AP Chemistry Practice Test 4

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.

⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties

Q1What is the ground-state electron configuration of a copper atom?

(A) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^9
(B) [Ar] 3d^9
(C) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10
(D) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^10
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Copper is an exception to the usual filling order: one 4s electron moves into the 3d subshell because a completely filled 3d^10 subshell is especially stable.

Q2Which of the following atoms has the largest atomic radius?

(A) K
(B) Ca
(C) Ga
(D) Ge
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

All four are in period 4, and radius decreases across a period as effective nuclear charge increases, so K, farthest to the left, has the largest radius.

Q3Which element has an exceptionally high second ionization energy because its singly charged ion has a noble-gas electron configuration?

(A) Mg
(B) Na
(C) Al
(D) Si
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Na+ has the stable neon configuration, so removing a second electron from sodium means breaking into a filled core shell, which requires an exceptionally large amount of energy.

Q4Naturally occurring magnesium consists of three isotopes: ^24Mg (23.985 amu, 78.99%), ^25Mg (24.986 amu, 10.00%), and ^26Mg (25.983 amu, 11.01%). The average atomic mass of magnesium is closest to

(A) 24.00 amu
(B) 25.00 amu
(C) 24.95 amu
(D) 24.31 amu
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

(23.985)(0.7899) + (24.986)(0.1000) + (25.983)(0.1101) = 18.95 + 2.50 + 2.86 = 24.31 amu.

Q5What is the energy of one photon of light with a wavelength of 600 nm? (h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J·s, c = 3.00 × 10^8 m/s)

(A) 1.66 × 10^-19 J
(B) 6.63 × 10^-19 J
(C) 3.31 × 10^-19 J
(D) 3.31 × 10^-28 J
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

E = hc/λ = (6.626 × 10^-34)(3.00 × 10^8)/(6.00 × 10^-7) = 3.31 × 10^-19 J.

Q6How many peaks appear in the photoelectron spectrum of a sulfur atom?

(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 16
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each occupied subshell produces one peak. Sulfur (1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^4) has electrons in five subshells: 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, and 3p.

Q7Which element has the highest first ionization energy?

(A) S
(B) O
(C) Se
(D) Te
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

First ionization energy increases up a group because the valence electrons are in shells closer to the nucleus; oxygen is at the top of group 16 among the choices.

🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure

Q8What is the molecular geometry of XeF4?

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Seesaw
(C) Octahedral
(D) Square planar
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Xenon has six electron domains (four bonding pairs and two lone pairs); the lone pairs sit opposite each other and the four fluorines form a square planar arrangement.

Q9What is the formal charge on the nitrogen atom in NH4+?

(A) 0
(B) -1
(C) +1
(D) +4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Formal charge = 5 valence electrons – (0 nonbonding electrons + 4 bonding electrons) = +1.

Q10What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in CO2?

(A) sp
(B) sp2
(C) sp3
(D) sp3d
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The carbon atom in CO2 has two electron domains (two double bonds) in a linear arrangement, which corresponds to sp hybridization.

Q11According to molecular orbital theory, the bond order of NO (11 valence electrons) is

(A) 2
(B) 2.5
(C) 3
(D) 1.5
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NO has 8 electrons in bonding orbitals and 3 in antibonding orbitals, so bond order = (8 – 3)/2 = 2.5.

Q12Which compound has the greatest lattice energy?

(A) RbCl
(B) KCl
(C) NaCl
(D) LiCl
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

All four compounds have +1 and -1 ions, so the smallest ions produce the strongest attraction; Li+ is the smallest cation, giving LiCl the greatest lattice energy.

Q13How many sigma and pi bonds are present in a molecule of C2H4?

(A) 5 sigma, 1 pi
(B) 4 sigma, 2 pi
(C) 6 sigma, 0 pi
(D) 5 sigma, 2 pi
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

C2H4 has four C-H sigma bonds and one C-C sigma bond (5 sigma total); the second component of the C=C double bond is 1 pi bond.

Q14How many equivalent resonance structures can be drawn for the nitrate ion, NO3-?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The double bond can be drawn to any one of the three equivalent oxygen atoms, giving 3 equivalent resonance structures.

💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties

Q15Which of the hydrogen halides has the highest boiling point?

(A) HI
(B) HF
(C) HCl
(D) HBr
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

HF forms strong hydrogen bonds between its molecules, giving it an anomalously high boiling point despite having the lowest molar mass of the group.

Q16What is the strongest type of intermolecular force present in liquid ethanol, CH3CH2OH?

(A) London dispersion forces only
(B) Dipole-dipole attractions only
(C) Hydrogen bonding
(D) Ionic bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The O-H group in ethanol allows extensive hydrogen bonding between molecules, which is the strongest intermolecular force present.

Q17Solid I2 is most soluble in which solvent?

(A) CCl4
(B) H2O
(C) CH3OH
(D) Glycerol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

I2 is nonpolar and dissolves best in a nonpolar solvent according to the "like dissolves like" principle; CCl4 is the only nonpolar solvent listed.

Q18Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C?

(A) Water
(B) Ethanol
(C) Glycerol
(D) Acetone
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Acetone has no O-H or N-H bonds and cannot donate hydrogen bonds, so its intermolecular forces are relatively weak and its molecules escape into the vapor most readily.

Q19How much heat is required to melt 90.0 g of ice at 0°C? (ΔHfus of water = 6.01 kJ/mol)

(A) 6.01 kJ
(B) 30.1 kJ
(C) 541 kJ
(D) 3.34 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

90.0 g / 18.0 g/mol = 5.00 mol, so q = (5.00 mol)(6.01 kJ/mol) = 30.1 kJ.

Q20Which solid conducts electricity in the molten state but not in the solid state?

(A) NaCl
(B) Cu
(C) Diamond
(D) I2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In molten NaCl the ions are free to move and carry charge, but in the solid the ions are locked into fixed positions in the lattice. (Copper conducts in both states; diamond and I2 conduct in neither.)

⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions

Q21When the equation Fe2O3 + CO → Fe + CO2 is balanced with the smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of CO is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The balanced equation is Fe2O3 + 3 CO → 2 Fe + 3 CO2, so the coefficient of CO is 3.

Q22What is the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when a strip of zinc metal is placed in aqueous CuSO4?

(A) Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s)
(B) Zn(s) + SO4^2-(aq) → ZnSO4(s)
(C) Cu^2+(aq) + SO4^2-(aq) → CuSO4(s)
(D) No reaction occurs
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zinc is more easily oxidized than copper, so Zn reduces Cu^2+ to Cu while forming Zn^2+; sulfate is a spectator ion.

Q23What mass of H2O is produced by the complete combustion of 32.0 g of CH4 (molar mass 16.0 g/mol)?

(A) 18.0 g
(B) 36.0 g
(C) 72.0 g
(D) 144 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

32.0 g / 16.0 g/mol = 2.00 mol of CH4 produces 4.00 mol of H2O, and 4.00 mol × 18.0 g/mol = 72.0 g.

Q24A reaction mixture contains 0.100 mol of CaCO3 and 0.150 mol of HCl, which react according to CaCO3 + 2 HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2. How many moles of CO2 can form?

(A) 0.100 mol
(B) 0.0750 mol
(C) 0.150 mol
(D) 0.0500 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The 0.100 mol of CaCO3 would require 0.200 mol of HCl, but only 0.150 mol is available, so HCl is limiting and 0.150/2 = 0.0750 mol of CO2 forms.

Q25A synthesis produces 36.0 g of product when the theoretical yield is 45.0 g. The percent yield is

(A) 80.0%
(B) 125%
(C) 36.0%
(D) 20.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percent yield = (36.0 g / 45.0 g) × 100 = 80.0%.

Q26What is the oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7?

(A) +3
(B) +7
(C) +2
(D) +6
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Using K = +1 and O = -2: 2(+1) + 2(Cr) + 7(-2) = 0, so 2(Cr) = +12 and Cr = +6.

Q27A 20.00 mL sample of H2SO4(aq) is exactly neutralized by 30.00 mL of 0.200 M NaOH(aq). The molar concentration of the H2SO4 is

(A) 0.300 M
(B) 0.600 M
(C) 0.150 M
(D) 0.0750 M
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of NaOH = (0.200)(0.03000) = 6.00 × 10^-3 mol; since each H2SO4 reacts with 2 NaOH, moles of H2SO4 = 3.00 × 10^-3, and [H2SO4] = 3.00 × 10^-3/0.02000 = 0.150 M.

⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics

Q28Initial-rate data for the reaction X + Y → products are shown below.
Experiment 1: [X] = 0.20 M, [Y] = 0.10 M, rate = 0.040 M/s
Experiment 2: [X] = 0.40 M, [Y] = 0.10 M, rate = 0.040 M/s
Experiment 3: [X] = 0.20 M, [Y] = 0.20 M, rate = 0.160 M/s
The rate law for the reaction is

(A) Rate = k[X][Y]
(B) Rate = k[Y]^2
(C) Rate = k[X]^2
(D) Rate = k[X][Y]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Doubling [X] does not change the rate (zero order in X), while doubling [Y] quadruples the rate (second order in Y).

Q29A reaction that is second order in A has k = 0.50 M^-1·s^-1. If the initial concentration of A is 0.40 M, the half-life is

(A) 1.4 s
(B) 0.80 s
(C) 2.0 s
(D) 5.0 s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

For a second-order reaction, t1/2 = 1/(k[A]0) = 1/((0.50)(0.40)) = 1/0.20 = 5.0 s.

Q30What fraction of a reactant remains after three half-lives in a first-order reaction?

(A) 12.5%
(B) 25%
(C) 6.25%
(D) 33.3%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Each half-life cuts the amount in half: (1/2)^3 = 1/8 = 12.5% remains.

Q31The decomposition of ozone, 2 O3(g) → 3 O2(g), is proposed to occur by the mechanism below.
Step 1 (fast equilibrium): O3 ⇌ O2 + O
Step 2 (slow): O3 + O → 2 O2
The rate law predicted by this mechanism is

(A) Rate = k[O3]
(B) Rate = k[O3][O]
(C) Rate = k[O3]^2/[O2]
(D) Rate = k[O2][O]
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The slow step gives Rate = k[O3][O], but O is an intermediate; from the fast equilibrium, [O] = K[O3]/[O2], so substituting gives Rate = k'[O3]^2/[O2].

Q32A zero-order reaction has a rate constant k = 0.025 M/s. If the initial concentration of the reactant is 1.0 M, how long will it take for the reactant to be completely consumed?

(A) 25 s
(B) 40 s
(C) 0.025 s
(D) 100 s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a zero-order reaction the concentration falls at a constant rate of 0.025 M/s, so t = 1.0 M / 0.025 M/s = 40 s.

Q33According to collision theory, increasing the concentration of reactants increases the reaction rate because

(A) the activation energy decreases
(B) each collision becomes more energetic
(C) the reaction becomes more exothermic
(D) reactant particles collide more frequently
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, so collisions occur more often and the number of effective collisions per second rises.

Q34A reaction has a rate constant of 2.0 × 10^-3 s^-1 at 300 K and 8.0 × 10^-3 s^-1 at 320 K. The activation energy is closest to (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

(A) 55 kJ/mol
(B) 5.5 kJ/mol
(C) 27 kJ/mol
(D) 110 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ln(k2/k1) = ln 4 = (Ea/8.314)(1/300 – 1/320) = (Ea)(2.08 × 10^-5), which gives Ea ≈ 5.5 × 10^4 J/mol = 55 kJ/mol.




🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics

Q35A 100.0 g sample of water cools from 45.0°C to 25.0°C. How much heat does the water release? (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C)

(A) 2.09 kJ
(B) 4.18 kJ
(C) 8.36 kJ
(D) 16.7 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

q = mcΔT = (100.0)(4.18)(20.0) = 8360 J = 8.36 kJ of heat released.

Q36Given the thermochemical equations below:
(1) N2(g) + 2 O2(g) → 2 NO2(g), ΔH = +68 kJ
(2) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g), ΔH = +180 kJ
What is ΔH for the reaction 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g)?

(A) +248 kJ
(B) -112 kJ
(C) -248 kJ
(D) +112 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1) gives the target reaction, so ΔH = 68 – 180 = -112 kJ.

Q37Use the average bond enthalpies below to estimate ΔH for the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g).
(N≡N = 941 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, N-H = 391 kJ/mol)

(A) -184 kJ
(B) +97 kJ
(C) -4595 kJ
(D) -97 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bonds broken: 941 + 3(436) = 2249 kJ; bonds formed: 6(391) = 2346 kJ; ΔH = 2249 – 2346 = -97 kJ.

Q38What is the standard enthalpy change for the reaction 2 H2O2(l) → 2 H2O(l) + O2(g)?
(ΔHf° values: H2O2(l) = -187.8 kJ/mol, H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol)

(A) -196 kJ
(B) +196 kJ
(C) -98.0 kJ
(D) -571.6 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔH° = 2(-285.8) – 2(-187.8) = -571.6 + 375.6 = -196 kJ.

Q39When 5.00 g of NH4NO3 (molar mass 80.0 g/mol) dissolves in 100.0 g of water, the temperature of the solution falls from 22.0°C to 16.5°C. The molar enthalpy of solution of NH4NO3 is closest to (specific heat of the solution ≈ 4.18 J/g·°C)

(A) +2.30 kJ/mol
(B) +23.0 kJ/mol
(C) +36.8 kJ/mol
(D) -36.8 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Heat absorbed from the water = (100.0)(4.18)(5.5) = 2299 J for 5.00/80.0 = 0.0625 mol, so ΔH = 2299/0.0625 ≈ +36.8 kJ/mol; the positive sign reflects the endothermic dissolution.

Q40Which process is accompanied by a decrease in the entropy of the system?

(A) Ice melting at 0°C
(B) Water vapor condensing at 100°C
(C) A solid dissolving in water
(D) A gas expanding into a vacuum
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Condensation changes a dispersed gas into a more ordered liquid, reducing the number of accessible microstates, so ΔS < 0.

Q41Which chemical equation represents the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l)?

(A) CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(l)
(B) C(s) + 4 H(g) + O(g) → CH3OH(l)
(C) CH4(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CH3OH(l)
(D) C(graphite) + 2 H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CH3OH(l)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A formation equation produces exactly one mole of the compound from its elements in their standard states: solid carbon (graphite), H2 gas, and O2 gas.

⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium

Q42For the heterogeneous equilibrium CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g), the equilibrium constant expression Kc is

(A) Kc = [CO2]
(B) Kc = [CaO][CO2]/[CaCO3]
(C) Kc = 1/[CO2]
(D) Kc = [CO2]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The concentrations of pure solids do not appear in equilibrium constant expressions, leaving only the gas: Kc = [CO2].

Q43For the reaction PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), Kc = 0.50 at a certain temperature. If a flask initially contains 1.00 M PCl5 and no products, what is the equilibrium concentration of Cl2?

(A) 0.25 M
(B) 1.00 M
(C) 0.50 M
(D) 0.67 M
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

From an ICE table, x^2/(1.00 – x) = 0.50 gives x^2 + 0.50x – 0.50 = 0, whose positive root is x = 0.50 M, and [Cl2] = x = 0.50 M.

Q44For the reaction N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), Kc = 0.36 at 500 K. The value of Kp at 500 K is closest to (R = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K)

(A) 0.36
(B) 14.8
(C) 0.0088
(D) 180
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn with Δn = 2 – 1 = +1, so Kp = (0.36)(0.0821)(500) = 14.8.

Q45For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), increasing the pressure by decreasing the volume at constant temperature will

(A) shift the equilibrium toward NO2
(B) shift the equilibrium toward NO2 and increase K
(C) have no effect on the position of equilibrium
(D) shift the equilibrium toward N2O4
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Higher pressure favors the side with fewer moles of gas. The left side has 1 mol of gas and the right has 2 mol, so the equilibrium shifts toward N2O4; the value of K is unchanged because the temperature is constant.

Q46What is the molar solubility of PbCl2 in pure water? (Ksp of PbCl2 = 1.6 × 10^-5)

(A) 1.6 × 10^-2 M
(B) 4.0 × 10^-3 M
(C) 2.5 × 10^-2 M
(D) 1.6 × 10^-5 M
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

PbCl2 dissolves to give [Pb^2+] = s and [Cl-] = 2s, so Ksp = (s)(2s)^2 = 4s^3 = 1.6 × 10^-5; thus s^3 = 4.0 × 10^-6 and s = 1.6 × 10^-2 M.

Q47For the reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g), K = 4.0 at a certain temperature. A mixture at this temperature contains [A] = 0.10 M and [B] = 0.60 M. The reaction will proceed

(A) toward the products, because Q < K
(B) in neither direction, because the system is at equilibrium
(C) toward the reactants, because Q > K
(D) toward the products, because Q > K
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Q = [B]/[A] = 0.60/0.10 = 6.0, which is greater than K = 4.0, so the net reaction runs in reverse, toward the reactants, until Q = K.

Q48What is the molar solubility of AgBr (Ksp = 5.0 × 10^-13) in a 0.010 M NaBr solution?

(A) 5.0 × 10^-13 M
(B) 5.0 × 10^-11 M
(C) 7.1 × 10^-7 M
(D) 5.0 × 10^-15 M
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The common ion Br- (already 0.010 M from NaBr) suppresses the solubility: s = Ksp/[Br-] = 5.0 × 10^-13/0.010 = 5.0 × 10^-11 M.

🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases

Q49What is the pH of a 0.0010 M NaOH solution?

(A) 3.00
(B) 1.00
(C) 11.00
(D) 13.00
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

NaOH dissociates completely, so [OH-] = 0.0010 M and pOH = 3.00; therefore pH = 14.00 – 3.00 = 11.00.

Q50What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of NH3? (Kb of NH3 = 1.8 × 10^-5)

(A) 8.87
(B) 2.87
(C) 12.87
(D) 11.13
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

[OH-] = sqrt(Kb × C) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.10) = 1.34 × 10^-3 M, so pOH = 2.87 and pH = 14.00 – 2.87 = 11.13.

Q51What is the pH of a buffer containing 0.50 M HF and 0.40 M NaF? (Ka of HF = 6.8 × 10^-4, pKa = 3.17)

(A) 3.07
(B) 3.17
(C) 3.27
(D) 2.90
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 3.17 + log(0.40/0.50) = 3.17 – 0.10 = 3.07.

Q52What is the conjugate acid of CO3^2-?

(A) H2CO3
(B) HCO3-
(C) OH-
(D) CO2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A conjugate acid is formed by adding one H+ to the base; adding H+ to CO3^2- gives HCO3-.

Q53When a weak acid is titrated with a strong base, at the half-equivalence point

(A) pH = 7.00
(B) the concentration of the acid is zero
(C) pH = pKa of the acid
(D) the pH equals the pKb of the conjugate base
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the half-equivalence point exactly half of the acid has been converted to its conjugate base, so [HA] = [A-] and the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation reduces to pH = pKa.

Q54Which species is amphiprotic, meaning it can act as either an acid or a base?

(A) CO3^2-
(B) CH3COO-
(C) H2CO3
(D) HCO3-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

HCO3- can donate a proton to form CO3^2- (acting as an acid) or accept a proton to form H2CO3 (acting as a base).

🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics

Q55A reaction has ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0. The reaction is spontaneous

(A) only at high temperatures
(B) at all temperatures
(C) only at low temperatures
(D) at no temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS; with both terms positive, ΔG becomes negative only when TΔS is large enough to outweigh ΔH, which happens at high temperatures.

Q56What is the standard cell potential for the reaction Fe(s) + 2 Ag+(aq) → Fe^2+(aq) + 2 Ag(s)?
(E° values: Ag+/Ag = +0.80 V, Fe^2+/Fe = -0.44 V)

(A) 0.36 V
(B) 1.24 V
(C) -1.24 V
(D) 0.44 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

E°cell = E°(cathode) – E°(anode) = 0.80 – (-0.44) = 1.24 V.

Q57What mass of copper is deposited when a current of 3.00 A flows for 9650 s through a solution containing Cu^2+ ions? (Faraday constant = 96,485 C/mol e-)

(A) 3.18 g
(B) 19.1 g
(C) 6.35 g
(D) 9.53 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Charge passed = (3.00)(9650) = 28,950 C = 0.300 mol of electrons; since each Cu^2+ requires 2 electrons, 0.150 mol of Cu is deposited, and 0.150 × 63.5 = 9.53 g.

Q58What is ΔG° for a cell reaction in which 2 moles of electrons are transferred and E°cell = +0.50 V? (Faraday constant = 96,485 C/mol e-)

(A) -48.2 kJ
(B) +96.5 kJ
(C) -96.5 kJ
(D) -193 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔG° = -nFE° = -(2)(96,485)(0.50) = -9.65 × 10^4 J = -96.5 kJ.

Q59For a reaction at 298 K with an equilibrium constant K = 1.0 × 10^-5, ΔG° is closest to

(A) +28.5 kJ
(B) -28.5 kJ
(C) +2.85 kJ
(D) 0 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔG° = -RT ln K = -(8.314)(298) ln(1.0 × 10^-5) = +2.85 × 10^4 J = +28.5 kJ, consistent with K < 1 meaning reactants are favored under standard conditions.

Q60In a galvanic (voltaic) cell, which statement is correct?

(A) Oxidation occurs at the cathode
(B) Electrons flow from the anode to the cathode through the external circuit
(C) The anode is the positive terminal of the cell
(D) The standard cell potential is negative for a spontaneous cell reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Oxidation at the anode releases electrons, which travel through the external circuit to the cathode, where reduction occurs; in a galvanic cell the anode is negative and E°cell is positive for a spontaneous reaction.