AP Chemistry Practice Test 12
60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.
⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties
Q1What is the ground-state electron configuration of a chromium atom?
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Correct: (C)
Chromium is an exception to the expected filling order; the half-filled 3d subshell is especially stable, so Cr (24 electrons) is [Ar] 4s^1 3d^5.
Q2A photoelectron spectrum of an element shows four peaks corresponding to subshells containing 2, 2, 6, and 2 electrons, in order of decreasing binding energy. The element is
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Correct: (D)
The total number of electrons is 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 = 12, which is the atomic number of magnesium.
Q3Which of the following elements has the smallest first ionization energy?
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Correct: (A)
K is farthest down and to the left in the periodic table among these elements; its single 4s electron is well shielded, so it has the smallest first ionization energy (419 kJ/mol).
Q4Magnesium has three naturally occurring isotopes: ^24Mg (23.985 u, 78.99%), ^25Mg (24.986 u, 10.00%), and ^26Mg (25.983 u, 11.01%). The average atomic mass of magnesium is closest to
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Correct: (B)
(0.7899)(23.985) + (0.1000)(24.986) + (0.1101)(25.983) = 18.95 + 2.50 + 2.86 = 24.31 u, closest to 24.3 u.
Q5A mass spectrum of an element shows two isotopes: one with mass 35 u at 75% relative abundance and one with mass 37 u at 25% relative abundance, giving an average atomic mass of about 35.5 u. The element is most likely
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Correct: (D)
(0.75)(35) + (0.25)(37) = 35.5 u, which matches chlorine. (Bromine's isotopes are near 79 and 81 u, giving an average near 80 u.)
Q6The species F-, Ne, Na+, and Mg^2+ are all isoelectronic. Which has the smallest radius?
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Correct: (C)
All have 10 electrons. Mg^2+ has the most protons (12), which pull the electron cloud in most strongly, giving it the smallest radius.
Q7Atomic radius generally decreases from left to right across a period mainly because
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Correct: (B)
Across a period, electrons are added to the same shell while the nuclear charge increases, so the effective nuclear charge rises and the electron cloud is drawn inward.
🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure
Q8In the Lewis structure of NH3, the number of lone pairs on the nitrogen atom is
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Correct: (A)
Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons; three are used in N-H bonds, leaving one lone pair on nitrogen.
Q9Which of the following species is best represented by more than one resonance structure?
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Correct: (C)
The nitrate ion has a double bond that can be drawn to any of three equivalent oxygen atoms, giving three resonance structures. The others have only one valid Lewis structure.
Q10What is the molecular geometry of PCl5?
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Correct: (D)
PCl5 has five bonding pairs and no lone pairs on phosphorus (AX5), giving a trigonal bipyramidal geometry.
Q11What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in CO2?
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Correct: (B)
Carbon in CO2 has two electron domains (two double bonds) arranged linearly, which corresponds to sp hybridization.
Q12Which of the following compounds has the largest lattice energy?
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Correct: (C)
All four contain singly charged ions, so lattice energy is governed by ionic size. NaF has the smallest cation-anion pair, giving it the largest lattice energy.
Q13Which of the following bonds is the shortest?
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Correct: (A)
Bond length decreases as bond order increases because more shared electrons pull the nuclei closer together. A triple bond is shorter than a double bond, which is shorter than a single bond.
Q14What is the formal charge on the oxygen atom in the hydronium ion, H3O+?
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Correct: (D)
Oxygen in H3O+ has one lone pair (2 nonbonding electrons) and three bonds (6 bonding electrons): formal charge = 6 – 2 – 6/2 = +1.
💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties
Q15Which of the following hydrides has the highest boiling point?
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Correct: (B)
Based on molar mass alone H2O would have the lowest boiling point of the group, but hydrogen bonding between water molecules makes its boiling point by far the highest.
Q16Which of the following substances exhibits only London dispersion forces as its intermolecular force?
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Correct: (A)
F2 is a nonpolar molecule, so only London dispersion forces operate. HF and NH3 hydrogen bond, and CH3Cl is polar (dipole-dipole forces).
Q17How much heat is released when 18.0 g of water vapor condenses to liquid water at 100°C? (The molar enthalpy of vaporization of water is 40.7 kJ/mol.)
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Correct: (C)
18.0 g of H2O is 1.00 mol. Condensation is the reverse of vaporization, so heat released = (1.00 mol)(40.7 kJ/mol) = 40.7 kJ.
Q18Iodine, I2, is most soluble in which of the following solvents?
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Correct: (D)
I2 is nonpolar, so by the "like dissolves like" principle it dissolves best in the nonpolar solvent CCl4 rather than in polar or aqueous solvents.
Q19Solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) is best classified as which type of solid?
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Correct: (B)
Dry ice consists of discrete CO2 molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces, which defines a molecular solid.
Q20Ion-dipole forces are most important in which of the following systems?
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Correct: (A)
Ion-dipole forces are the attractions between an ion and the partial charges of a polar molecule, such as Na+ and the oxygen ends of surrounding water molecules.
⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions
Q21Aluminum reacts with chlorine gas according to the equation 2 Al + 3 Cl2 → 2 AlCl3. If 0.30 mol of Al and 0.30 mol of Cl2 are reacted, how many moles of AlCl3 are produced?
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Correct: (C)
Reacting 0.30 mol of Cl2 consumes only 0.20 mol of Al (ratio 3 Cl2 : 2 Al), so Cl2 is limiting and 0.20 mol of AlCl3 is produced.
Q22In a laboratory synthesis, the theoretical yield of a product is 36.0 g and the actual yield is 27.0 g. The percent yield is
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Correct: (D)
Percent yield = (27.0 g / 36.0 g) × 100% = 75.0%.
Q23Solutions of AgNO3 and NaCl are mixed, and a precipitate forms. The net ionic equation for the reaction is
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Correct: (B)
Ag+ and Cl- combine to form the insoluble solid AgCl. Na+ and NO3- remain in solution as spectator ions.
Q24What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4?
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Correct: (A)
With H at +1 and O at -2: 2(+1) + x + 4(-2) = 0, so x = +6.
Q25How many grams of CO2 are produced by the complete combustion of 44.0 g of propane, C3H8 (molar mass 44.0 g/mol), according to the equation C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O?
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Correct: (C)
44.0 g of C3H8 is 1.00 mol, which produces 3.00 mol of CO2. Mass = 3.00 mol × 44.0 g/mol = 132 g.
Q26A volume of 30.00 mL of 0.150 M NaOH is required to exactly neutralize 25.00 mL of an HCl solution. What is the molarity of the HCl solution?
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Correct: (D)
Moles of NaOH = (0.150 M)(0.03000 L) = 0.00450 mol, which equals the moles of HCl. Molarity = 0.00450 mol / 0.02500 L = 0.180 M.
Q27When the equation C2H5OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced with the smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of H2O is
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Correct: (B)
The balanced equation is C2H5OH + 3 O2 → 2 CO2 + 3 H2O, so the coefficient of H2O is 3.
⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics
Q28The initial-rate data below were collected for the reaction X + Y → products.
Experiment 1: [X] = 0.10 M, [Y] = 0.10 M, rate = 0.0050 M/s
Experiment 2: [X] = 0.20 M, [Y] = 0.10 M, rate = 0.0050 M/s
Experiment 3: [X] = 0.10 M, [Y] = 0.20 M, rate = 0.020 M/s
The rate law for the reaction is
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Correct: (A)
Doubling [X] leaves the rate unchanged (zero order in X), while doubling [Y] quadruples the rate (second order in Y), so Rate = k[Y]^2.
Q29A first-order reaction is allowed to proceed for exactly three half-lives. What percentage of the original reactant remains?
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Correct: (C)
Each half-life halves the amount: after three half-lives the fraction remaining is (1/2)^3 = 1/8 = 12.5%.
Q30A reaction proceeds by the mechanism:
Step 1: A2 + B → A2B (slow)
Step 2: A2B + B → 2 AB (fast)
The rate law predicted by this mechanism is
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Correct: (D)
The rate law comes from the slow, rate-determining step (Step 1): Rate = k[A2][B]. The intermediate A2B cannot appear in the final rate law.
Q31On a reaction energy diagram, the reactants are at 20 kJ/mol, the transition state is at 100 kJ/mol, and the products are at 50 kJ/mol. What is the activation energy of the reverse reaction?
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Correct: (B)
The reverse reaction goes from products (50 kJ/mol) to the transition state (100 kJ/mol), so its activation energy is 100 – 50 = 50 kJ/mol.
Q32For a first-order reaction, the units of the rate constant k are
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Correct: (A)
Rate (M/s) = k[A] (M), so k must have units of s^-1.
Q33When a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium, which of the following is true?
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Correct: (C)
A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions equally; it changes neither ΔH nor K, and equilibrium is simply reached faster.
Q34The concentration of a reactant decreases from 0.80 M to 0.20 M in 30.0 s. The average rate of disappearance of the reactant over this interval is
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Correct: (D)
Average rate = (0.80 – 0.20) M / 30.0 s = 0.60 M / 30.0 s = 0.020 M/s.
🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics
Q35How much heat is released when 200.0 g of water cools from 80.0°C to 60.0°C? (The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g·°C.)
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Correct: (A)
q = mcΔT = (200.0 g)(4.184 J/g·°C)(20.0°C) = 16,736 J ≈ 16.7 kJ released.
Q36Given the thermochemical equations:
N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g), ΔH = +180.5 kJ
N2(g) + 2 O2(g) → 2 NO2(g), ΔH = +66.4 kJ
What is ΔH for the reaction 2 NO(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO2(g)?
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Correct: (B)
By Hess's law, subtract the first equation from the second: ΔH = 66.4 – 180.5 = -114.1 kJ.
Q37Using the bond enthalpies N≡N = 941 kJ/mol, H-H = 436 kJ/mol, and N-H = 391 kJ/mol, the estimated ΔH for the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) is
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Correct: (D)
Bonds broken: 941 + 3(436) = 2249 kJ. Bonds formed: 6(391) = 2346 kJ. ΔH = 2249 – 2346 = -97 kJ.
Q38Which of the following reactions has a ΔH equal to the standard enthalpy of formation of H2O(l)?
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Correct: (C)
A formation reaction produces exactly one mole of the compound from its elements in their standard states, which is what this equation shows.
Q39Which of the following has the greatest standard molar entropy at 298 K?
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Correct: (A)
Entropy increases from solid to liquid to gas because particles have more freedom of motion and more accessible arrangements. A gas such as H2O(g) has the greatest molar entropy.
Q40Use the standard enthalpies of formation below to calculate ΔH for the reaction 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g).
ΔHf°: SO2(g) = -296.8 kJ/mol, SO3(g) = -395.7 kJ/mol
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Correct: (B)
ΔH = [2(-395.7)] – [2(-296.8) + 0] = -791.4 + 593.6 = -197.8 kJ.
Q41A 100.0 g sample of a metal at 100.0°C is placed in 100.0 g of water at 25.0°C. The final temperature of the mixture is 30.0°C. What is the specific heat of the metal? (The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g·°C.)
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Correct: (D)
Heat gained by water = (100.0)(4.184)(5.0) = 2092 J. Heat lost by metal = (100.0)(c)(70.0), so c = 2092 / 7000 = 0.30 J/g·°C.
⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium
Q42At equilibrium for the reaction PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the concentrations are [PCl5] = 0.20 M, [PCl3] = 0.40 M, and [Cl2] = 0.40 M. The value of Kc is
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Correct: (C)
Kc = [PCl3][Cl2] / [PCl5] = (0.40)(0.40) / 0.20 = 0.80.
Q43For the reaction N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), Kc = 0.36 at a certain temperature. A flask is filled with 0.50 M N2O4 and allowed to reach equilibrium. What is the equilibrium concentration of NO2?
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Correct: (A)
From an ICE table, (2x)^2/(0.50 – x) = 0.36, which gives 4x^2 + 0.36x – 0.18 = 0 and x = 0.17 M. Therefore [NO2] = 2x = 0.34 M.
Q44The reaction 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g) is exothermic. Which of the following changes will shift the equilibrium toward the products?
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Correct: (B)
For an exothermic reaction, decreasing the temperature favors the heat-producing (forward) direction, shifting equilibrium toward products. Increasing volume would shift toward the side with more gas moles (reactants).
Q45The Ksp of CaF2 is 3.9 × 10^-11. The molar solubility of CaF2 in pure water is
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Correct: (D)
For CaF2, Ksp = [Ca^2+][F-]^2 = (s)(2s)^2 = 4s^3. So s = (3.9 × 10^-11 / 4)^(1/3) = (9.75 × 10^-12)^(1/3) ≈ 2.1 × 10^-4 M.
Q46For a particular reaction at equilibrium, a mixture is prepared for which the reaction quotient Q is greater than the equilibrium constant K. The mixture will
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Correct: (C)
If Q > K, there is too much product relative to equilibrium, so the net reaction proceeds in the reverse direction (toward reactants) until Q = K.
Q47A saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 is in equilibrium with its solid. If some Na2CrO4 is added to the solution, what happens to the solubility of Ag2CrO4?
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Correct: (A)
Adding the common ion CrO4^2- shifts the dissolution equilibrium toward the solid, decreasing the solubility of Ag2CrO4. Ksp itself is unchanged at constant temperature.
Q48For the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), which statement about Kp and Kc is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn. Here Δn = 2 – 2 = 0, so (RT)^0 = 1 and Kp = Kc.
🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases
Q49What is the pH of a 0.050 M NaOH solution?
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Correct: (D)
NaOH is a strong base, so [OH-] = 0.050 M and pOH = -log(0.050) = 1.30. pH = 14.00 – 1.30 = 12.70.
Q50What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of NH3? (Kb of NH3 = 1.8 × 10^-5)
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Correct: (C)
[OH-] = sqrt(Kb × C) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.10) = 1.34 × 10^-3 M, so pOH = 2.87 and pH = 14.00 – 2.87 = 11.13.
Q51A buffer is prepared from 0.30 M NH3 and 0.20 M NH4Cl. The pKb of NH3 is 4.74. The pH of the buffer is
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Correct: (A)
pOH = pKb + log([acid]/[base]) = 4.74 + log(0.20/0.30) = 4.74 – 0.18 = 4.56, so pH = 14.00 – 4.56 = 9.44.
Q52The conjugate acid of CO3^2- is
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Correct: (B)
A conjugate acid is formed by adding one proton (H+): CO3^2- + H+ → HCO3-.
Q53A weak acid is titrated with a strong base. At the half-equivalence point of the titration, which of the following is true?
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Correct: (D)
At the half-equivalence point, [weak acid] = [conjugate base], so the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation gives pH = pKa + log(1) = pKa.
Q54Hydrogen sulfide, H2S, is a diprotic acid with Ka1 = 9 × 10^-8 and Ka2 = 1 × 10^-19. In a saturated aqueous solution of H2S, the concentration of S^2- is closest to
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Correct: (C)
For a diprotic acid with Ka1 much greater than Ka2, the second ionization is so limited that [S^2-] is approximately equal to Ka2, about 1 × 10^-19 M.
🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics
Q55A reaction has ΔH = +50 kJ/mol and ΔS = +200 J/mol·K. What is ΔG for the reaction at 298 K?
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Correct: (B)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = 50 kJ/mol – (298 K)(0.200 kJ/mol·K) = 50 – 59.6 = -9.6 kJ/mol, so the reaction is spontaneous at 298 K.
Q56What is the standard cell potential for the galvanic cell based on the reaction Ni(s) + 2 Ag+(aq) → Ni^2+(aq) + 2 Ag(s)? (E° for Ag+/Ag = +0.80 V; E° for Ni^2+/Ni = -0.25 V)
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Correct: (D)
E°cell = E°(cathode) – E°(anode) = 0.80 – (-0.25) = +1.05 V. (The coefficient of 2 does not multiply the potential, since E° is an intensive property.)
Q57A current of 1.50 A is passed through a CuSO4 solution for 2.00 hours. What mass of copper is deposited at the cathode? (Cu^2+ + 2 e- → Cu; molar mass of Cu = 63.55 g/mol; Faraday constant = 96,485 C/mol e-)
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Correct: (A)
Charge = (1.50 A)(7200 s) = 10,800 C. Moles of e- = 10,800/96,485 = 0.112 mol, so moles of Cu = 0.0560 mol and mass = 0.0560 × 63.55 = 3.56 g.
Q58What is the sign of ΔS for the reaction 2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l)?
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Correct: (C)
Three moles of gas are converted into a liquid, so the disorder of the system decreases greatly and ΔS is negative.
Q59Which of the following statements about a galvanic cell is correct?
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Correct: (D)
Oxidation always occurs at the anode. In a galvanic cell the anode is the negative electrode, and electrons flow from the anode to the cathode through the external circuit.
Q60A reaction has ΔH = +120 kJ/mol and ΔS = +400 J/mol·K. At which temperatures is the reaction spontaneous?
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Correct: (B)
The reaction becomes spontaneous when TΔS exceeds ΔH. The crossover temperature is ΔH/ΔS = 120,000 J/mol / 400 J/mol·K = 300 K, so the reaction is spontaneous above 300 K.
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