AP Chemistry Practice Test 3

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.

⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties

Q1What is the ground-state electron configuration of an Fe^2+ ion?

(A) [Ar] 3d^6
(B) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^4
(C) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5
(D) [Ar] 3d^4
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Fe is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6, and the two 4s electrons are removed first when Fe^2+ forms, leaving [Ar] 3d^6.

Q2Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius?

(A) Na
(B) Mg
(C) P
(D) S
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

All four are in period 3; atomic radius decreases across a period as effective nuclear charge increases, so S, farthest to the right, is smallest.

Q3An element has successive ionization energies of 496, 4562, 6910, and 9543 kJ/mol. How many valence electrons does the element have?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 8
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The huge jump between the first and second ionization energies shows that only one electron is easily removed; the second electron comes from a stable noble-gas core, so the atom has 1 valence electron.

Q4A sample of chlorine contains two isotopes: ^35Cl (34.969 amu, 75.77% abundance) and ^37Cl (36.966 amu, 24.23% abundance). The average atomic mass of chlorine is closest to

(A) 35.97 amu
(B) 35.45 amu
(C) 35.00 amu
(D) 36.50 amu
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

(34.969)(0.7577) + (36.966)(0.2423) = 26.50 + 8.96 = 35.45 amu.

Q5The photoelectron spectrum of an element shows four peaks whose areas correspond to 2, 2, 6, and 1 electrons, in order of decreasing binding energy. The element is

(A) Na
(B) Mg
(C) Al
(D) Ne
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The peaks total 11 electrons with configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1, which is sodium.

Q6The ions O^2-, F-, Na+, and Mg^2+ are isoelectronic. Which ion has the largest radius?

(A) Mg^2+
(B) Na+
(C) F-
(D) O^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

All four ions have 10 electrons, but O^2- has the fewest protons (8), so its electron cloud is held least tightly and the ion is largest.

Q7What is the energy of one photon of light with a wavelength of 400 nm? (h = 6.626 × 10^-34 J·s, c = 3.00 × 10^8 m/s)

(A) 1.99 × 10^-19 J
(B) 7.95 × 10^-19 J
(C) 4.97 × 10^-19 J
(D) 2.48 × 10^-19 J
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

E = hc/λ = (6.626 × 10^-34)(3.00 × 10^8)/(4.00 × 10^-7) = 4.97 × 10^-19 J.

🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure

Q8In the carbonate ion, CO3^2-, what is the formal charge on an oxygen atom that is single-bonded to the carbon atom?

(A) 0
(B) -1
(C) +1
(D) -2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Formal charge = 6 valence electrons – (6 nonbonding electrons + 1 bonding electron) = -1.

Q9What is the molecular geometry of SF4?

(A) Seesaw
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Square planar
(D) Trigonal planar
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Sulfur has five electron domains (four bonding pairs and one lone pair); the lone pair occupies an equatorial position and the atoms form a seesaw shape.

Q10What is the hybridization of the nitrogen atom in NH3?

(A) sp
(B) sp2
(C) sp3
(D) sp3d
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrogen has four electron domains (three N-H bonds and one lone pair), which corresponds to sp3 hybridization.

Q11How many equivalent resonance structures can be drawn for SO3 in which sulfur has one double bond and two single bonds to oxygen?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The double bond can be placed to any one of the three equivalent oxygen atoms, giving 3 equivalent resonance structures.

Q12Which compound has the greatest lattice energy?

(A) MgO
(B) NaCl
(C) KCl
(D) NaF
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Lattice energy increases with ion charge and decreases with ion size; Mg^2+ and O^2- combine the largest charge product (+2/-2) with small ionic radii.

Q13How many sigma and pi bonds are present in a molecule of CH3OH?

(A) 4 sigma, 1 pi
(B) 5 sigma, 0 pi
(C) 5 sigma, 1 pi
(D) 4 sigma, 0 pi
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

CH3OH contains three C-H bonds, one C-O bond, and one O-H bond, all single bonds, giving 5 sigma bonds and 0 pi bonds.

Q14Which molecule is nonpolar even though it contains polar bonds?

(A) H2O
(B) NH3
(C) CO2
(D) CHCl3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CO2 is linear and symmetrical, so the dipoles of the two C=O bonds point in opposite directions and cancel.

💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties

Q15Which substance has the highest boiling point?

(A) CH4
(B) CH3F
(C) CH3OH
(D) CH3Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CH3OH molecules form hydrogen bonds, the strongest intermolecular force among the choices, so the most thermal energy is needed to separate its molecules.

Q16What is the predominant intermolecular force between molecules in solid I2?

(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) Ionic bonding
(C) Dipole-dipole attractions
(D) London dispersion forces
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

I2 is a nonpolar molecule, so the only attractions between its molecules are London dispersion forces.

Q17Which substance is most soluble in water?

(A) CCl4
(B) CH3OH
(C) C6H14
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

CH3OH is polar and can hydrogen-bond with water, while CCl4, C6H14, and CH4 are nonpolar and dissolve poorly in water.

Q18Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C?

(A) Diethyl ether, (CH3CH2)2O
(B) Water
(C) Ethanol
(D) Ethylene glycol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Diethyl ether has an oxygen atom but no O-H bond, so it cannot hydrogen-bond with itself; its weak intermolecular forces let its molecules escape into the vapor most easily.

Q19How much heat is required to completely vaporize 36.0 g of water at its boiling point? (ΔHvap of water = 40.7 kJ/mol)

(A) 40.7 kJ
(B) 20.4 kJ
(C) 1465 kJ
(D) 81.4 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

36.0 g / 18.0 g/mol = 2.00 mol, so q = (2.00 mol)(40.7 kJ/mol) = 81.4 kJ.

Q20Which solid has the highest melting point?

(A) Ice
(B) NaCl
(C) Diamond
(D) Paraffin wax
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Diamond is a network covalent solid, and melting it requires breaking strong covalent bonds that extend throughout the entire lattice.

⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions

Q21When the equation C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced with the smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of O2 is

(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 7
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The balanced equation is C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O, so the coefficient of O2 is 5.

Q22What is the net ionic equation for the reaction that occurs when aqueous AgNO3 and aqueous NaCl are mixed?

(A) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
(B) Ag+(aq) + Cl-(aq) → AgCl(s)
(C) Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → NaNO3(s)
(D) No reaction occurs
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ag+ and Cl- combine to form the insoluble precipitate AgCl; Na+ and NO3- are spectator ions and do not appear in the net ionic equation.

Q23What mass of CO2 is produced by the complete combustion of 44.0 g of C3H8 (molar mass 44.1 g/mol)?

(A) 44.0 g
(B) 88.0 g
(C) 14.7 g
(D) 132 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

44.0 g / 44.1 g/mol ≈ 1.00 mol of C3H8 produces 3.00 mol of CO2, and 3.00 mol × 44.0 g/mol = 132 g.

Q24A mixture contains 4.0 mol of H2 and 3.0 mol of O2, which react according to 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O. What is the maximum number of moles of H2O that can form?

(A) 3.0 mol
(B) 6.0 mol
(C) 4.0 mol
(D) 2.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

4.0 mol of H2 requires only 2.0 mol of O2, so H2 is the limiting reactant and forms 4.0 mol of H2O, with 1.0 mol of O2 left over.

Q25A reaction has a theoretical yield of 50.0 g of product, but only 42.5 g is actually obtained. The percent yield is

(A) 117%
(B) 85.0%
(C) 42.5%
(D) 15.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percent yield = (42.5 g / 50.0 g) × 100 = 85.0%.

Q26What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4?

(A) +6
(B) +4
(C) -2
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Using H = +1 and O = -2: 2(+1) + S + 4(-2) = 0, so S = +6.

Q27A 25.00 mL sample of HCl(aq) is exactly neutralized by 22.50 mL of 0.100 M NaOH(aq). The molar concentration of the HCl is

(A) 0.111 M
(B) 0.100 M
(C) 0.0810 M
(D) 0.0900 M
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of NaOH = (0.100)(0.02250) = 2.25 × 10^-3 mol = moles of HCl, so [HCl] = 2.25 × 10^-3 / 0.02500 = 0.0900 M.

⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics

Q28Initial-rate data for the reaction A + B → products are shown below.
Experiment 1: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 2.0 × 10^-3 M/s
Experiment 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 8.0 × 10^-3 M/s
Experiment 3: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 2.0 × 10^-3 M/s
The rate law for the reaction is

(A) Rate = k[A][B]
(B) Rate = k[A][B]^2
(C) Rate = k[A]^2
(D) Rate = k[A]^2[B]
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Doubling [A] quadruples the rate, so the reaction is second order in A; doubling [B] leaves the rate unchanged, so it is zero order in B.

Q29The decomposition of a substance is first order with a rate constant k = 0.0347 s^-1. The half-life of the substance is

(A) 20.0 s
(B) 10.0 s
(C) 34.7 s
(D) 0.0500 s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

For a first-order reaction, t1/2 = 0.693/k = 0.693/0.0347 = 20.0 s.

Q30What are the units of the rate constant for a reaction that is second order overall?

(A) s^-1
(B) M·s^-1
(C) M^-1
(D) M^-1·s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Since rate (M/s) = k[A]^2 (M^2), k must carry units of M^-1·s^-1 for the units to balance.

Q31The reaction 2 NO2(g) → 2 NO(g) + O2(g) occurs by the mechanism below.
Step 1 (slow): NO2 + NO2 → NO3 + NO
Step 2 (fast): NO3 → NO + O2
The rate law predicted by this mechanism is

(A) Rate = k[NO2]
(B) Rate = k[NO2]^2
(C) Rate = k[NO3]
(D) Rate = k[NO2][NO3]
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The rate law is determined by the slow, rate-determining step, whose reactants are two NO2 molecules, giving Rate = k[NO2]^2.

Q32A second-order reaction has k = 0.10 M^-1·s^-1 and an initial reactant concentration of 0.50 M. What is the concentration of the reactant after 100 s?

(A) 0.25 M
(B) 0.050 M
(C) 0.083 M
(D) 0.40 M
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Using the second-order integrated law, 1/[A] = kt + 1/[A]0 = (0.10)(100) + 1/0.50 = 12, so [A] = 1/12 = 0.083 M.

Q33A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by

(A) providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy
(B) increasing the enthalpy change of the reaction
(C) raising the temperature of the reactants
(D) increasing the potential energy of the products
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A catalyst works by providing a different reaction pathway whose activation energy is lower, so a larger fraction of collisions can succeed; ΔH and the energies of reactants and products are unchanged.

Q34The rate constant of a reaction approximately doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. The activation energy of the reaction is closest to

(A) 5.4 kJ/mol
(B) 17 kJ/mol
(C) 27 kJ/mol
(D) 54 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

From the Arrhenius relation, ln 2 = (Ea/8.314)(1/300 – 1/310), which gives Ea ≈ 5.4 × 10^4 J/mol ≈ 54 kJ/mol.




🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics

Q35A 50.0 g sample of water warms from 20.0°C to 28.0°C. How much heat does the water absorb? (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C)

(A) 0.84 kJ
(B) 1.67 kJ
(C) 3.34 kJ
(D) 16.7 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

q = mcΔT = (50.0)(4.18)(8.0) = 1670 J = 1.67 kJ.

Q36Given the thermochemical equations below:
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -394 kJ
CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283 kJ
What is ΔH for the reaction C(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO(g)?

(A) -677 kJ
(B) +111 kJ
(C) -283 kJ
(D) -111 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

By Hess's law, subtracting the second equation from the first gives the target reaction: ΔH = -394 – (-283) = -111 kJ.

Q37Use the average bond enthalpies below to estimate ΔH for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g).
(H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol)

(A) -184 kJ
(B) +184 kJ
(C) -92 kJ
(D) -862 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken: 436 + 242 = 678 kJ; bonds formed: 2(431) = 862 kJ; ΔH = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ.

Q38What is the standard enthalpy change for the combustion of one mole of CH4(g), using standard enthalpies of formation?
(ΔHf° values: CH4(g) = -74.8 kJ/mol, CO2(g) = -393.5 kJ/mol, H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol)

(A) -604 kJ
(B) -75 kJ
(C) -890 kJ
(D) -965 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔH° = [-393.5 + 2(-285.8)] – [-74.8] = -965.1 + 74.8 = -890 kJ per mole of CH4.

Q39A 100.0 g sample of an unknown metal at 100.0°C is placed in 200.0 g of water at 25.0°C. The final temperature of the mixture is 28.5°C. The specific heat of the metal is closest to (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C)

(A) 0.205 J/g·°C
(B) 0.409 J/g·°C
(C) 0.818 J/g·°C
(D) 1.22 J/g·°C
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Heat gained by the water = (200.0)(4.18)(3.5) = 2926 J, so (100.0)(c)(71.5) = 2926 and c = 0.409 J/g·°C.

Q40Which process is accompanied by an increase in the entropy of the system?

(A) Water freezing at 0°C
(B) Water vapor condensing at 100°C
(C) A gas being compressed at constant temperature
(D) Dry ice subliming at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sublimation converts an ordered solid directly into a highly dispersed gas, which greatly increases the number of accessible microstates.

Q41Which of the following substances has a standard enthalpy of formation equal to zero?

(A) O2(g)
(B) O(g)
(C) O3(g)
(D) H2O(l)
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

By definition, the standard enthalpy of formation of any element in its most stable form under standard conditions, such as O2(g), is zero.

⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium

Q42For the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), the equilibrium constant expression Kc is

(A) Kc = [NH3]/([N2][H2])
(B) Kc = [NH3]^2[N2][H2]^3
(C) Kc = [NH3]^2/([N2][H2]^3)
(D) Kc = [N2][H2]^3/[NH3]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Kc equals the product concentrations raised to their coefficients divided by the reactant concentrations raised to their coefficients: [NH3]^2/([N2][H2]^3).

Q43For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), Kc = 49 at a certain temperature. A flask is filled with 0.10 M H2 and 0.10 M I2 and no HI. What is the equilibrium concentration of HI?

(A) 0.078 M
(B) 0.156 M
(C) 0.200 M
(D) 0.020 M
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Setting up an ICE table, (2x)^2/(0.10 – x)^2 = 49, so 2x/(0.10 – x) = 7 and x = 0.078 M; therefore [HI] = 2x = 0.156 M.

Q44For the reaction 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), Kc = 100 at 1000 K. The value of Kp at 1000 K is closest to (R = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K)

(A) 1.22
(B) 100
(C) 8.21 × 10^3
(D) 0.0122
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn with Δn = 2 – 3 = -1, so Kp = 100/(0.0821 × 1000) = 100/82.1 = 1.22.

Q45For an exothermic reaction at equilibrium, increasing the temperature will

(A) shift the equilibrium toward the products
(B) increase the value of the equilibrium constant
(C) have no effect on the position of equilibrium
(D) shift the equilibrium toward the reactants and decrease K
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

For an exothermic reaction, heat can be treated as a product; adding heat drives the reaction in the reverse (endothermic) direction, favoring reactants and making K smaller.

Q46What is the molar solubility of AgCl in pure water? (Ksp of AgCl = 1.8 × 10^-10)

(A) 1.8 × 10^-10 M
(B) 9.0 × 10^-11 M
(C) 1.3 × 10^-5 M
(D) 3.6 × 10^-10 M
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

AgCl dissolves to give equal concentrations of Ag+ and Cl-, so Ksp = s^2 and s = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-10) = 1.3 × 10^-5 M.

Q47At a particular moment during a reaction, the reaction quotient Q is greater than the equilibrium constant K. Which statement is correct?

(A) The reaction proceeds toward the products
(B) The reaction proceeds toward the reactants
(C) The system is at equilibrium
(D) The reaction has gone to completion
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

When Q > K, products are present in excess relative to equilibrium, so the net reaction runs in reverse, toward the reactants, until Q = K.

Q48What is the molar solubility of CaF2 (Ksp = 4.0 × 10^-11) in a 0.10 M NaF solution?

(A) 4.0 × 10^-9 M
(B) 4.0 × 10^-10 M
(C) 2.0 × 10^-5 M
(D) 4.0 × 10^-11 M
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

With the common ion F- already at 0.10 M, Ksp = [Ca^2+][F-]^2 = s(0.10)^2, so s = 4.0 × 10^-11/0.010 = 4.0 × 10^-9 M.

🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases

Q49What is the pH of a 0.010 M HCl solution?

(A) 1.00
(B) 12.00
(C) -2.00
(D) 2.00
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

HCl is a strong acid and dissociates completely, so [H+] = 0.010 M and pH = -log(0.010) = 2.00.

Q50What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of HF? (Ka of HF = 6.8 × 10^-4)

(A) 2.08
(B) 1.00
(C) 3.17
(D) 4.17
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

[H+] = sqrt(Ka × C) = sqrt(6.8 × 10^-4 × 0.10) = 8.2 × 10^-3 M, so pH = 2.08.

Q51What is the pH of a buffer made from 0.30 M CH3COOH and 0.20 M CH3COONa? (Ka of CH3COOH = 1.8 × 10^-5)

(A) 4.74
(B) 4.92
(C) 4.56
(D) 4.35
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(0.20/0.30) = 4.74 – 0.18 = 4.56.

Q52What is the conjugate base of H2PO4-?

(A) H3PO4
(B) HPO4^2-
(C) PO4^3-
(D) OH-
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A conjugate base is formed by removing one H+ from the acid; removing H+ from H2PO4- gives HPO4^2-.

Q53A 0.10 M solution of a weak acid is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH. At the equivalence point, the pH of the solution will be

(A) equal to 7.00
(B) less than 7.00
(C) exactly 5.00
(D) greater than 7.00
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At the equivalence point only the conjugate base of the weak acid remains, and it reacts with water to produce OH-, so the solution is basic with pH > 7.

Q54For the diprotic acid H2A, Ka1 is much larger than Ka2. In a solution prepared from H2A alone, the equilibrium concentration of A^2- is approximately equal to

(A) Ka2
(B) Ka1
(C) sqrt(Ka1 × Ka2)
(D) Ka1 × Ka2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Because the second ionization is so much weaker than the first, it barely changes any concentrations, and the equilibrium analysis of the second step gives [A^2-] ≈ Ka2.

🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics

Q55A reaction has ΔH° = -100 kJ/mol and ΔS° = -200 J/mol·K. What is ΔG° for the reaction at 298 K?

(A) -160 kJ/mol
(B) -40 kJ/mol
(C) +40 kJ/mol
(D) -100 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ΔG° = ΔH° – TΔS° = -100 – (298)(-0.200) = -100 + 59.6 = -40.4 ≈ -40 kJ/mol, so the reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions.

Q56What is the standard cell potential for the reaction Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s)?
(E° values: Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V, Zn^2+/Zn = -0.76 V)

(A) 0.42 V
(B) -1.10 V
(C) 1.10 V
(D) -0.42 V
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

E°cell = E°(cathode) – E°(anode) = 0.34 – (-0.76) = 1.10 V.

Q57How long must a current of 2.00 A flow through a Cu^2+ solution to deposit 6.35 g of copper metal? (Faraday constant = 96,485 C/mol e-)

(A) 9.65 × 10^3 s
(B) 4.82 × 10^3 s
(C) 1.93 × 10^4 s
(D) 965 s
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

6.35 g / 63.5 g/mol = 0.100 mol of Cu requires 0.200 mol of electrons = 1.93 × 10^4 C; time = Q/I = 1.93 × 10^4/2.00 = 9.65 × 10^3 s.

Q58What is ΔG° for a cell reaction in which 2 moles of electrons are transferred and E°cell = +1.10 V? (Faraday constant = 96,485 C/mol e-)

(A) -106 kJ
(B) +212 kJ
(C) -21.2 kJ
(D) -212 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔG° = -nFE° = -(2)(96,485)(1.10) = -2.12 × 10^5 J = -212 kJ.

Q59A reaction has ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0. The reaction is

(A) spontaneous only at high temperatures
(B) nonspontaneous at all temperatures
(C) spontaneous at all temperatures
(D) spontaneous only at low temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

With ΔH negative and ΔS positive, ΔG = ΔH – TΔS is negative at every temperature.

Q60For the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g), the sign of ΔS° is expected to be

(A) positive
(B) negative
(C) zero
(D) impossible to predict
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Four moles of gas are converted into two moles of gas, so the system becomes more ordered and ΔS° is negative.