ACS General Chemistry Practice Test 5

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering every major topic tested on the ACS General Chemistry exam.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the ACS exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real ACS General Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers: atomic structure, bonding, stoichiometry, gases, thermochemistry, kinetics, equilibrium, acids & bases, electrochemistry and more.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodic Trends

Q1Naturally occurring silver consists of two isotopes: Ag-107 with a mass of 106.90509 amu and an abundance of 51.839%, and Ag-109 with a mass of 108.90476 amu and an abundance of 48.161%. What is the average atomic mass of silver?

(A) 107.87 amu
(B) 106.91 amu
(C) 108.90 amu
(D) 107.00 amu
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The weighted average is (106.90509)(0.51839) + (108.90476)(0.48161) = 55.42 + 52.45 = 107.87 amu.

Q2How many unpaired electrons are present in a ground-state Fe2+ ion?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Fe is [Ar] 4s2 3d6; Fe2+ loses the 4s electrons first, giving [Ar] 3d6, which has 4 unpaired electrons.

Q3Which of the following elements has the highest first ionization energy?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) N
(D) O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ionization energy generally increases across a period, and nitrogen's half-filled 2p subshell makes it harder to remove an electron than oxygen.

Q4Which of the following correctly lists the species in order of increasing radius?

(A) Mg2+ < F- < Na+ < Ne
(B) F- < Ne < Na+ < Mg2+
(C) Ne < Na+ < F- < Mg2+
(D) Mg2+ < Na+ < Ne < F-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

All four are isoelectronic (10 electrons); radius decreases as nuclear charge increases, so Mg2+ (12 protons) is smallest and F- (9 protons) is largest.

Q5In a sodium atom, which electron experiences the greatest effective nuclear charge?

(A) A 1s electron
(B) A 2s electron
(C) A 2p electron
(D) The 3s electron
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The 1s electrons are closest to the nucleus and experience the least shielding, so they feel nearly the full nuclear charge.

Q6An electron in a hydrogen atom falls from the n = 4 level to the n = 2 level. What is the energy of the emitted photon?

(A) 1.89 eV
(B) 2.55 eV
(C) 3.40 eV
(D) 10.2 eV
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

E = 13.6 eV(1/2^2 – 1/4^2) = 13.6(0.1875) = 2.55 eV.

🔬 Chemical Bonding & Molecular Geometry

Q7What is the total number of valence electrons in the Lewis structure of the nitrate ion, NO3-?

(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 26
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

5 (N) + 3(6) (O) + 1 (negative charge) = 24 valence electrons.

Q8What is the molecular geometry of XeF4?

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Trigonal bipyramidal
(C) Octahedral
(D) Square planar
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

XeF4 has 6 electron domains (4 bonding, 2 lone pairs); the lone pairs occupy opposite positions, giving square planar molecular geometry.

Q9Which of the following bonds is the most polar?

(A) C-H
(B) H-F
(C) C-O
(D) N-H
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

H-F has the largest electronegativity difference (about 1.9), making it the most polar bond listed.

Q10What is the hybridization of the central atom in SF4?

(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C) sp3d
(D) sp3d2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

SF4 has 5 electron domains (4 bonding, 1 lone pair), requiring 5 hybrid orbitals: sp3d.

Q11What is the bond order of the superoxide ion, O2-?

(A) 2.0
(B) 1.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 1.5
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bond order = (bonding electrons – antibonding electrons)/2 = (8 – 5)/2 = 1.5.

Q12Which of the following ionic compounds has the largest lattice energy?

(A) MgO
(B) NaF
(C) CaS
(D) KCl
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

MgO contains the most highly charged ions (2+ and 2-) with small ionic radii, and lattice energy increases with charge and decreases with ion size.

Q13Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?

(A) H2O
(B) BF3
(C) NH3
(D) SO2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

BF3 is trigonal planar with symmetric bond dipoles that cancel, giving a zero net dipole moment.

🧪 Stoichiometry & Aqueous Reactions

Q1410.0 g of aluminum reacts with 25.0 g of oxygen gas according to 4 Al + 3 O2 → 2 Al2O3. What is the limiting reactant and the theoretical yield of Al2O3?

(A) O2 is limiting; 22.4 g Al2O3
(B) Al is limiting; 37.8 g Al2O3
(C) O2 is limiting; 41.6 g Al2O3
(D) Al is limiting; 18.9 g Al2O3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

10.0 g Al = 0.371 mol needs 0.278 mol O2, but 25.0 g O2 = 0.781 mol is present in excess; 0.371 mol Al produces 0.185 mol Al2O3 = 18.9 g.

Q15When aqueous solutions of Pb(NO3)2 and KI are mixed, what is observed?

(A) A yellow precipitate of PbI2 forms
(B) A white precipitate of KNO3 forms
(C) A colorless solution of Pb(NO3)2 remains with no reaction
(D) A brown gas is evolved
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The double-displacement reaction produces PbI2, which is insoluble and forms a characteristic yellow precipitate.

Q16A laboratory technician dissolves 8.00 g of potassium permanganate (KMnO4, molar mass 158.03 g/mol) in water to prepare 250. mL of solution. What is the concentration of K+ ions in the resulting solution?

(A) 0.0506 M
(B) 0.101 M
(C) 0.203 M
(D) 0.406 M
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

8.00 g / 158.03 g/mol = 0.0506 mol KMnO4; 0.0506 mol / 0.250 L = 0.203 M, and each KMnO4 formula unit furnishes exactly one K+ ion.

Q17When the following redox reaction is balanced in acidic solution with the smallest whole-number coefficients, what is the coefficient of H+?
Cr2O7^2- + Fe^2+ → Cr^3+ + Fe^3+

(A) 7
(B) 14
(C) 2
(D) 6
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The balanced equation is Cr2O7^2- + 6 Fe^2+ + 14 H+ → 2 Cr^3+ + 6 Fe^3+ + 7 H2O; balancing O and H requires 14 H+.

Q18Ammonia is produced by the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) → 2 NH3(g). If 14.0 g of N2 reacts with excess H2 and 12.5 g of NH3 is collected, what is the percent yield of NH3?

(A) 44.6%
(B) 52.3%
(C) 89.3%
(D) 73.5%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

14.0 g N2 = 0.500 mol, giving 1.00 mol NH3 theoretically = 17.0 g; (12.5 g / 17.0 g) x 100 = 73.5%.

Q19Aqueous lead(II) nitrate is mixed with aqueous potassium chromate, forming a yellow precipitate. What is the net ionic equation for this reaction?

(A) Pb^2+(aq) + CrO4^2-(aq) → PbCrO4(s)
(B) K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → KNO3(aq)
(C) Pb^2+(aq) + 2 NO3-(aq) → Pb(NO3)2(aq)
(D) No precipitate forms; no reaction occurs.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

PbCrO4 is the insoluble precipitate; K+ and NO3- are spectator ions that cancel out.

Q20A 0.500 g sample of an unknown diprotic acid (H2A) requires 32.8 mL of 0.200 M NaOH for complete neutralization. What is the molar mass of the acid?

(A) 76.2 g/mol
(B) 305 g/mol
(C) 38.1 g/mol
(D) 152 g/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

0.0328 L x 0.200 mol/L = 0.00656 mol NaOH, which neutralizes 0.00328 mol of the diprotic acid; 0.500 g / 0.00328 mol = 152 g/mol.

🌀 Gases & Intermolecular Forces

Q21A 2.50 L flask contains nitrogen gas at 1.15 atm and 27°C. How many moles of N2 are present?

(A) 0.117 mol
(B) 0.0351 mol
(C) 0.234 mol
(D) 0.0930 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

n = PV/RT = (1.15 atm)(2.50 L) / (0.08206 L·atm/mol·K)(300 K) = 0.117 mol.

Q22A 5.00 L container at 25°C holds a mixture of He and O2 exerting a total pressure of 760. torr. If the partial pressure of He is 228 torr, what mass of O2 is present?

(A) 2.87 g
(B) 9.16 g
(C) 4.58 g
(D) 6.53 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

P(O2) = 760 – 228 = 532 torr = 0.700 atm; n = (0.700)(5.00)/(0.08206)(298) = 0.143 mol; 0.143 mol x 32.00 g/mol = 4.58 g.

Q23According to kinetic molecular theory, which of the following statements is true?

(A) Gas particles experience strong attractive and repulsive forces during collisions.
(B) The volume of individual gas particles accounts for most of the container's volume.
(C) Collisions between gas particles gradually reduce their total kinetic energy.
(D) The average kinetic energy of gas particles is proportional to the absolute temperature.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

KMT postulates perfectly elastic collisions, negligible particle volume and no intermolecular forces; average kinetic energy depends only on absolute temperature.

Q24Gas X effuses 1.41 times faster than oxygen gas (O2) at the same temperature. What is the molar mass of gas X?

(A) 45.3 g/mol
(B) 16.1 g/mol
(C) 8.03 g/mol
(D) 64.0 g/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

By Graham's law, 1.41 = sqrt(32.00 / M); squaring gives M = 32.00 / 1.99 = 16.1 g/mol.

Q25Which pair of substances exhibits the strongest intermolecular attractions between its particles?

(A) Sodium chloride and water
(B) Methane and methane
(C) Ammonia and ammonia
(D) Carbon dioxide and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ion-dipole forces between NaCl and water are stronger than the hydrogen bonding in ammonia or the London dispersion forces in methane and carbon dioxide.

🔥 Thermochemistry

Q26For the reaction 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g), ΔH° = -198 kJ. How much heat is released when 32.0 g of O2 reacts with excess SO2?

(A) 99.0 kJ
(B) 396 kJ
(C) 198 kJ
(D) 49.5 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

32.0 g O2 = 1.00 mol O2, and the given ΔH corresponds to exactly 1 mol of O2 reacting, so 198 kJ is released.

Q27Use Hess's law to calculate ΔH for C(s) + 2 H2(g) → CH4(g), given:
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ΔH = -394 kJ
H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(l) ΔH = -286 kJ
CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l) ΔH = -890 kJ

(A) -1570 kJ
(B) -76 kJ
(C) +76 kJ
(D) -210 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Add the first two equations (doubling the second) and reverse the third: -394 + 2(-286) – (-890) = -76 kJ.

Q28A 25.0 g sample of an unknown metal at 95.0°C is placed in 75.0 g of water at 20.0°C in a calorimeter. The final equilibrium temperature is 24.6°C. What is the specific heat of the metal? (specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g·°C)

(A) 0.410 J/g·°C
(B) 1.64 J/g·°C
(C) 0.205 J/g·°C
(D) 0.820 J/g·°C
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Heat gained by water = (75.0)(4.184)(4.6) = 1443 J = heat lost by metal; c = 1443 J / (25.0 g x 70.4°C) = 0.820 J/g·°C.

Q29Calculate ΔH°rxn for 4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) → 4 NO(g) + 6 H2O(g), given ΔHf° values (kJ/mol): NH3(g) = -46, NO(g) = +90, H2O(g) = -242.

(A) -908 kJ
(B) +908 kJ
(C) -454 kJ
(D) -1276 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔH = [4(90) + 6(-242)] – [4(-46)] = (360 – 1452) + 184 = -908 kJ.

Q30How much heat is required to convert 50.0 g of ice at -10.0°C to liquid water at 40.0°C? (specific heats: ice = 2.09 J/g·°C, water = 4.184 J/g·°C; ΔHfus = 6.01 kJ/mol)

(A) 16.7 kJ
(B) 26.1 kJ
(C) 34.5 kJ
(D) 8.37 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Warming ice: 1.05 kJ; melting: (50.0/18.02 mol)(6.01 kJ/mol) = 16.7 kJ; warming water: 8.37 kJ; total = 26.1 kJ.

Q31Consider the combustion of hydrogen gas:
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
Given the bond energies: H–H = 436 kJ/mol, O=O = 498 kJ/mol, and O–H = 463 kJ/mol, what is the estimated enthalpy change (ΔH) for this reaction?

(A) −482 kJ
(B) −286 kJ
(C) +482 kJ
(D) −1370 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken: 2(436) + 498 = 1370 kJ; bonds formed: 4(463) = 1852 kJ; ΔH = 1370 − 1852 = −482 kJ.

⚡ Quantum Theory & Electronic Structure

Q32A metal surface has a work function of 2.3 eV. Light of wavelength 400 nm strikes the surface. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons? (hc = 1240 eV·nm)

(A) 5.40 eV
(B) 2.30 eV
(C) 3.10 eV
(D) 0.80 eV
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Photon energy = 1240/400 = 3.10 eV; KE_max = 3.10 − 2.3 = 0.80 eV.

Q33An electron travels at 2.2 × 10^6 m/s. What is its de Broglie wavelength? (h = 6.626 × 10^−34 J·s; m_e = 9.11 × 10^−31 kg)

(A) 1.66 × 10^−10 m
(B) 3.31 × 10^−10 m
(C) 6.62 × 10^−10 m
(D) 2.99 × 10^−19 m
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

λ = h/mv = 6.626 × 10^−34/(9.11 × 10^−31 × 2.2 × 10^6) = 3.31 × 10^−10 m.

Q34Which of the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, m_l) describes an allowed orbital?

(A) 3, 3, 0
(B) 4, 2, −3
(C) 2, 1, −1
(D) 1, 1, 0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Valid since l = 1 < n = 2 and |m_l| = 1 ≤ l; all other sets violate l < n or |m_l| ≤ l.

Q35A hydrogen atom electron transitions from n = 4 to n = 2. What is the wavelength of the emitted photon? (E_photon = 13.6(1/2^2 − 1/4^2) eV; hc = 1240 eV·nm)

(A) 486 nm
(B) 656 nm
(C) 434 nm
(D) 410 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

E = 13.6(0.1875) = 2.55 eV; λ = 1240/2.55 ≈ 486 nm.




⏱ Chemical Kinetics

Q36The following initial-rate data were collected for the reaction A + B → products:
Expt 1: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 2.0 × 10^−3 M/s
Expt 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 8.0 × 10^−3 M/s
Expt 3: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 8.0 × 10^−3 M/s
What is the rate law?

(A) rate = k[A][B]
(B) rate = k[A]^2[B]
(C) rate = k[A]^2[B]^2
(D) rate = k[A][B]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Doubling [A] quadruples the rate (second order in A); doubling [B] quadruples the rate (second order in B).

Q37For a second-order reaction, k = 0.040 M^−1s^−1. If the initial concentration of reactant is 0.50 M, what is the half-life?

(A) 25 s
(B) 50 s
(C) 12 s
(D) 100 s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

t_1/2 = 1/(k[A]_0) = 1/(0.040 × 0.50) = 50 s.

Q38The rate constant of a reaction doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. What is the approximate activation energy? (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

(A) 26 kJ/mol
(B) 107 kJ/mol
(C) 5.4 kJ/mol
(D) 54 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ln 2 = (E_a/R)(1/300 − 1/310); E_a = 0.693 × 8.314/(1.075 × 10^−4) ≈ 5.4 × 10^4 J/mol.

Q39A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction primarily by

(A) raising the temperature of the reaction mixture
(B) providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
(C) shifting the equilibrium position toward the products
(D) increasing the enthalpy change of the reaction
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst lowers E_a by offering a different mechanism; it does not change ΔH or the equilibrium constant.

Q40A proposed mechanism for a reaction is:
Step 1 (slow): NO2 + NO2 → NO3 + NO
Step 2 (fast): NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2
What is the rate law predicted by this mechanism?

(A) rate = k[NO2][CO]
(B) rate = k[NO2]^2[CO]
(C) rate = k[NO2]^2
(D) rate = k[NO3][CO]
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The slow (rate-determining) step involves two NO2 molecules, so rate = k[NO2]^2.

Q41The rate constant for a reaction is reported as 3.2 × 10^−3 M^−2s^−1. What is the overall order of the reaction?

(A) first
(B) second
(C) fourth
(D) third
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Units of k are M^(1−n)s^−1; M^−2 implies 1 − n = −2, so n = 3.

⇆ Chemical Equilibrium

Q42For the equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), which is the correct expression for Kp?

(A) P_SO3/(P_SO2 × P_O2)
(B) (P_SO3)^2/((P_SO2)^2 × P_O2)
(C) ((P_SO2)^2 × P_O2)/(P_SO3)^2
(D) (P_SO2)^2/(P_SO3 × P_O2)
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Kp = (partial pressures of products)^coeff/(partial pressures of reactants)^coeff = P_SO3^2/(P_SO2^2 · P_O2).

Q43For the Haber process, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), ΔH° = −92 kJ/mol. Which change will increase the equilibrium yield of NH3?

(A) Increasing the total pressure at constant temperature
(B) Increasing the temperature at constant pressure
(C) Adding a catalyst at constant temperature and pressure
(D) Removing some N2 at constant temperature and pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Higher pressure favors the side with fewer moles of gas (2 vs 4), shifting the equilibrium right toward NH3.

Q44For 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), Kc = 4.5 × 10^13 at 298 K. What is Kp at this temperature? (R = 0.08206 L·atm/mol·K)

(A) 1.8 × 10^12
(B) 1.8 × 10^15
(C) 1.1 × 10^15
(D) 4.5 × 10^13
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Δn = 2 − 3 = −1; Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn = 4.5 × 10^13/(0.08206 × 298) ≈ 1.8 × 10^12.

Q45For CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g), Kc = 1.5. At a particular moment, [CO] = 0.20 M, [H2O] = 0.30 M, [CO2] = 0.60 M, and [H2] = 0.30 M. Which statement is correct?

(A) Q = 0.33; the reaction proceeds toward products
(B) Q = 1.5; the system is at equilibrium
(C) Q = 3.0; the reaction proceeds toward reactants
(D) Q = 3.0; the reaction proceeds toward products
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Q = (0.60 × 0.30)/(0.20 × 0.30) = 3.0 > Kc = 1.5, so the reverse reaction is favored to reach equilibrium.

Q46For the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇆ 2 NH3(g), Kc = 0.45 at 500°C. A 10.0 L flask contains 0.500 mol N2, 1.50 mol H2, and 0.200 mol NH3. What happens when the system is allowed to reach equilibrium?

(A) The reaction shifts toward products, and [NH3] increases.
(B) The system is already at equilibrium, so no net change occurs.
(C) The reaction shifts toward reactants, and [NH3] decreases.
(D) The reaction shifts toward reactants, and [H2] decreases.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Q = [NH3]^2/([N2][H2]^3) = (0.0200)^2/((0.0500)(0.150)^3) = 2.37, which is greater than Kc = 0.45, so the reaction shifts left toward reactants and [NH3] decreases.

Q47The Ksp of AgCl is 1.8 × 10^-10. What is the molar solubility of AgCl in 0.10 M NaCl(aq)?

(A) 1.8 × 10^-10 M
(B) 1.3 × 10^-5 M
(C) 1.8 × 10^-8 M
(D) 1.8 × 10^-9 M
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

With [Cl-] ≈ 0.10 M from NaCl, s = Ksp/[Cl-] = (1.8 × 10^-10)/0.10 = 1.8 × 10^-9 M.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q48Calculate the pH of a 0.25 M solution of hypochlorous acid, HOCl (Ka = 3.5 × 10^-8).

(A) 3.73
(B) 4.03
(C) 7.46
(D) 10.27
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

[H+] = √(Ka × C) = √(3.5 × 10^-8 × 0.25) = 9.4 × 10^-5 M, so pH = 4.03.

Q49Which of the following is a conjugate acid-base pair?

(A) H2SO4 / SO4^2-
(B) H2CO3 / CO3^2-
(C) HNO3 / Cl-
(D) H2PO4- / HPO4^2-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

H2PO4- and HPO4^2- differ by exactly one proton; the others differ by two protons or are unrelated species.

Q50A 0.15 M solution of a weak base B has a pH of 10.42. What is the Kb of the base?

(A) 4.6 × 10^-7
(B) 2.6 × 10^-4
(C) 3.8 × 10^-4
(D) 6.9 × 10^-8
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

pOH = 3.58, so [OH-] = 2.6 × 10^-4 M; Kb = [OH-]^2/C = (2.6 × 10^-4)^2/0.15 = 4.6 × 10^-7.

Q51A 0.10 M solution of formic acid, HCOOH (Ka = 1.8 × 10^-4), is titrated with 0.10 M NaOH. Which statement is correct?

(A) The pH at the equivalence point is 7.00.
(B) The initial pH of the acid solution is 1.00.
(C) The pH at the half-equivalence point equals the pKa of formic acid.
(D) The pH at the equivalence point is less than 7.00.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the half-equivalence point, [HA] = [A-], so pH = pKa by the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

Q52Which 0.10 M aqueous salt solution has the highest pH?

(A) Na2CO3
(B) NH4Cl
(C) NaCl
(D) KNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

CO3^2- hydrolyzes to produce OH-, making the solution basic; NH4Cl is acidic, while NaCl and KNO3 are neutral.

Q53What is the pH of a buffer containing 0.40 M NH3 and 0.20 M NH4Cl? (Kb for NH3 = 1.8 × 10^-5)

(A) 4.74
(B) 8.96
(C) 9.26
(D) 9.56
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

pKa(NH4+) = 14 – 4.74 = 9.26; pH = 9.26 + log(0.40/0.20) = 9.56.

🔋 Thermodynamics & Electrochemistry

Q54For which process is ΔS negative?

(A) Sublimation of dry ice, CO2(s) → CO2(g)
(B) Dissolving NaCl(s) in water
(C) Condensation of water vapor, H2O(g) → H2O(l)
(D) Thermal decomposition of CaCO3(s) into CaO(s) and CO2(g)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Condensation converts a gas to a liquid, decreasing disorder, so ΔS < 0.

Q55For a reaction with ΔH° = -92.0 kJ and ΔS° = -199 J/K, at what temperature does ΔG° equal zero?

(A) 462 K
(B) 199 K
(C) 92 K
(D) 291 K
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Setting ΔG° = ΔH° – TΔS° = 0 gives T = ΔH°/ΔS° = (-92,000 J)/(-199 J/K) = 462 K.

Q56Which statement correctly distinguishes a galvanic cell from an electrolytic cell?

(A) In a galvanic cell the anode is positive, while in an electrolytic cell the anode is negative.
(B) A galvanic cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy, while an electrolytic cell uses electrical energy to drive a nonspontaneous reaction.
(C) Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode in both types of cells.
(D) E°cell is negative for a galvanic cell and positive for an electrolytic cell.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

This is the defining energy-conversion difference; note the anode is negative in a galvanic cell and positive in an electrolytic cell.

Q57Given: Cu^2+ + 2e- → Cu, E° = +0.34 V; Zn^2+ + 2e- → Zn, E° = -0.76 V. What is E°cell for Zn(s) + Cu^2+(aq) → Zn^2+(aq) + Cu(s)?

(A) -1.10 V
(B) -0.42 V
(C) +0.42 V
(D) +1.10 V
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

E°cell = E°cathode – E°anode = (+0.34 V) – (-0.76 V) = +1.10 V.

Q58How many grams of silver (molar mass 107.9 g/mol) are deposited when a current of 2.50 A flows for 1.00 hour through AgNO3(aq)?

(A) 10.1 g
(B) 3.35 g
(C) 20.2 g
(D) 5.03 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Charge = 2.50 A × 3600 s = 9000 C; moles e- = 9000/96485 = 0.0933; mass Ag = 0.0933 × 107.9 = 10.1 g.

☢ Nuclear & Descriptive Chemistry

Q59A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 12.0 days. What fraction of the original sample remains after 48.0 days?

(A) 1/4
(B) 1/16
(C) 1/8
(D) 1/32
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Correct: (B)

48.0 days is 4 half-lives, so the remaining fraction is (1/2)^4 = 1/16.

Q60Which compound is correctly matched with its observed color?

(A) Anhydrous CuSO4 — blue
(B) Solid NaCl — yellow
(C) Aqueous Fe^2+ solution — orange
(D) Aqueous KMnO4 — deep purple
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

KMnO4 solutions are deep purple; anhydrous CuSO4 is white, NaCl is white, and Fe^2+ solutions are pale green.