ACS General Chemistry Practice Test 20

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering every major topic tested on the ACS General Chemistry exam.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the ACS exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real ACS General Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers: atomic structure, bonding, stoichiometry, gases, thermochemistry, kinetics, equilibrium, acids & bases, electrochemistry and more.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodic Trends

Q1Which element has the smallest atomic radius?

(A) K
(B) Ca
(C) Ga
(D) Br
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group; Br (period 4, group 17) is the smallest of these due to high effective nuclear charge.

Q2Arrange the following ions in order of increasing radius: S2-, Cl-, K+, Ca2+.

(A) Cl- < S2- < Ca2+ < K+
(B) S2- < Cl- < K+ < Ca2+
(C) K+ < Ca2+ < S2- < Cl-
(D) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl- < S2-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

These are isoelectronic (18 electrons each); radius decreases as nuclear charge increases: Ca2+ (Z=20) < K+ (Z=19) < Cl- (Z=17) < S2- (Z=16).

Q3Which has the lowest second ionization energy?

(A) Na
(B) Mg
(C) Al
(D) Si
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Removing a second electron from Mg+ gives the stable noble gas configuration [Ne]; Na+ already has noble gas configuration so its second IE is very high.

Q4Which element has the most exothermic electron affinity?

(A) O
(B) Te
(C) Se
(D) S
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Among chalcogens, S has the highest electron affinity; O is smaller with greater electron repulsion, and EA decreases down the group after S.

Q5The electron configuration [Ar] 4s1 3d5 corresponds to:

(A) Cr in ground state
(B) Mn in ground state
(C) Cr in excited state
(D) Fe in ground state
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chromium's ground state is the exceptional [Ar] 4s1 3d5 (half-filled d subshell is more stable than 4s2 3d4).

Q6Which of the following is NOT a periodic trend?

(A) Atomic radius increases down a group
(B) Ionization energy decreases down a group
(C) Electronegativity increases across a period
(D) Number of neutrons increases across a period
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Neutron number is not a periodic trend; the others are well-established periodic properties.

🔬 Chemical Bonding & Molecular Geometry

Q7What is the molecular geometry of XeF4?

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Trigonal bipyramidal
(C) See-saw
(D) Square planar
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

XeF4 has 6 electron domains (4 bonds + 2 lone pairs); lone pairs occupy axial positions giving square planar molecular geometry.

Q8Which molecule has sp2 hybridization on the central atom?

(A) CH4
(B) BF3
(C) NH3
(D) H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

BF3 has 3 electron domains (trigonal planar), requiring sp2 hybridization; CH4 is sp3, NH3 is sp3, H2O is sp3.

Q9Which of the following bonds is most polar?

(A) F-H
(B) N-H
(C) O-H
(D) C-H
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bond polarity increases with electronegativity difference; F (4.0) – H (2.1) = 1.9 is the largest difference listed.

Q10Which substance exhibits dipole-dipole interactions but NOT hydrogen bonding?

(A) H2O
(B) HF
(C) CH3Cl
(D) NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CH3Cl is polar but has no H bonded to N, O, or F; H2O, HF, and NH3 all exhibit hydrogen bonding.

Q11What is the approximate bond angle in NH3?

(A) 90 degrees
(B) 107 degrees
(C) 120 degrees
(D) 180 degrees
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NH3 is trigonal pyramidal; the lone pair compresses the H-N-H angle from 109.5 degrees to approximately 107 degrees.

Q12Which has the longest bond length?

(A) H-H
(B) I-I
(C) Br-Br
(D) Cl-Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bond length increases with atomic size; I is the largest halogen listed, so I-I is the longest bond.

Q13Which molecule violates the octet rule by having fewer than 8 electrons around the central atom?

(A) SF6
(B) PCl5
(C) BF3
(D) H2SO4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Boron in BF3 has only 6 valence electrons (electron-deficient); SF6 and PCl5 have expanded octets.

🧪 Stoichiometry & Aqueous Reactions

Q14What mass of CO2 is produced when 10.0 g of CaCO3 decomposes? (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2; Ca = 40.1, C = 12.0, O = 16.0 g/mol)

(A) 2.20 g
(B) 10.0 g
(C) 5.60 g
(D) 4.40 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

10.0 g CaCO3 = 0.100 mol; produces 0.100 mol CO2 = 0.100 × 44.0 = 4.40 g.

Q15What is the molar mass of Al2(SO4)3? (Al = 27.0, S = 32.1, O = 16.0 g/mol)

(A) 150.1 g/mol
(B) 278.1 g/mol
(C) 342.1 g/mol
(D) 396.2 g/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

2(27.0) + 3(32.1) + 12(16.0) = 54.0 + 96.3 + 192.0 = 342.3 g/mol (closest to 342.1).

Q16A 5.00 g sample of a compound contains 2.00 g C, 0.336 g H, and 2.66 g O. What is the empirical formula?

(A) CHO
(B) C3H6O3
(C) C2H4O2
(D) CH2O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

C: 2.00/12.0 = 0.167 mol; H: 0.336/1.008 = 0.333 mol; O: 2.66/16.0 = 0.166 mol; ratio 1:2:1 gives CH2O.

Q17How many grams of NaCl are needed to prepare 500 mL of 0.200 M solution? (NaCl = 58.5 g/mol)

(A) 2.93 g
(B) 5.85 g
(C) 11.7 g
(D) 29.3 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles needed = 0.500 L × 0.200 M = 0.100 mol; mass = 0.100 × 58.5 = 5.85 g.

Q18The reaction N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 produces 8.50 g NH3 from 14.0 g N2 with excess H2. What is the percent yield? (N = 14.0, H = 1.0 g/mol)

(A) 75.0%
(B) 100%
(C) 25.0%
(D) 50.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

14.0 g N2 = 0.500 mol; theoretical NH3 = 1.00 mol = 17.0 g; percent yield = (8.50/17.0) × 100% = 50.0%.

Q19Which of the following is the strongest electrolyte?

(A) HC2H3O2
(B) H2O
(C) KOH
(D) C12H22O11
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

KOH is a strong base (soluble hydroxide) that dissociates completely; HC2H3O2 is weak, H2O barely ionizes, sugar is a nonelectrolyte.

Q20What is the oxidation number of N in NO3-?

(A) +3
(B) -3
(C) +5
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

O is -2; x + 3(-2) = -1; x = +5.

🌀 Gases & Intermolecular Forces

Q21A sample of gas at 3.00 atm and 300 K occupies 4.00 L. What is the pressure if the volume is reduced to 1.00 L at constant temperature?

(A) 0.750 atm
(B) 3.00 atm
(C) 36.0 atm
(D) 12.0 atm
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Boyle's law: P2 = P1V1/V2 = (3.00 atm × 4.00 L)/1.00 L = 12.0 atm.

Q22How many moles of gas are in a 5.00 L container at 2.00 atm and 273 K? (R = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K)

(A) 0.223 mol
(B) 0.446 mol
(C) 2.24 mol
(D) 4.46 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

n = PV/RT = (2.00 × 5.00)/(0.0821 × 273) = 10.0/22.4 = 0.446 mol.

Q23Two gases, A (molar mass 16 g/mol) and B (molar mass 64 g/mol), effuse through a pinhole. How much faster does A effuse than B?

(A) 2 times faster
(B) 4 times faster
(C) 8 times faster
(D) 16 times faster
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Graham's law: rateA/rateB = √(MB/MA) = √(64/16) = √4 = 2.

Q24A gas mixture contains 2.0 g H2 and 8.0 g O2. What is the mole fraction of H2? (H = 1.0, O = 16.0 g/mol)

(A) 0.80
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.20
(D) 0.90
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles H2 = 2.0/2.0 = 1.0 mol; moles O2 = 8.0/32.0 = 0.25 mol; X(H2) = 1.0/1.25 = 0.80.

Q25Which intermolecular force is present in all molecules?

(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) Dipole-dipole
(C) London dispersion
(D) Ion-dipole
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

London dispersion forces arise from temporary dipoles and exist in all molecules; the others require specific structural features.

🔥 Thermochemistry

Q26A 25.0 g sample of aluminum (c = 0.902 J/g·°C) cools from 100.0°C to 25.0°C. How much heat is released?

(A) 1,690 J
(B) 2,260 J
(C) 3,380 J
(D) 5,640 J
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

q = mcΔT = 25.0 × 0.902 × 75.0 = 1,691 J (heat released, so -1,690 J).

Q27Which process is endothermic?

(A) Freezing of water
(B) Condensation of steam
(C) Combustion of propane
(D) Melting of ice
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Melting requires energy input to break intermolecular forces; freezing, condensation, and combustion all release energy.

Q28Given ΔHf° values: CO2(g) = -393.5 kJ/mol, H2O(l) = -285.8 kJ/mol, CH4(g) = -74.8 kJ/mol. What is ΔH° for CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l)?

(A) -890.3 kJ
(B) -604.5 kJ
(C) +890.3 kJ
(D) -74.8 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔH° = [(-393.5) + 2(-285.8)] – [(-74.8) + 0] = -965.1 + 74.8 = -890.3 kJ.

Q29A bomb calorimeter measures:

(A) Heat at constant pressure
(B) Heat at constant volume
(C) Work done by the system
(D) Entropy change
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Bomb calorimeters are rigid sealed vessels (constant volume), measuring ΔE (qV); coffee-cup calorimeters measure qP (ΔH).

Q30Which has the lowest standard molar entropy?

(A) Diamond (C, s)
(B) Graphite (C, s)
(C) O2(g)
(D) H2O(l)
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Diamond has a rigid, highly ordered crystal lattice with very low entropy; gases and liquids have much higher entropy.

Q31The specific heat of copper is 0.385 J/g·°C. How many grams of copper can be heated from 20.0°C to 80.0°C using 1,000 J?

(A) 21.7 g
(B) 130 g
(C) 65.0 g
(D) 43.3 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

m = q/(cΔT) = 1000/(0.385 × 60.0) = 43.3 g.

⚡ Quantum Theory & Electronic Structure

Q32What is the energy of a photon with wavelength 500 nm? (h = 6.626 × 10-34 J·s, c = 3.00 × 108 m/s)

(A) 3.98 × 10-19 J
(B) 3.98 × 10-28 J
(C) 1.99 × 10-19 J
(D) 6.63 × 10-34 J
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

E = hc/λ = (6.626 × 10-34 × 3.00 × 108)/(500 × 10-9) = 3.98 × 10-19 J.

Q33Which set of quantum numbers is NOT allowed?

(A) n=2, l=1, ml=0
(B) n=3, l=2, ml=-2
(C) n=4, l=0, ml=0
(D) n=2, l=2, ml=0
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The azimuthal quantum number l must be less than n; l = 2 is not allowed when n = 2.

Q34The maximum number of electrons in the n = 4 shell is:

(A) 8
(B) 18
(C) 32
(D) 50
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Maximum electrons = 2n2 = 2(16) = 32.

Q35Which transition in the hydrogen atom corresponds to absorption of the highest energy photon?

(A) n=1 → n=2
(B) n=2 → n=3
(C) n=2 → n=4
(D) n=3 → n=5
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Absorption from n=1 requires the most energy because the n=1 level is lowest; larger energy gaps occur for transitions involving n=1.




⏱ Chemical Kinetics

Q36The rate law for 2 A + B → products is rate = k[A][B]2. If [A] is doubled and [B] is tripled, the rate increases by:

(A) 6 times
(B) 12 times
(C) 18 times
(D) 36 times
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rate factor = (2)1 × (3)2 = 2 × 9 = 18.

Q37A reaction has the rate law rate = k[A]0. What happens to the rate if [A] is doubled?

(A) Doubles
(B) Quadruples
(C) Halves
(D) Remains unchanged
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Zero order means rate is independent of [A]; changing concentration has no effect on rate.

Q38Which statement about the Arrhenius equation is correct?

(A) Rate constant increases exponentially with temperature
(B) Higher Ea means faster reaction
(C) Catalysts increase the frequency factor A
(D) Temperature has no effect on k
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

k = Ae-Ea/RT; as T increases, the exponent becomes less negative and k increases exponentially.

Q39The half-life of a second-order reaction depends on:

(A) Only the rate constant
(B) Rate constant and initial concentration
(C) Only initial concentration
(D) Neither
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For second order, t1/2 = 1/(k[A]0), depending on both k and initial concentration (unlike first order).

Q40Which is the best definition of activation energy?

(A) Energy released by the reaction
(B) Minimum energy needed for effective collision
(C) Difference in energy between reactants and products
(D) Energy of the activated complex minus product energy
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ea is the minimum kinetic energy molecules must have for collisions to result in reaction (energy barrier).

Q41For the elementary step A + 2 B → products, the rate law is:

(A) rate = k[A][B]
(B) rate = k[A][B]2
(C) rate = k[A]2[B]
(D) Cannot determine from stoichiometry alone
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For an elementary step, the rate law follows the stoichiometry; molecularity of 3 (1 A + 2 B) gives rate = k[A][B]2.

⇆ Chemical Equilibrium

Q42For the reaction 2 A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g), Kp = 1.5 × 102. If the partial pressures are PA = 0.10 atm, PB = 0.50 atm, PC = 0.30 atm, which way will the reaction shift?

(A) Cannot determine without Kc
(B) Reverse (toward reactants)
(C) At equilibrium
(D) Forward (toward products)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Qp = (PB × PC)/(PA)2 = (0.50 × 0.30)/(0.10)2 = 15; since Qp < Kp (15 < 150), the reaction shifts forward toward products to reach equilibrium.

Q43The reaction CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g) has Kc = 1.0 at 1000 K. If [CO] = [H2O] = [CO2] = [H2] = 1.0 M, the system is:

(A) At equilibrium
(B) Shifting forward
(C) Shifting reverse
(D) Not enough information
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Q = (1.0 × 1.0)/(1.0 × 1.0) = 1.0 = Kc, so the system is at equilibrium.

Q44Which change will increase the value of K for an endothermic reaction?

(A) Adding a catalyst
(B) Decreasing temperature
(C) Increasing temperature
(D) Increasing pressure
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

For endothermic reactions (ΔH > 0), increasing T shifts equilibrium toward products, increasing K (van't Hoff equation).

Q45For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), what happens when Cl2 is added?

(A) Shifts right, more PCl5 dissociates
(B) Shifts left, more PCl5 forms
(C) No change
(D) K increases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Adding product (Cl2) shifts equilibrium left toward reactants by Le Chatelier's principle.

Q46A catalyst added to an equilibrium mixture:

(A) Increases the forward rate only
(B) Increases both forward and reverse rates equally
(C) Shifts equilibrium toward products
(D) Increases K
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Catalysts lower Ea for both directions equally, speeding attainment of equilibrium without changing K or position.

Q47For N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 NO(g) (ΔH > 0), which change increases NO at equilibrium?

(A) Decrease temperature
(B) Increase temperature
(C) Increase pressure
(D) Add a catalyst
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The reaction is endothermic; increasing temperature shifts equilibrium right (toward products), increasing NO.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q48Which is the conjugate base of H2PO4-?

(A) H3PO4
(B) HPO42-
(C) PO43-
(D) OH-
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Removing one H+ from H2PO4- gives HPO42- (conjugate base differs by one proton).

Q49What is the [OH-] in a solution with pH = 4.0? (Kw = 1.0 × 10-14)

(A) 1.0 × 10-4 M
(B) 1.0 × 10-10 M
(C) 1.0 × 10-7 M
(D) 4.0 M
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

pOH = 14 – pH = 10; [OH-] = 10-10 M.

Q50Which salt produces a basic solution when dissolved in water?

(A) NaCl
(B) NH4Cl
(C) NaCH3COO
(D) KNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CH3COO- is the conjugate base of a weak acid and hydrolyzes to produce OH-; NaCl and KNO3 are neutral, NH4Cl is acidic.

Q51The pKa of HF is 3.17. What is the Ka?

(A) 6.8 × 10-4
(B) 1.5 × 103
(C) 3.17 × 10-3
(D) 1.0 × 10-14
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ka = 10-pKa = 10-3.17 = 6.8 × 10-4.

Q52What is the pH of 0.100 M NaOH?

(A) 1.00
(B) 7.00
(C) 12.00
(D) 13.00
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

[OH-] = 0.100 M; pOH = 1.00; pH = 14.00 – 1.00 = 13.00.

Q53Which titration has pH = 7 at the equivalence point?

(A) Strong acid + strong base
(B) Weak acid + strong base
(C) Strong acid + weak base
(D) Weak acid + weak base
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Strong acid-strong base titration produces a neutral salt (no hydrolysis), giving pH = 7 at equivalence.

🔋 Thermodynamics & Electrochemistry

Q54Which process has a negative ΔS?

(A) Melting of ice
(B) Vaporization of water
(C) Formation of NaCl(s) from Na(s) and Cl2(g)
(D) Dissolving salt in water
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Combining a solid and gas to form an ordered solid decreases disorder (ΔS < 0); melting, vaporization, and dissolving increase disorder.

Q55For the reaction 2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l), ΔH = -572 kJ and ΔS = -327 J/K. Is this spontaneous at 298 K?

(A) Yes, ΔG is negative
(B) No, ΔG is positive
(C) At equilibrium
(D) Cannot determine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = -572,000 – (298)(-327) = -572,000 + 97,446 = -474,554 J < 0, so spontaneous.

Q56In an electrolytic cell:

(A) Oxidation occurs at the positive electrode
(B) Reduction occurs at the negative electrode
(C) Electrical energy drives a nonspontaneous reaction
(D) The anode is positive
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Electrolytic cells use external electrical energy to drive nonspontaneous reactions (ΔG > 0); the anode is negative and cathode is positive (opposite of galvanic).

Q57Which metal is most easily oxidized? (E°: Li+/Li = -3.04 V, Na+/Na = -2.71 V, Mg2+/Mg = -2.37 V, Al3+/Al = -1.66 V)

(A) Li
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Al
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The most easily oxidized species has the most negative reduction potential (strongest reducing agent); Li (-3.04 V) is the strongest reductant.

Q58How many moles of electrons are needed to reduce 1.0 mol of Al3+ to Al(s)?

(A) 1.0 mol
(B) 2.0 mol
(C) 3.0 mol
(D) 4.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Al3+ + 3 e- → Al(s); 3 moles of electrons per mole of Al3+ reduced.

☢ Nuclear & Descriptive Chemistry

Q59Carbon-14 dating is used for:

(A) Very old rocks (billions of years)
(B) Organic materials up to ~50,000 years old
(C) Recent nuclear accidents
(D) Determining atomic mass
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

14C has a half-life of 5,730 years, making it useful for dating organic artifacts up to about 50,000 years old.

Q60Which is a common use of helium?

(A) Nuclear fuel
(B) Inert atmosphere for welding
(C) Fertilizer production
(D) Battery electrolyte
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Helium's inertness makes it ideal for providing an oxygen-free atmosphere in welding; it is also used in balloons and as a coolant.