AP Chemistry Practice Test 11
60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering all nine units of the AP Chemistry course.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the AP Chemistry exam style — not reproduced College Board questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real AP Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers all 9 AP units: atomic structure, compound structure, intermolecular forces, reactions, kinetics, thermodynamics, equilibrium, acids & bases, and applications of thermodynamics.
⚛ Unit 1: Atomic Structure & Properties
Q1What is the ground-state electron configuration of an Fe^3+ ion?
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Correct: (B)
Iron is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. When Fe forms Fe^3+, the two 4s electrons are removed first, followed by one 3d electron, leaving [Ar] 3d^5.
Q2A photoelectron spectrum of an element shows five peaks. In order of decreasing binding energy, the peaks correspond to subshells containing 2, 2, 6, 2, and 4 electrons, respectively. The element is
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Correct: (A)
The total number of electrons is 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 + 4 = 16, which is the atomic number of sulfur.
Q3Which of the following elements has the largest first ionization energy?
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Correct: (D)
First ionization energy generally increases across a period because of increasing effective nuclear charge. Si (787 kJ/mol) is greater than Mg (738), Al (578), and Na (496).
Q4Boron has two naturally occurring isotopes: ^10B with a mass of 10.013 u and an abundance of 19.9%, and ^11B with a mass of 11.009 u and an abundance of 80.1%. The average atomic mass of boron is closest to
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Correct: (C)
(0.199)(10.013) + (0.801)(11.009) = 1.99 + 8.82 = 10.81 u, closest to 10.8 u.
Q5A mass spectrum of an element shows two isotopes with masses of approximately 63 u (69.2% abundance) and 65 u (30.8% abundance). The average atomic mass of this element is closest to
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Correct: (B)
(0.692)(62.93) + (0.308)(64.93) = 43.55 + 20.00 = 63.55 u, closest to 63.5 u (the element is copper).
Q6The ions S^2-, Cl-, Ar, K+, and Ca^2+ are isoelectronic. Which of these species has the largest radius?
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Correct: (D)
All species have 18 electrons. S^2- has the fewest protons (16), so its electron cloud is held least tightly and it has the largest radius.
Q7Which of the following is the correct ground-state electron configuration of a copper atom?
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Correct: (A)
Copper is an exception to the expected filling order; a half-filled or completely filled d subshell is especially stable, so Cu is [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10 (29 electrons).
🔗 Unit 2: Molecular & Ionic Compound Structure
Q8The carbonate ion, CO3^2-, is best described by how many equivalent resonance structures?
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Correct: (C)
The double bond can be placed between carbon and any one of the three equivalent oxygen atoms, giving three equivalent resonance structures.
Q9Which of the following molecules is nonpolar even though it contains polar bonds?
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Correct: (D)
CO2 is linear, so the two equal and opposite bond dipoles cancel, giving a nonpolar molecule. The others have asymmetric geometries with net dipoles.
Q10What is the molecular geometry of XeF4?
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Correct: (B)
XeF4 has four bonding pairs and two lone pairs on xenon (AX4E2), giving an octahedral electron geometry and a square planar molecular geometry.
Q11What is the hybridization of the nitrogen atom in NH3?
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Correct: (C)
Nitrogen in NH3 has three bonding pairs and one lone pair (four electron domains), which corresponds to sp3 hybridization.
Q12Which of the following ionic compounds has the greatest lattice energy (largest magnitude)?
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Correct: (A)
Lattice energy increases with greater ionic charges and smaller ionic radii. MgO has 2+ and 2- ions that are both relatively small, giving it by far the largest lattice energy.
Q13The bond order of the O2+ ion is
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Correct: (B)
O2 has a bond order of 2. Removing one electron to form O2+ removes an antibonding electron, increasing the bond order to 2.5.
Q14In the best Lewis structure of the sulfate ion, SO4^2- (the one that minimizes formal charges), the formal charge on sulfur is
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Correct: (B)
With two S=O double bonds and two S-O single bonds, sulfur has 12 bonding electrons and no lone pairs: formal charge = 6 – 0 – 12/2 = 0.
💧 Unit 3: Intermolecular Forces & Properties
Q15Which of the following substances has the highest boiling point?
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Correct: (A)
CH3OH can form hydrogen bonds, the strongest intermolecular force among these substances, giving it the highest boiling point.
Q16Which of the following substances is most soluble in water?
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Correct: (C)
Ethanol is polar and hydrogen bonds with water, making it fully miscible. The others are nonpolar hydrocarbons or nonpolar molecules that are nearly insoluble in water.
Q17How much heat is required to completely vaporize 36.0 g of water at 100°C? (The molar enthalpy of vaporization of water is 40.7 kJ/mol.)
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Correct: (D)
36.0 g of H2O is 2.00 mol. Heat required = (2.00 mol)(40.7 kJ/mol) = 81.4 kJ.
Q18The strongest intermolecular force present in liquid HCl is
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Correct: (B)
HCl is a polar molecule, so dipole-dipole forces operate. It does not exhibit significant hydrogen bonding, which requires H bonded to N, O, or F.
Q19Which of the following is a network covalent solid?
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Correct: (A)
SiO2 (quartz) consists of silicon and oxygen atoms joined by covalent bonds in a continuous three-dimensional network. NaCl is ionic, I2 is molecular, and Fe is metallic.
Q20At a given temperature, which of the following liquids has the highest vapor pressure?
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Correct: (C)
Diethyl ether has the weakest intermolecular forces of the four liquids (no hydrogen bonding between its molecules), so its molecules escape most easily and it has the highest vapor pressure.
⚖ Unit 4: Chemical Reactions
Q21A mixture contains 2.0 mol of N2 and 4.0 mol of H2, which react according to the equation N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g). Assuming the reaction goes to completion, how many moles of NH3 are produced?
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Correct: (D)
Producing NH3 from 2.0 mol N2 would require 6.0 mol H2, but only 4.0 mol is available, so H2 is limiting. NH3 formed = 4.0 mol H2 × (2 mol NH3 / 3 mol H2) = 2.67 mol.
Q22A reaction has a theoretical yield of 45.0 g of product. If 36.0 g of product is actually obtained, the percent yield is
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Correct: (B)
Percent yield = (36.0 g / 45.0 g) × 100% = 80.0%.
Q23Solutions of BaCl2 and Na2SO4 are mixed, and a precipitate of BaSO4 forms. The net ionic equation for the reaction is
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Correct: (A)
Ba^2+ and SO4^2- combine to form the insoluble solid BaSO4. Na+ and Cl- are spectator ions and do not appear in the net ionic equation.
Q24What is the oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7?
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Correct: (C)
With K at +1 and O at -2: 2(+1) + 2(x) + 7(-2) = 0, so 2x = +12 and x = +6.
Q25How many grams of O2 are required for the complete combustion of 16.0 g of CH4 according to the equation CH4 + 2 O2 → CO2 + 2 H2O?
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Correct: (D)
16.0 g of CH4 is 1.00 mol. It requires 2.00 mol of O2, and 2.00 mol × 32.0 g/mol = 64.0 g.
Q26A 25.00 mL sample of 0.100 M HCl is exactly neutralized by 20.00 mL of a NaOH solution. What is the molarity of the NaOH solution?
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Correct: (B)
Moles of HCl = (0.100 M)(0.02500 L) = 0.00250 mol, which equals the moles of NaOH. Molarity = 0.00250 mol / 0.02000 L = 0.125 M.
Q27When the equation C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced with the smallest whole-number coefficients, the coefficient of O2 is
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Correct: (A)
The balanced equation is C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O, so the coefficient of O2 is 5.
⏱ Unit 5: Kinetics
Q28The initial-rate data below were collected for the reaction A + B → products.
Experiment 1: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 0.020 M/s
Experiment 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 0.040 M/s
Experiment 3: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 0.080 M/s
The rate law for the reaction is
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Correct: (C)
Doubling [A] doubles the rate (first order in A), and doubling [B] quadruples the rate (second order in B), so Rate = k[A][B]^2.
Q29A first-order reaction has a half-life of 20.0 s. The rate constant, k, for the reaction is
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Correct: (D)
For a first-order reaction, k = 0.693 / t(1/2) = 0.693 / 20.0 s = 0.0347 s^-1.
Q30The decomposition of nitrogen dioxide in the presence of carbon monoxide proceeds by the mechanism:
Step 1: NO2 + NO2 → NO3 + NO (slow)
Step 2: NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2 (fast)
The rate law predicted by this mechanism is
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Correct: (A)
The rate law is determined by the slow, rate-determining step (Step 1), which involves two NO2 molecules: Rate = k[NO2]^2.
Q31Which of the following statements about a catalyst is correct?
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Correct: (B)
A catalyst speeds up a reaction by providing an alternative mechanism with a lower activation energy. It does not change ΔH or the equilibrium position.
Q32For a reaction that is second order overall, the units of the rate constant k are
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Correct: (C)
Rate (M/s) = k[A]^2 (M^2), so k must have units of M^-1 s^-1 for the units to balance.
Q33According to collision theory, raising the temperature of a reaction mixture increases the reaction rate mainly because
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Correct: (A)
At higher temperature, the average kinetic energy increases, so a much larger fraction of collisions possess at least the activation energy needed to react.
Q34A reaction has an activation energy of 50 kJ/mol. If the rate constant at 300 K is 1.0 × 10^-3 s^-1, approximately what is the rate constant at 310 K? (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
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Correct: (D)
Using the Arrhenius equation, ln(k2/k1) = (50000/8.314)(1/300 – 1/310) = 0.647, so k2/k1 = e^0.647 ≈ 1.91 and k2 ≈ 1.9 × 10^-3 s^-1.
🔥 Unit 6: Thermodynamics
Q35How much heat is absorbed when 50.0 g of water is heated from 25.0°C to 45.0°C? (The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g·°C.)
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Correct: (B)
q = mcΔT = (50.0 g)(4.184 J/g·°C)(20.0°C) = 4184 J = 4.18 kJ.
Q36Given the thermochemical equations:
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -393.5 kJ
CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283.0 kJ
What is ΔH for the reaction C(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO(g)?
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Correct: (C)
By Hess's law, subtract the second equation from the first: ΔH = -393.5 – (-283.0) = -110.5 kJ.
Q37Using the bond enthalpies H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, and H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol, the estimated ΔH for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) is
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Correct: (A)
ΔH = (bonds broken) – (bonds formed) = (436 + 242) – 2(431) = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ.
Q38Which of the following equations represents the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH(l)?
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Correct: (D)
A formation reaction produces one mole of the compound from its elements in their standard states. Carbon's standard state is graphite, not diamond.
Q39For which of the following processes is ΔS positive?
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Correct: (B)
Sublimation converts an ordered solid into a gas, greatly increasing the disorder (entropy) of the system. The other processes all decrease entropy.
Q40Use the standard enthalpies of formation below to calculate ΔH for the reaction CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l).
ΔHf°: CH4(g) = -74.8 kJ/mol, CO2(g) = -393.5 kJ/mol, H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol
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Correct: (C)
ΔH = [(-393.5) + 2(-285.8)] – [(-74.8) + 0] = -965.1 + 74.8 = -890.3 kJ, approximately -890 kJ.
Q41How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of 200.0 g of water by 10.0°C? (The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g·°C.)
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Correct: (A)
q = mcΔT = (200.0 g)(4.18 J/g·°C)(10.0°C) = 8360 J = 8.36 kJ.
⇆ Unit 7: Equilibrium
Q42For the equilibrium N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), the equilibrium constant expression Kc is
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Correct: (D)
Kc equals the product concentrations raised to their coefficients divided by the reactant concentrations raised to their coefficients: [NH3]^2 / ([N2][H2]^3).
Q43For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2 HI(g), Kc = 49 at a certain temperature. A flask initially contains 0.10 M H2 and 0.10 M I2 and no HI. What is the equilibrium concentration of HI?
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Correct: (B)
Setting up an ICE table: (2x)^2/(0.10 – x)^2 = 49. Taking the square root gives 2x/(0.10 – x) = 7, so x = 0.078 M and [HI] = 2x = 0.16 M.
Q44For the endothermic reaction N2O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g), ΔH° = +57 kJ/mol, which change will increase the amount of NO2 at equilibrium?
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Correct: (C)
Because the forward reaction is endothermic, increasing the temperature shifts the equilibrium to the right, producing more NO2. Decreasing volume shifts toward the side with fewer gas moles (left).
Q45The Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 × 10^-10. The molar solubility of AgCl in pure water is
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Correct: (A)
For AgCl, Ksp = s^2, so s = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-10) = 1.3 × 10^-5 M.
Q46A reaction mixture has a reaction quotient Q that is less than the equilibrium constant K. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (D)
If Q < K, the mixture has too little product relative to equilibrium, so the net reaction proceeds forward until Q = K.
Q47What is the molar solubility of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10^-10) in 0.10 M NaCl solution?
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Correct: (B)
The common ion Cl- suppresses the solubility. Ksp = s(0.10 + s) ≈ 0.10s, so s = 1.8 × 10^-10 / 0.10 = 1.8 × 10^-9 M.
Q48For the reaction 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g) at 298 K, how do Kp and Kc compare?
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Correct: (C)
Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn, where Δn = 2 – 3 = -1. Since RT (about 24.5) is greater than 1 and Δn is negative, Kp = Kc/24.5, which is less than Kc.
🧫 Unit 8: Acids & Bases
Q49What is the pH of a 0.010 M HCl solution?
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Correct: (A)
HCl is a strong acid that dissociates completely, so [H+] = 0.010 M and pH = -log(0.010) = 2.00.
Q50What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of HF? (Ka of HF = 6.8 × 10^-4)
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Correct: (D)
[H+] = sqrt(Ka × C) = sqrt(6.8 × 10^-4 × 0.10) = sqrt(6.8 × 10^-5) = 8.2 × 10^-3 M, so pH = 2.08.
Q51Which of the following mixtures acts as a buffer solution?
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Correct: (B)
A buffer requires a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a weak base and its conjugate acid) in comparable amounts. CH3COOH/CH3COO- is such a pair.
Q52The conjugate base of H2PO4- is
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Correct: (C)
A conjugate base is formed by removing one proton (H+) from the acid: H2PO4- – H+ → HPO4^2-.
Q53For which of the following titrations will the pH at the equivalence point be less than 7?
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Correct: (A)
At the equivalence point, the solution contains NH4+, the conjugate acid of the weak base NH3, which hydrolyzes to give an acidic solution (pH < 7).
Q54A buffer is made from 0.20 M CH3COOH and 0.10 M CH3COONa. The pKa of CH3COOH is 4.74. The pH of the buffer is
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Correct: (D)
pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(0.10/0.20) = 4.74 – 0.30 = 4.44.
🔋 Unit 9: Applications of Thermodynamics
Q55A reaction has ΔH = -100 kJ/mol and ΔS = -200 J/mol·K. What is ΔG for the reaction at 298 K?
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Correct: (C)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = -100 kJ/mol – (298 K)(-0.200 kJ/mol·K) = -100 + 59.6 = -40.4 kJ/mol, so the reaction is spontaneous.
Q56What is the standard cell potential for the galvanic cell based on the reaction Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s)? (E° for Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V; E° for Zn^2+/Zn = -0.76 V)
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Correct: (A)
E°cell = E°(cathode) – E°(anode) = 0.34 – (-0.76) = +1.10 V. The positive value confirms the reaction is spontaneous as written.
Q57A current of 0.50 A is passed through a solution of AgNO3 for 30.0 minutes. What mass of silver is deposited at the cathode? (Ag+ + e- → Ag; molar mass of Ag = 107.9 g/mol; Faraday constant = 96,485 C/mol e-)
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Correct: (B)
Charge = (0.50 A)(1800 s) = 900 C. Moles of electrons = 900/96,485 = 0.00933 mol, giving 0.00933 mol Ag × 107.9 g/mol = 1.0 g.
Q58A reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures when
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Correct: (B)
With ΔH negative and ΔS positive, ΔG = ΔH – TΔS is negative at every temperature, so the reaction is always spontaneous.
Q59What is the sign of ΔS for the reaction CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)?
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Correct: (C)
A gas is produced from a solid, so the disorder of the system increases and ΔS is positive.
Q60Which of the following statements about electrochemical cells is correct?
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Correct: (A)
Reduction always occurs at the cathode and oxidation always occurs at the anode, regardless of the type of cell. (In a galvanic cell the anode is negative, and E°cell is positive.)
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