AP Chemistry Practice Test 16

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.

⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties

Q1What is the ground-state electron configuration of a copper atom, Cu (Z = 29)?

(A) [Ar] 4s2 3d9
(B) [Ar] 4s1 3d10
(C) [Ar] 3d11
(D) [Ar] 4s2 3d10
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Copper is an exception to the simple filling order: a completely filled 3d subshell (3d10) is especially stable, giving [Ar] 4s1 3d10.

Q2Naturally occurring magnesium consists of 79.0% Mg-24, 10.0% Mg-25, and 11.0% Mg-26. Its average atomic mass is closest to

(A) 24.0 u
(B) 25.0 u
(C) 24.3 u
(D) 24.8 u
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Average mass = (0.790)(24) + (0.100)(25) + (0.110)(26) = 18.96 + 2.50 + 2.86 = 24.3 u.

Q3Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius?

(A) F
(B) O
(C) S
(D) Se
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Radius increases down a group and decreases across a period; fluorine is in the top row and farthest right among these choices, so it is the smallest.

Q4Among Na, Mg, Al, and K, the element with the largest second ionization energy is

(A) Mg
(B) Al
(C) K
(D) Na
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Removing a second electron from Na+ means breaking into a stable noble-gas (neon) core, which requires a very large amount of energy.

Q5A photoelectron spectrum of an element shows three peaks corresponding to 2, 2, and 4 electrons in order of decreasing binding energy. The element is

(A) C
(B) N
(C) F
(D) O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The peaks correspond to 1s2 2s2 2p4, a total of 8 electrons, which is oxygen.

Q6The ions Ne, F−, Na+, Mg2+, and Al3+ are isoelectronic. Which has the smallest radius?

(A) Al3+
(B) F−
(C) Ne
(D) Mg2+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

All have 10 electrons; Al3+ has the most protons (13) pulling on them, so its radius is smallest.

Q7The effective nuclear charge experienced by a valence electron increases across a period primarily because

(A) shielding increases faster than nuclear charge
(B) nuclear charge increases while shielding by core electrons stays nearly constant
(C) the atomic radius increases across the period
(D) valence electrons are removed as protons are added
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Across a period, protons are added while the added electrons enter the same shell and shield one another poorly, so Zeff felt by valence electrons increases.

🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure

Q8The formal charge on the nitrogen atom in the ammonium ion, NH4+, is

(A) +1
(B) 0
(C) −1
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Formal charge = 5 valence electrons − (0 nonbonding electrons + 4 bonding electrons) = +1.

Q9The molecular geometry of XeF4 is

(A) tetrahedral
(B) square planar
(C) octahedral
(D) seesaw
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Xenon has six electron domains (four bonds and two lone pairs); the lone pairs sit opposite each other, leaving the four fluorines in a square planar arrangement.

Q10The hybridization of the boron atom in BF3 is

(A) sp3
(B) sp
(C) sp2
(D) sp3d
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Boron in BF3 has three electron domains and no lone pairs (trigonal planar), which corresponds to sp2 hybridization.

Q11Which compound has the greatest lattice energy (largest magnitude)?

(A) NaCl
(B) LiF
(C) KBr
(D) NaF
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

All contain singly charged ions, so size decides: Li+ and F− are the smallest pair, giving LiF the largest lattice energy.

Q12Based on molecular orbital theory, the bond order of O2+ is

(A) 1.5
(B) 2
(C) 2.5
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

O2 has a bond order of 2; removing one electron from an antibonding pi* orbital to form O2+ raises the bond order to (10 − 5)/2 = 2.5.

Q13Which molecule has the shortest carbon-carbon bond?

(A) C2H6
(B) C2H4
(C) C6H6
(D) C2H2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bond length decreases as bond order increases: single (C2H6) > benzene (1.5) > double (C2H4) > triple (C2H2), so the triple bond in C2H2 is shortest.

Q14The number of equivalent resonance structures that can be drawn for SO2 is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The double bond can be drawn to either of the two equivalent oxygen atoms, giving two resonance structures.

💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties

Q15Which of the following hydrogen halides has the highest boiling point?

(A) HF
(B) HCl
(C) HBr
(D) HI
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Although HF has the lowest molar mass, its strong hydrogen bonding gives it a much higher boiling point than the other hydrogen halides, which interact mainly through dipole and dispersion forces.

Q16The strongest type of intermolecular force present in pure dimethyl ether, CH3OCH3, is

(A) hydrogen bonding
(B) dipole-dipole attraction
(C) ionic bonding
(D) covalent bonding
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

CH3OCH3 is polar but has no H bonded to O, N, or F, so it cannot hydrogen bond; dipole-dipole attractions are its strongest intermolecular force.

Q17Which substance is most soluble in carbon tetrachloride, CCl4, a nonpolar solvent?

(A) NaCl
(B) I2
(C) H2O
(D) NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nonpolar I2 dissolves readily in a nonpolar solvent ("like dissolves like"), whereas the ionic and polar substances listed do not.

Q18How much heat is required to vaporize 18.0 g of water at 100°C? (ΔHvap of water = 40.7 kJ/mol)

(A) 20.4 kJ
(B) 2.26 kJ
(C) 81.4 kJ
(D) 40.7 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of water = 18.0 g / 18.0 g/mol = 1.00 mol; q = (1.00 mol)(40.7 kJ/mol) = 40.7 kJ.

Q19Which liquid has the highest viscosity at room temperature?

(A) diethyl ether
(B) ethanol
(C) glycerol
(D) acetone
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Glycerol has three −OH groups per molecule and forms an extensive hydrogen-bonding network, making it far more viscous than the other liquids.

Q20Solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) is best classified as which type of solid?

(A) ionic
(B) metallic
(C) covalent network
(D) molecular
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Dry ice consists of discrete CO2 molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces, the definition of a molecular solid.

⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions

Q21When the equation C2H5OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced with smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of O2 is

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The balanced equation is C2H5OH + 3 O2 → 2 CO2 + 3 H2O, so the coefficient of O2 is 3.

Q22When solutions of Pb(NO3)2 and KI are mixed, a yellow precipitate of PbI2 forms. The net ionic equation is

(A) K+(aq) + NO3−(aq) → KNO3(aq)
(B) Pb2+(aq) + I−(aq) → PbI(aq)
(C) Pb2+(aq) + 2 I−(aq) → PbI2(s)
(D) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2 KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2 KNO3(aq)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Only Pb2+ and I− combine to form the solid (in the correct 1:2 ratio); K+ and NO3− are spectators, and option (D) is the molecular equation.

Q23The oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4 is

(A) +4
(B) +6
(C) −2
(D) 0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With H at +1 and O at −2: 2(+1) + S + 4(−2) = 0 gives S = +6.

Q24Calcium carbonate decomposes according to CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g). The number of moles of CO2 produced by the complete decomposition of 50.0 g of CaCO3 (molar mass ≈ 100 g/mol) is

(A) 0.250 mol
(B) 1.00 mol
(C) 0.500 mol
(D) 2.00 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles CaCO3 = 50.0 g / 100 g/mol = 0.500 mol, and the 1:1 mole ratio gives 0.500 mol CO2.

Q25Aluminum reacts with chlorine according to 2 Al + 3 Cl2 → 2 AlCl3. A mixture of 10.8 g Al (0.400 mol) and 0.300 mol Cl2 reacts completely. The mass of AlCl3 (molar mass 133.3 g/mol) produced is

(A) 53.3 g
(B) 13.3 g
(C) 40.0 g
(D) 26.7 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cl2 is limiting: 0.400 mol Al would require 0.600 mol Cl2, but only 0.300 mol is present. AlCl3 formed = 0.300 mol Cl2 × (2/3) = 0.200 mol; mass = (0.200)(133.3) = 26.7 g.

Q26In a synthesis, the theoretical yield of a product is 24.0 g and the actual yield is 18.0 g. The percent yield is

(A) 133%
(B) 25.0%
(C) 75.0%
(D) 80.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percent yield = (18.0 / 24.0) × 100% = 75.0%.

Q27A 25.00 mL sample of H2SO4(aq) is completely neutralized by 20.00 mL of 0.150 M KOH(aq). The concentration of the H2SO4 is

(A) 0.120 M
(B) 0.0600 M
(C) 0.150 M
(D) 0.0300 M
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles KOH = (0.150)(0.02000) = 0.00300 mol; since H2SO4 + 2 KOH → products, moles H2SO4 = 0.00150 mol; [H2SO4] = 0.00150 / 0.02500 = 0.0600 M.

⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics

Q28For the reaction A + B → products, initial-rate data are: Experiment 1: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 1.2 × 10^-2 M/s. Experiment 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 1.2 × 10^-2 M/s. Experiment 3: [A] = 0.40 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 4.8 × 10^-2 M/s. The rate law is

(A) Rate = k[A][B]
(B) Rate = k[A]^2[B]
(C) Rate = k[A]^2
(D) Rate = k[A][B]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Doubling [B] (Exp. 1→2) does not change the rate (zero order in B); doubling [A] (Exp. 1→3) quadruples the rate (second order in A).

Q29A second-order reaction has k = 0.050 M^-1 s^-1. If the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.40 M, the time required for it to fall to 0.10 M is

(A) 75 s
(B) 150 s
(C) 300 s
(D) 14 s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For second order, 1/[A] = kt + 1/[A]0: 1/0.10 − 1/0.40 = 10 − 2.5 = 7.5 = (0.050)t, so t = 150 s.

Q30The units of the rate constant for a first-order reaction are

(A) s^-1
(B) M s^-1
(C) M^-1 s^-1
(D) M^-2 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

For first order, rate (M/s) = k[A] (M), so k has units of s^-1.

Q31Consider the two-step mechanism: Step 1: A + B → C + D. Step 2: C + E → F. In this mechanism, the intermediate is

(A) A
(B) D
(C) C
(D) E
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

An intermediate is produced in one step and consumed in a later step; C is formed in Step 1 and used up in Step 2.

Q32A reaction has an activation energy of 75 kJ/mol. By approximately what factor does the rate constant increase when the temperature rises from 300 K to 310 K? (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

(A) 1.5
(B) 2.6
(C) 5.3
(D) 10
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ln(k2/k1) = (Ea/R)(1/300 − 1/310) = (75,000/8.314)(1.08 × 10^-4) = 0.97, so k2/k1 = e^0.97 ≈ 2.6.

Q33Increasing the concentration of a gaseous reactant increases the reaction rate because

(A) the activation energy decreases
(B) the reaction becomes more exothermic
(C) the orientation factor for collisions increases
(D) the frequency of collisions between reactant molecules increases
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A higher concentration means more molecules per unit volume, so collisions occur more frequently and the rate increases.

Q34Adding a catalyst to a system at equilibrium will

(A) increase the value of the equilibrium constant
(B) shift the equilibrium toward the products
(C) increase the rates of both the forward and reverse reactions
(D) increase the equilibrium yield of products
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

A catalyst lowers the activation energy for both directions equally, so equilibrium is reached faster but neither K nor the equilibrium composition changes.




🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics

Q35A 200.0 g sample of water cools from 60.0°C to 25.0°C. The heat released by the water is (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C)

(A) 29.3 kJ
(B) 14.6 kJ
(C) 58.5 kJ
(D) 2.93 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

q = mcΔT = (200.0 g)(4.18 J/g·°C)(35.0°C) = 29,260 J ≈ 29.3 kJ released.

Q36Given: N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g), ΔH = +180.5 kJ; 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g), ΔH = −114.1 kJ. The ΔH for N2(g) + 2 O2(g) → 2 NO2(g) is

(A) −294.6 kJ
(B) +294.6 kJ
(C) −66.4 kJ
(D) +66.4 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Adding the two reactions (the NO cancels) gives the target reaction, so ΔH = +180.5 + (−114.1) = +66.4 kJ.

Q37Using average bond enthalpies (N≡N = 941 kJ/mol, H−H = 436 kJ/mol, N−H = 391 kJ/mol), the estimated ΔH for N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) is

(A) +97 kJ
(B) −48.5 kJ
(C) −97 kJ
(D) +4595 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bonds broken: 941 + 3(436) = 2249 kJ; bonds formed: 6(391) = 2346 kJ (each NH3 has three N−H bonds); ΔH = 2249 − 2346 = −97 kJ.

Q38Using standard enthalpies of formation (ΔHf° NO2(g) = +33.2 kJ/mol; ΔHf° N2O4(g) = +9.2 kJ/mol), the ΔH for 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g) is

(A) +57.2 kJ
(B) −57.2 kJ
(C) −24.0 kJ
(D) −75.6 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ΔH = ΔHf°(N2O4) − 2(ΔHf° NO2) = 9.2 − 2(33.2) = −57.2 kJ.

Q39For which reaction is the entropy change of the system negative (ΔS < 0)?

(A) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(B) H2O(s) → H2O(l)
(C) NH4Cl(s) → NH3(g) + HCl(g)
(D) 2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Three moles of gas are converted into a liquid, a large decrease in disorder, so ΔS < 0; the other choices increase disorder.

Q40A 100.0 g metal sample at 100.0°C is placed in 100.0 g of water at 20.0°C. The final temperature of the mixture is 22.0°C. The specific heat of the metal is closest to (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g·°C)

(A) 0.107 J/g·°C
(B) 1.07 J/g·°C
(C) 0.418 J/g·°C
(D) 4.18 J/g·°C
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Heat gained by water = (100.0)(4.18)(2.0) = 836 J. Heat lost by metal = (100.0)(c)(78.0) = 836 J, so c = 836 / 7800 = 0.107 J/g·°C.

Q41The standard enthalpy of formation, ΔHf°, is exactly zero for which substance?

(A) O3(g)
(B) C(s, diamond)
(C) Br2(l)
(D) H(g)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔHf° = 0 for an element in its standard state; bromine's standard state is the liquid, whereas O3, diamond, and atomic H are not the standard forms of their elements.

⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium

Q42For H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), Kc = 50 at a certain temperature. The value of Kp at the same temperature is

(A) 50
(B) 50 × RT
(C) 50 / (RT)^2
(D) 0.020
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Δn = 2 − 2 = 0 for this reaction, so Kp = Kc(RT)^0 = Kc = 50.

Q43For PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), Kc = 0.040. If the initial concentration of PCl5 is 0.20 M and no products are present, the equilibrium concentration of Cl2 is closest to

(A) 0.089 M
(B) 0.072 M
(C) 0.040 M
(D) 0.128 M
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Solve x^2 / (0.20 − x) = 0.040. The quadratic x^2 + 0.040x − 0.0080 = 0 gives x = 0.072 M (the small-x approximation, 0.089 M, is not valid here since x is a large fraction of 0.20).

Q44For the equilibrium 2 SO3(g) ⇌ 2 SO2(g) + O2(g), which is endothermic, decreasing the volume of the container at constant temperature will

(A) shift the equilibrium toward SO2 and O2
(B) increase the value of Kc
(C) shift the equilibrium toward SO3
(D) have no effect on the equilibrium position
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Decreasing the volume raises the pressure, so the equilibrium shifts toward the side with fewer moles of gas; SO3 (2 mol) is favored over SO2 + O2 (3 mol). Kc does not change with volume.

Q45The Ksp of PbI2 is 7.1 × 10^-9. The molar solubility of PbI2 in pure water is closest to

(A) 1.9 × 10^-3 M
(B) 8.4 × 10^-5 M
(C) 2.4 × 10^-3 M
(D) 1.2 × 10^-3 M
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

For PbI2, Ksp = [Pb2+][I−]^2 = (s)(2s)^2 = 4s^3 = 7.1 × 10^-9, so s = (1.78 × 10^-9)^(1/3) ≈ 1.2 × 10^-3 M.

Q46For a reaction in which the reaction quotient Q is less than K, the reaction will

(A) proceed toward the products to reach equilibrium
(B) proceed toward the reactants to reach equilibrium
(C) remain at equilibrium
(D) proceed in neither direction because both rates are zero
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

When Q < K, reactants are in excess relative to equilibrium, so the net reaction proceeds in the forward direction (toward products) until Q = K.

Q47The Ksp of CaF2 is 3.9 × 10^-11. The molar solubility of CaF2 in a solution that is 0.10 M in Ca(NO3)2 is approximately

(A) 2.1 × 10^-4 M
(B) 3.9 × 10^-9 M
(C) 1.2 × 10^-4 M
(D) 9.9 × 10^-6 M
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With [Ca2+] ≈ 0.10 M from the common ion, Ksp = (0.10)(2s)^2 = 0.40s^2 = 3.9 × 10^-11, so s = sqrt(9.75 × 10^-11) ≈ 9.9 × 10^-6 M.

Q48If Kc = 4.0 for the reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g), then Kc for the reaction 2 B(g) ⇌ 2 A(g) is

(A) 0.25
(B) 16
(C) 0.0625
(D) 2.0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Reversing the reaction takes the reciprocal (1/4) and doubling it squares the value: (1/4)^2 = 1/16 = 0.0625.

🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases

Q49The pH of a 0.010 M solution of NaOH(aq) is

(A) 12.00
(B) 2.00
(C) 7.00
(D) 13.00
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

NaOH is a strong base, so [OH−] = 0.010 M, pOH = 2.00, and pH = 14.00 − 2.00 = 12.00.

Q50The pH of a 0.10 M solution of NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10^-5) is closest to

(A) 2.87
(B) 8.87
(C) 4.74
(D) 11.13
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

[OH−] ≈ sqrt(Kb × C) = sqrt((1.8 × 10^-5)(0.10)) = 1.3 × 10^-3 M; pOH = 2.87, so pH = 14.00 − 2.87 = 11.13.

Q51A buffer solution contains 0.15 M formic acid, HCOOH, and 0.10 M sodium formate (pKa of formic acid = 3.74). The pH of the buffer is

(A) 3.56
(B) 3.74
(C) 3.92
(D) 4.26
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Henderson-Hasselbalch: pH = 3.74 + log(0.10/0.15) = 3.74 − 0.18 = 3.56.

Q52The conjugate acid of HPO4^2− is

(A) PO4^3−
(B) H3PO4
(C) H2PO4−
(D) OH−
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Adding a proton to HPO4^2− gives its conjugate acid, H2PO4−.

Q53A 0.10 M solution of a weak acid is titrated with NaOH. At the half-equivalence point, the measured pH is 4.74. The Ka of the acid is therefore closest to

(A) 1.8 × 10^-9
(B) 1.8 × 10^-5
(C) 5.5 × 10^-10
(D) 4.7 × 10^-2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At the half-equivalence point, [HA] = [A−], so pH = pKa = 4.74, giving Ka = 10^-4.74 ≈ 1.8 × 10^-5.

Q54Which species is amphoteric (can act as either an acid or a base)?

(A) HCO3−
(B) CO2
(C) CO3^2−
(D) CH4
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

HCO3− can donate a proton (forming CO3^2−) or accept a proton (forming H2CO3), so it is amphoteric.

🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics

Q55For a galvanic cell reaction in which n = 2 mol of electrons are transferred and E°cell = +0.80 V, the standard free-energy change is (F = 96,485 C/mol)

(A) −154 kJ
(B) +154 kJ
(C) −77 kJ
(D) −309 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔG° = −nFE° = −(2)(96,485)(0.80) = −154,000 J ≈ −154 kJ.

Q56Silver is plated from a solution of Ag+ by passing a current of 1.50 A for 32.2 minutes. The mass of silver deposited is (F = 96,485 C/mol e−; molar mass Ag = 107.87 g/mol)

(A) 1.62 g
(B) 6.48 g
(C) 0.81 g
(D) 3.24 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Charge = (1.50 A)(1932 s) = 2898 C = 0.0300 mol e−. Since Ag+ + e− → Ag, 0.0300 mol Ag forms; mass = (0.0300)(107.87) = 3.24 g.

Q57In the voltaic cell Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Cu2+(aq) | Cu(s), which statement is correct?

(A) Reduction occurs at the Zn electrode
(B) Electrons flow through the external circuit from the Zn electrode to the Cu electrode
(C) Anions in the salt bridge migrate toward the Cu electrode (cathode)
(D) The Zn electrode is the cathode
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Zn is oxidized at the anode, releasing electrons that travel through the external circuit to the cathode, where Cu2+ is reduced; salt-bridge anions migrate toward the anode compartment.

Q58A process with ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0 will be spontaneous

(A) at low temperatures only
(B) at high temperatures only
(C) at all temperatures
(D) at no temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔG = ΔH − TΔS; with both ΔH and ΔS negative, the unfavorable −TΔS term is small only at low T, so the process is spontaneous at low temperatures.

Q59If E°cell for a reaction is −0.25 V, which statement about the reaction under standard conditions must be true?

(A) ΔG° < 0
(B) K > 1
(C) The reaction is spontaneous as written
(D) K < 1 and the reaction is nonspontaneous as written
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A negative E° means ΔG° = −nFE° is positive, so the reaction is nonspontaneous as written and its equilibrium constant is less than 1.

Q60Using standard molar entropies (S° in J/mol·K: N2 = 191.5, H2 = 130.7, NH3 = 192.5), the ΔS° for N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) is

(A) +198.6 J/K
(B) −99.3 J/K
(C) −198.6 J/K
(D) +583.6 J/K
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔS° = 2(192.5) − [191.5 + 3(130.7)] = 385.0 − 583.6 = −198.6 J/K, consistent with a decrease from 4 mol of gas to 2 mol of gas.