equivalence point?

(A) 25.00 mL
(B) 31.25 mL
(C) 20.0 mL
(D) 12.5 mL
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of HCl = 0.02500 L × 0.100 M = 0.00250 mol. The volume of NaOH = 0.00250 mol / 0.125 M = 0.0200 L = 20.0 mL.

⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics

Q28The reaction A + B → products was studied, giving the following data. Experiment 1: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 2.0 × 10^-3 M/s. Experiment 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 8.0 × 10^-3 M/s. Experiment 3: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 4.0 × 10^-3 M/s. The rate law for the reaction is

(A) rate = k[A][B]
(B) rate = k[A][B]^2
(C) rate = k[A]^2
(D) rate = k[A]^2[B]
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Doubling [A] (experiments 1 and 2) quadruples the rate, so the reaction is second order in A. Doubling [B] (experiments 1 and 3) doubles the rate, so it is first order in B.

Q29For a reaction that is second order overall, the units of the rate constant, k, are

(A) M/s
(B) M^-1 s^-1
(C) s^-1
(D) M^-2 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For rate = k[A]^2, k = rate / [A]^2 = (M/s) / M^2 = M^-1 s^-1.

Q30A first-order reaction has a rate constant k = 0.0693 s^-1. The half-life of the reaction is

(A) 10.0 s
(B) 5.00 s
(C) 14.4 s
(D) 0.100 s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

For a first-order reaction, t1/2 = ln 2 / k = 0.693 / 0.0693 s^-1 = 10.0 s.

Q31A first-order reaction begins with [A] = 0.80 M. After 30. min, the concentration of A is 0.20 M. The value of the rate constant is

(A) 0.023 min^-1
(B) 0.693 min^-1
(C) 0.046 min^-1
(D) 0.012 min^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ln([A]0/[A]) = kt, so ln(0.80/0.20) = ln 4 = 1.39 = k(30. min), giving k = 0.046 min^-1.

Q32A proposed mechanism for a reaction is shown below. Step 1 (slow): NO2 + NO2 → NO3 + NO. Step 2 (fast): NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2. In this mechanism, NO3 is best described as

(A) a catalyst
(B) an intermediate
(C) a reactant in the overall reaction
(D) a product of the overall reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NO3 is produced in step 1 and consumed in step 2, so it is an intermediate. It does not appear in the overall equation, NO2 + CO → NO + CO2.

Q33The rate constant of a reaction doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. The activation energy of the reaction is closest to (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

(A) 5.4 kJ/mol
(B) 27 kJ/mol
(C) 110 kJ/mol
(D) 54 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Using ln(k2/k1) = (Ea/R)(1/T1 − 1/T2): ln 2 = (Ea/8.314)(1/300 − 1/310), which gives Ea ≈ 5.4 × 10^4 J/mol = 54 kJ/mol.

Q34A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by

(A) providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(B) increasing the enthalpy change of the reaction
(C) increasing the average kinetic energy of the reactant molecules
(D) shifting the equilibrium toward the products
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst works by providing a different mechanism with a lower activation energy. It does not change ΔH or the position of equilibrium.




🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics

Q35Given the following thermochemical equations: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = −393.5 kJ. CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = −283.0 kJ. The value of ΔH for the reaction C(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO(g) is

(A) −676.5 kJ
(B) +110.5 kJ
(C) −110.5 kJ
(D) −221.0 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

By Hess's law, subtract the second equation from the first: ΔH = −393.5 − (−283.0) = −110.5 kJ.

Q36How much heat is absorbed when 50.0 g of water is heated from 25.0°C to 35.0°C? (The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g·°C.)

(A) 2.09 kJ
(B) 209 J
(C) 20.9 kJ
(D) 4.18 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

q = mcΔT = (50.0 g)(4.184 J/g·°C)(10.0°C) = 2092 J = 2.09 kJ.

Q37Using standard enthalpies of formation (CH4 = −74.8 kJ/mol, CO2 = −393.5 kJ/mol, H2O(l) = −285.8 kJ/mol), the enthalpy change for the reaction CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l) is

(A) −604.5 kJ
(B) −965.1 kJ
(C) −74.8 kJ
(D) −890.3 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔH = [−393.5 + 2(−285.8)] − [−74.8] = −965.1 + 74.8 = −890.3 kJ.

Q38Estimate the enthalpy change for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) using average bond enthalpies (H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol).

(A) +184 kJ
(B) −184 kJ
(C) −92 kJ
(D) −429 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bonds broken: 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Bonds formed: 2(431) = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 − 862 = −184 kJ.

Q39Which process is accompanied by an increase in the entropy of the system?

(A) H2O(l) → H2O(s)
(B) CO2(g) → CO2(s)
(C) NH4NO3(s) → NH4+(aq) + NO3-(aq)
(D) Compressing a gas into a smaller volume at constant temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Dissolving the solid salt produces mobile aqueous ions, which greatly increases the disorder of the system. The other processes all decrease disorder.

Q40A 25.0 g sample of a metal absorbs 650 J of heat, and its temperature rises by 26.0°C. The specific heat of the metal is

(A) 0.50 J/g·°C
(B) 1.00 J/g·°C
(C) 2.00 J/g·°C
(D) 0.040 J/g·°C
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

c = q / (mΔT) = 650 J / [(25.0 g)(26.0°C)] = 650 / 650 = 1.00 J/g·°C.

Q41For the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), ΔH = −92.2 kJ. How much heat is released when 34.0 g of NH3 is formed?

(A) 46.1 kJ
(B) 184 kJ
(C) 23.1 kJ
(D) 92.2 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

34.0 g NH3 / 17.0 g/mol = 2.00 mol of NH3, which is exactly the amount in the thermochemical equation, so 92.2 kJ of heat is released.

⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium

Q42For the equilibrium N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), the equilibrium constant expression, Kc, is

(A) [NH3]^2 / ([N2][H2]^3)
(B) [NH3] / ([N2][H2])
(C) ([N2][H2]^3) / [NH3]^2
(D) [NH3]^2 / ([N2] + 3[H2])
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Kc equals the product concentrations raised to their stoichiometric coefficients divided by the reactant concentrations raised to theirs.

Q43For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), Kc = 50. at 448°C. A flask initially contains 0.50 M H2 and 0.50 M I2 and no HI. The equilibrium concentration of HI is closest to

(A) 0.39 M
(B) 0.50 M
(C) 0.78 M
(D) 1.0 M
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Let x be the amount of H2 consumed. Then [HI] = 2x and (2x)^2 / (0.50 − x)^2 = 50, so 2x / (0.50 − x) = 7.07, giving x = 0.39 and [HI] = 2x = 0.78 M.

Q44For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), Kc = 4.6 × 10^-3 at 298 K. The value of Kp at 298 K is closest to (R = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K)

(A) 4.6 × 10^-3
(B) 0.11
(C) 1.9 × 10^-4
(D) 1.1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn, and Δn = 2 − 1 = +1, so Kp = (4.6 × 10^-3)(0.0821)(298) = 0.11.

Q45The reaction CO(g) + 2 H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) is exothermic. Which change will increase the equilibrium yield of CH3OH?

(A) Increasing the temperature
(B) Decreasing the pressure
(C) Adding a catalyst
(D) Increasing the pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The reaction converts 3 mol of gas into 1 mol of gas, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium toward products. A catalyst does not change the yield, and for an exothermic reaction heating shifts the equilibrium toward reactants.

Q46The Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 × 10^-10. The molar solubility of AgCl in pure water is

(A) 1.8 × 10^-10 M
(B) 1.3 × 10^-5 M
(C) 9.0 × 10^-11 M
(D) 3.2 × 10^-20 M
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For AgCl(s) ⇌ Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq), Ksp = s^2, so s = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-10) = 1.3 × 10^-5 M.

Q47The molar solubility of AgCl in a 0.10 M solution of NaCl is closest to

(A) 1.8 × 10^-9 M
(B) 1.3 × 10^-5 M
(C) 1.8 × 10^-10 M
(D) 1.8 × 10^-4 M
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The Cl- already present is a common ion and suppresses the solubility: Ksp = s(0.10), so s = 1.8 × 10^-10 / 0.10 = 1.8 × 10^-9 M.

Q48At a certain moment during a reversible reaction, the reaction quotient Q is 2.0 and the equilibrium constant Kc is 0.50. Which statement is correct?

(A) The reaction is at equilibrium
(B) The net reaction proceeds toward the products
(C) The forward and reverse rates are both zero
(D) The net reaction proceeds toward the reactants
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Because Q is greater than K, the mixture contains too much product relative to equilibrium, so the net reaction proceeds toward the reactants until Q = K.

🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases

Q49The pH of a 0.0025 M solution of HCl is

(A) 2.40
(B) 3.00
(C) 2.60
(D) 11.40
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

HCl is a strong acid and dissociates completely, so [H+] = 0.0025 M and pH = −log(2.5 × 10^-3) = 2.60.

Q50The pH of a 0.10 M solution of acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 × 10^-5) is closest to

(A) 2.87
(B) 1.00
(C) 4.74
(D) 5.13
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

[H+] = sqrt(Ka × C) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.10) = 1.34 × 10^-3 M, so pH = 2.87.

Q51A buffer solution contains 0.30 M CH3COOH and 0.20 M CH3COONa. The pKa of acetic acid is 4.74. The pH of the buffer is

(A) 4.74
(B) 4.92
(C) 5.09
(D) 4.56
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(0.20/0.30) = 4.74 − 0.18 = 4.56.

Q52A 25.0 mL sample of 0.10 M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10^-5) is titrated with 0.10 M HCl. The pH at the equivalence point is closest to

(A) 7.00
(B) 5.28
(C) 8.72
(D) 9.26
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At the equivalence point all of the NH3 has been converted to NH4+ at a concentration of 0.050 M. NH4+ is a weak acid with Ka = Kw/Kb = 5.6 × 10^-10, so [H+] = sqrt(5.6 × 10^-10 × 0.050) = 5.3 × 10^-6 M and pH = 5.28.

Q53The conjugate base of H2PO4- is

(A) H3PO4
(B) PO4^3-
(C) HPO4^2-
(D) OH-
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A conjugate base is formed by removing one H+ from the acid. Removing H+ from H2PO4- gives HPO4^2-.

Q54The pH of a 0.010 M solution of Ba(OH)2 is

(A) 12.00
(B) 12.30
(C) 2.00
(D) 11.70
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Each formula unit provides two OH- ions, so [OH-] = 0.020 M. pOH = −log(0.020) = 1.70, and pH = 14.00 − 1.70 = 12.30.

🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics

Q55A reaction has ΔH = −100 kJ and ΔS = −200 J/K. At 298 K, the value of ΔG for the reaction is

(A) −40.4 kJ
(B) −160 kJ
(C) +40.4 kJ
(D) −100 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = −100 kJ − (298 K)(−0.200 kJ/K) = −100 + 59.6 = −40.4 kJ, so the reaction is spontaneous at 298 K.

Q56A reaction has ΔH = +50 kJ and ΔS = +100 J/K. The reaction is spontaneous

(A) at all temperatures
(B) at no temperature
(C) only below 500 K
(D) only above 500 K
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔG = ΔH − TΔS becomes negative only when T is greater than ΔH/ΔS = 50,000 J / 100 J/K = 500 K.

Q57Given E°(Cu^2+/Cu) = +0.34 V and E°(Zn^2+/Zn) = −0.76 V, the standard cell potential for the reaction Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s) is

(A) +0.42 V
(B) +1.10 V
(C) −1.10 V
(D) +2.20 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = +0.34 − (−0.76) = +1.10 V. The positive value means the reaction is spontaneous as written.

Q58A galvanic cell reaction transfers 2 mol of electrons and has E°cell = +1.10 V. The standard Gibbs free energy change for the reaction is closest to (F = 96,485 C/mol e-)

(A) −106 kJ
(B) −96.5 kJ
(C) −212 kJ
(D) +212 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔG° = −nFE° = −(2)(96,485)(1.10) = −212,000 J = −212 kJ.

Q59How much time is required to deposit 6.35 g of Cu from a solution containing Cu^2+ using a current of 2.00 A? (Cu = 63.55 g/mol, F = 96,485 C/mol e-)

(A) 9.65 × 10^3 s
(B) 4.82 × 10^3 s
(C) 1.93 × 10^4 s
(D) 2.41 × 10^3 s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

6.35 g of Cu is 0.100 mol, which requires 0.200 mol of electrons. Q = (0.200)(96,485) = 1.93 × 10^4 C, and t = Q / I = 1.93 × 10^4 / 2.00 = 9.65 × 10^3 s.

Q60In a functioning galvanic (voltaic) cell,

(A) oxidation occurs at the cathode, which is the positive terminal
(B) reduction occurs at the anode, which is the negative terminal
(C) oxidation occurs at the anode, which is the positive terminal
(D) oxidation occurs at the anode, which is the negative terminal
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Oxidation always occurs at the anode. In a galvanic cell the anode supplies electrons to the external circuit and is the negative terminal; reduction occurs at the positive cathode.