AP Chemistry Practice Test 5
60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.
⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties
Q1What is the ground-state electron configuration of Fe^3+?
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Correct: (C)
Fe is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. When Fe forms Fe^3+, the 4s electrons are removed first, followed by one 3d electron, leaving [Ar] 3d^5.
Q2The photoelectron spectrum of an element shows three peaks whose relative heights correspond to 2, 2, and 4 electrons in the 1s, 2s, and 2p subshells, respectively. The element is
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Correct: (A)
The peaks give the configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^4, a total of 8 electrons, which is oxygen.
Q3Which element has the highest first ionization energy?
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Correct: (D)
Ionization energy generally increases across a period, and nitrogen, with its stable half-filled 2p subshell, has the highest first ionization energy of these elements.
Q4Naturally occurring bromine consists of ^79Br (50.69% abundance) and ^81Br (49.31% abundance). The average atomic mass of bromine is closest to
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Correct: (B)
(0.5069)(79) + (0.4931)(81) = 40.05 + 39.94 = 79.99, approximately 80.0.
Q5The ions Na+, Mg^2+, F-, and O^2- are all isoelectronic. Which ion has the largest radius?
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Correct: (A)
All four ions have 10 electrons, but O^2- has the fewest protons (8), so its electron cloud is held least tightly and has the largest radius.
Q6How many unpaired electrons are in a ground-state chromium atom?
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Correct: (D)
Chromium has the configuration [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5, with one unpaired 4s electron and five unpaired 3d electrons, for a total of 6.
Q7Which element has the largest second ionization energy?
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Correct: (C)
After losing one electron, Na+ has a stable noble-gas configuration, so removing a second (core) electron requires an exceptionally large amount of energy.
🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure
Q8In the best Lewis structure of NO3-, the formal charge on the nitrogen atom is
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Correct: (A)
Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons and is assigned half of the 8 bonding electrons (4) with no lone pair electrons: formal charge = 5 – 4 = +1.
Q9The molecular geometry of SF4 is best described as
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Correct: (D)
Sulfur has five electron domains (four bonds and one lone pair). The lone pair occupies an equatorial position of a trigonal bipyramid, giving a seesaw molecular geometry.
Q10What is the hybridization of the central atom in XeF4?
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Correct: (B)
XeF4 has six electron domains (four bonding pairs and two lone pairs), which requires sp^3d^2 hybridization and gives a square planar geometry.
Q11Which compound has the greatest lattice energy?
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Correct: (C)
Lattice energy increases with ionic charge and decreases with ion size. MgO combines +2 and −2 charges with a relatively small cation, giving the greatest lattice energy.
Q12How many equivalent resonance structures can be drawn for the carbonate ion, CO3^2-?
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Correct: (A)
The C=O double bond can be placed on any of the three oxygen atoms, giving three equivalent resonance structures.
Q13Which C-C bond is the shortest?
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Correct: (B)
Bond length decreases as bond order increases, so the triple bond in C2H2 is shorter than the double bond in C2H4 and the single bond in C2H6.
Q14Which molecule has a permanent dipole moment?
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Correct: (D)
CHCl3 is tetrahedral with different atoms attached to carbon, so its bond dipoles do not cancel. CCl4, CO2, and BF3 are symmetric and nonpolar.
💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties
Q15Which substance has the highest boiling point?
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Correct: (B)
Each water molecule can form an extensive three-dimensional hydrogen-bonding network (two O-H bonds and two lone pairs), giving water the highest boiling point, 100°C.
Q16Which compound is most soluble in water?
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Correct: (D)
Methanol is polar and hydrogen bonds with water, making it miscible in all proportions. The other choices are nonpolar or only slightly soluble.
Q17How much energy is required to melt 36.0 g of ice at 0°C? The molar enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6.01 kJ/mol.
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Correct: (A)
36.0 g / 18.0 g/mol = 2.00 mol of ice; 2.00 mol × 6.01 kJ/mol = 12.0 kJ.
Q18Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C?
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Correct: (C)
Dimethyl ether has no O-H bond, so its molecules cannot hydrogen bond with each other. It has the weakest intermolecular forces and therefore the highest vapor pressure.
Q19Which substance is a covalent network solid?
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Correct: (A)
Quartz (SiO2) is held together by covalent bonds extending throughout the entire structure. NaCl is ionic, solid CO2 is molecular, and Fe is metallic.
Q20Ethanol, CH3CH2OH, boils at 78°C, while dimethyl ether, CH3OCH3, boils at −24°C, even though the two compounds have the same molar mass. The best explanation for this difference is that
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Correct: (C)
The O-H group in ethanol allows intermolecular hydrogen bonding, which takes much more energy to overcome than the dipole-dipole forces between dimethyl ether molecules.
⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions
Q21When the equation C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced using the smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of O2 is
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Correct: (D)
The balanced equation is C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O, which balances the C, H, and O atoms.
Q22When solutions of BaCl2 and Na2SO4 are mixed, a precipitate forms. The net ionic equation for the reaction is
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Correct: (B)
BaSO4 is insoluble, so Ba^2+ and SO4^2- combine to form the precipitate; Na+ and Cl- are spectator ions and are omitted.
Q23Hydrogen and oxygen react according to the equation 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O. If 2.00 mol of H2 and 0.80 mol of O2 are mixed, the maximum number of moles of H2O that can form is
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Correct: (C)
O2 is the limiting reactant: 0.80 mol O2 × (2 mol H2O / 1 mol O2) = 1.60 mol H2O.
Q24A reaction has a theoretical yield of 25.0 g of product. If 20.0 g of product is actually obtained, the percent yield is
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Correct: (A)
Percent yield = (actual / theoretical) × 100% = (20.0 / 25.0) × 100% = 80.0%.
Q25In the reaction Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s), the reducing agent is
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Correct: (D)
Zn is oxidized (its oxidation number increases from 0 to +2), so Zn is the species that causes reduction and is itself the reducing agent.
Q26What mass of CO2 is produced by the complete combustion of 8.80 g of C3H8? (Molar masses: C3H8 = 44.1 g/mol, CO2 = 44.0 g/mol)
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Correct: (B)
8.80 g C3H8 / 44.1 g/mol = 0.200 mol C3H8. Each mole of C3H8 produces 3 mol of CO2, so 0.600 mol × 44.0 g/mol = 26.4 g of CO2.
Q27A 25.00 mL sample of 0.100 M HCl is titrated with 0.125 M NaOH. What volume of the NaOH solution is required to reach the equivalence point?
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Correct: (C)
Moles of HCl = 0.02500 L × 0.100 M = 0.00250 mol. The volume of NaOH = 0.00250 mol / 0.125 M = 0.0200 L = 20.0 mL.
⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics
Q28The reaction A + B → products was studied, giving the following data. Experiment 1: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 2.0 × 10^-3 M/s. Experiment 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 8.0 × 10^-3 M/s. Experiment 3: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 4.0 × 10^-3 M/s. The rate law for the reaction is
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Correct: (D)
Doubling [A] (experiments 1 and 2) quadruples the rate, so the reaction is second order in A. Doubling [B] (experiments 1 and 3) doubles the rate, so it is first order in B.
Q29For a reaction that is second order overall, the units of the rate constant, k, are
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Correct: (B)
For rate = k[A]^2, k = rate / [A]^2 = (M/s) / M^2 = M^-1 s^-1.
Q30A first-order reaction has a rate constant k = 0.0693 s^-1. The half-life of the reaction is
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Correct: (A)
For a first-order reaction, t1/2 = ln 2 / k = 0.693 / 0.0693 s^-1 = 10.0 s.
Q31A first-order reaction begins with [A] = 0.80 M. After 30. min, the concentration of A is 0.20 M. The value of the rate constant is
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Correct: (C)
ln([A]0/[A]) = kt, so ln(0.80/0.20) = ln 4 = 1.39 = k(30. min), giving k = 0.046 min^-1.
Q32A proposed mechanism for a reaction is shown below. Step 1 (slow): NO2 + NO2 → NO3 + NO. Step 2 (fast): NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2. In this mechanism, NO3 is best described as
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Correct: (B)
NO3 is produced in step 1 and consumed in step 2, so it is an intermediate. It does not appear in the overall equation, NO2 + CO → NO + CO2.
Q33The rate constant of a reaction doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. The activation energy of the reaction is closest to (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
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Correct: (D)
Using ln(k2/k1) = (Ea/R)(1/T1 − 1/T2): ln 2 = (Ea/8.314)(1/300 − 1/310), which gives Ea ≈ 5.4 × 10^4 J/mol = 54 kJ/mol.
Q34A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst works by providing a different mechanism with a lower activation energy. It does not change ΔH or the position of equilibrium.
🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics
Q35Given the following thermochemical equations: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = −393.5 kJ. CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = −283.0 kJ. The value of ΔH for the reaction C(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO(g) is
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Correct: (C)
By Hess's law, subtract the second equation from the first: ΔH = −393.5 − (−283.0) = −110.5 kJ.
Q36How much heat is absorbed when 50.0 g of water is heated from 25.0°C to 35.0°C? (The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g·°C.)
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Correct: (A)
q = mcΔT = (50.0 g)(4.184 J/g·°C)(10.0°C) = 2092 J = 2.09 kJ.
Q37Using standard enthalpies of formation (CH4 = −74.8 kJ/mol, CO2 = −393.5 kJ/mol, H2O(l) = −285.8 kJ/mol), the enthalpy change for the reaction CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l) is
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Correct: (D)
ΔH = [−393.5 + 2(−285.8)] − [−74.8] = −965.1 + 74.8 = −890.3 kJ.
Q38Estimate the enthalpy change for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) using average bond enthalpies (H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol).
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Correct: (B)
Bonds broken: 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Bonds formed: 2(431) = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 − 862 = −184 kJ.
Q39Which process is accompanied by an increase in the entropy of the system?
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Correct: (C)
Dissolving the solid salt produces mobile aqueous ions, which greatly increases the disorder of the system. The other processes all decrease disorder.
Q40A 25.0 g sample of a metal absorbs 650 J of heat, and its temperature rises by 26.0°C. The specific heat of the metal is
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Correct: (B)
c = q / (mΔT) = 650 J / [(25.0 g)(26.0°C)] = 650 / 650 = 1.00 J/g·°C.
Q41For the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), ΔH = −92.2 kJ. How much heat is released when 34.0 g of NH3 is formed?
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Correct: (D)
34.0 g NH3 / 17.0 g/mol = 2.00 mol of NH3, which is exactly the amount in the thermochemical equation, so 92.2 kJ of heat is released.
⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium
Q42For the equilibrium N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), the equilibrium constant expression, Kc, is
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Correct: (A)
Kc equals the product concentrations raised to their stoichiometric coefficients divided by the reactant concentrations raised to theirs.
Q43For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), Kc = 50. at 448°C. A flask initially contains 0.50 M H2 and 0.50 M I2 and no HI. The equilibrium concentration of HI is closest to
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Correct: (C)
Let x be the amount of H2 consumed. Then [HI] = 2x and (2x)^2 / (0.50 − x)^2 = 50, so 2x / (0.50 − x) = 7.07, giving x = 0.39 and [HI] = 2x = 0.78 M.
Q44For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), Kc = 4.6 × 10^-3 at 298 K. The value of Kp at 298 K is closest to (R = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K)
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Correct: (B)
Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn, and Δn = 2 − 1 = +1, so Kp = (4.6 × 10^-3)(0.0821)(298) = 0.11.
Q45The reaction CO(g) + 2 H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) is exothermic. Which change will increase the equilibrium yield of CH3OH?
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Correct: (D)
The reaction converts 3 mol of gas into 1 mol of gas, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium toward products. A catalyst does not change the yield, and for an exothermic reaction heating shifts the equilibrium toward reactants.
Q46The Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 × 10^-10. The molar solubility of AgCl in pure water is
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Correct: (B)
For AgCl(s) ⇌ Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq), Ksp = s^2, so s = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-10) = 1.3 × 10^-5 M.
Q47The molar solubility of AgCl in a 0.10 M solution of NaCl is closest to
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Correct: (A)
The Cl- already present is a common ion and suppresses the solubility: Ksp = s(0.10), so s = 1.8 × 10^-10 / 0.10 = 1.8 × 10^-9 M.
Q48At a certain moment during a reversible reaction, the reaction quotient Q is 2.0 and the equilibrium constant Kc is 0.50. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Because Q is greater than K, the mixture contains too much product relative to equilibrium, so the net reaction proceeds toward the reactants until Q = K.
🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases
Q49The pH of a 0.0025 M solution of HCl is
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Correct: (C)
HCl is a strong acid and dissociates completely, so [H+] = 0.0025 M and pH = −log(2.5 × 10^-3) = 2.60.
Q50The pH of a 0.10 M solution of acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 × 10^-5) is closest to
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Correct: (A)
[H+] = sqrt(Ka × C) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.10) = 1.34 × 10^-3 M, so pH = 2.87.
Q51A buffer solution contains 0.30 M CH3COOH and 0.20 M CH3COONa. The pKa of acetic acid is 4.74. The pH of the buffer is
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Correct: (D)
pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(0.20/0.30) = 4.74 − 0.18 = 4.56.
Q52A 25.0 mL sample of 0.10 M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10^-5) is titrated with 0.10 M HCl. The pH at the equivalence point is closest to
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Correct: (B)
At the equivalence point all of the NH3 has been converted to NH4+ at a concentration of 0.050 M. NH4+ is a weak acid with Ka = Kw/Kb = 5.6 × 10^-10, so [H+] = sqrt(5.6 × 10^-10 × 0.050) = 5.3 × 10^-6 M and pH = 5.28.
Q53The conjugate base of H2PO4- is
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Correct: (C)
A conjugate base is formed by removing one H+ from the acid. Removing H+ from H2PO4- gives HPO4^2-.
Q54The pH of a 0.010 M solution of Ba(OH)2 is
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Correct: (B)
Each formula unit provides two OH- ions, so [OH-] = 0.020 M. pOH = −log(0.020) = 1.70, and pH = 14.00 − 1.70 = 12.30.
🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics
Q55A reaction has ΔH = −100 kJ and ΔS = −200 J/K. At 298 K, the value of ΔG for the reaction is
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Correct: (A)
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = −100 kJ − (298 K)(−0.200 kJ/K) = −100 + 59.6 = −40.4 kJ, so the reaction is spontaneous at 298 K.
Q56A reaction has ΔH = +50 kJ and ΔS = +100 J/K. The reaction is spontaneous
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Correct: (D)
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS becomes negative only when T is greater than ΔH/ΔS = 50,000 J / 100 J/K = 500 K.
Q57Given E°(Cu^2+/Cu) = +0.34 V and E°(Zn^2+/Zn) = −0.76 V, the standard cell potential for the reaction Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s) is
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Correct: (B)
E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = +0.34 − (−0.76) = +1.10 V. The positive value means the reaction is spontaneous as written.
Q58A galvanic cell reaction transfers 2 mol of electrons and has E°cell = +1.10 V. The standard Gibbs free energy change for the reaction is closest to (F = 96,485 C/mol e-)
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Correct: (C)
ΔG° = −nFE° = −(2)(96,485)(1.10) = −212,000 J = −212 kJ.
Q59How much time is required to deposit 6.35 g of Cu from a solution containing Cu^2+ using a current of 2.00 A? (Cu = 63.55 g/mol, F = 96,485 C/mol e-)
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Correct: (A)
6.35 g of Cu is 0.100 mol, which requires 0.200 mol of electrons. Q = (0.200)(96,485) = 1.93 × 10^4 C, and t = Q / I = 1.93 × 10^4 / 2.00 = 9.65 × 10^3 s.
Q60In a functioning galvanic (voltaic) cell,
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Correct: (D)
Oxidation always occurs at the anode. In a galvanic cell the anode supplies electrons to the external circuit and is the negative terminal; reduction occurs at the positive cathode.
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