ACS General Chemistry Practice Test 19

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering every major topic tested on the ACS General Chemistry exam.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the ACS exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real ACS General Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers: atomic structure, bonding, stoichiometry, gases, thermochemistry, kinetics, equilibrium, acids & bases, electrochemistry and more.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodic Trends

Q1Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?

(A) Na
(B) Mg
(C) Al
(D) Si
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Atomic radius decreases across a period due to increasing effective nuclear charge; Na is leftmost in period 3 and has the largest radius of the four.

Q2Which ion has the largest ionic radius?

(A) O2-
(B) F-
(C) Na+
(D) Mg2+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

These ions are isoelectronic (all have 10 electrons); radius decreases with increasing nuclear charge, so O2- (Z = 8) is largest.

Q3Which of the following has the highest first ionization energy?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) N
(D) O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ionization energy generally increases across a period; N has a half-filled 2p subshell (2p3), giving it extra stability and a higher IE than O.

Q4Which element has the greatest electron affinity?

(A) F
(B) Cl
(C) Br
(D) I
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Although F is more electronegative, Cl has the highest electron affinity because the small F atom experiences greater electron-electron repulsion when gaining an electron.

Q5Which of the following electron configurations represents an element in an excited state?

(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
(B) 1s2 2s2 2p5
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
(D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The ground state of Mg is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2; promoting a 3s electron to 3p gives an excited state configuration.

Q6Which pair of elements would be expected to have the most similar chemical properties?

(A) Li and Na
(B) Be and B
(C) Mg and Ca
(D) Both A and C
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Elements in the same group have similar valence electron configurations; Li/Na (group 1) and Mg/Ca (group 2) are both same-group pairs.

🔬 Chemical Bonding & Molecular Geometry

Q7Which molecule has a linear geometry?

(A) H2O
(B) CO2
(C) SO2
(D) NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

CO2 has two electron domains around carbon with no lone pairs (AX2), giving linear geometry; H2O and SO2 are bent, NH3 is trigonal pyramidal.

Q8What is the hybridization of the central atom in SF4?

(A) sp3
(B) sp2
(C) sp3d2
(D) sp3d
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

SF4 has 5 electron domains (4 bonds + 1 lone pair), requiring sp3d hybridization for trigonal bipyramidal electron geometry.

Q9Which molecule is polar?

(A) CCl4
(B) CO2
(C) CHCl3
(D) BCl3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

CHCl3 has a tetrahedral arrangement with different substituents, creating a net dipole; CCl4, CO2, and BCl3 are symmetric with dipoles canceling.

Q10Which compound has the strongest hydrogen bonding?

(A) CH4
(B) PH3
(C) H2S
(D) NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

NH3 has N-H bonds where N is highly electronegative and small, creating strong hydrogen bonds; S and P are larger and less electronegative.

Q11What is the bond angle in a trigonal planar molecule?

(A) 120 degrees
(B) 109.5 degrees
(C) 90 degrees
(D) 180 degrees
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Trigonal planar geometry (AX3) has three electron domains arranged to minimize repulsion, giving 120 degree bond angles.

Q12Which of the following has the shortest bond length?

(A) C-C single bond
(B) C=C double bond
(C) C triple bond C
(D) All are equal
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Bond length decreases with increasing bond order; triple bonds are shortest, followed by double, then single bonds.

Q13In which molecule does the central atom have an expanded octet?

(A) CH4
(B) NH3
(C) PCl5
(D) H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

P is in period 3 and can accommodate more than 8 electrons using d orbitals; PCl5 has 10 electrons around phosphorus.

🧪 Stoichiometry & Aqueous Reactions

Q14How many moles of O2 are required to completely combust 2.0 moles of C3H8?

(A) 5.0 mol
(B) 7.0 mol
(C) 10.0 mol
(D) 14.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O; 2.0 mol C3H8 × (5 mol O2/1 mol C3H8) = 10.0 mol O2.

Q15What is the percent composition of oxygen in MgSO4? (Molar masses: Mg = 24.3, S = 32.1, O = 16.0 g/mol)

(A) 26.6%
(B) 39.9%
(C) 53.3%
(D) 66.1%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Molar mass MgSO4 = 24.3 + 32.1 + 64.0 = 120.4 g/mol; %O = (64.0/120.4) × 100% = 53.3%.

Q16A compound contains 40.0% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O by mass. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CH2O
(B) C2H4O2
(C) CHO
(D) CH3O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

40.0g C = 3.33 mol, 6.7g H = 6.7 mol, 53.3g O = 3.33 mol; ratio 1:2:1 gives CH2O.

Q17What volume of 0.50 M NaOH is needed to neutralize 25.0 mL of 0.20 M H2SO4?

(A) 20.0 mL
(B) 10.0 mL
(C) 25.0 mL
(D) 50.0 mL
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles H2SO4 = 0.0250 L × 0.20 M = 0.0050 mol; H2SO4 is diprotic so 0.010 mol OH- needed; V = 0.010 mol/0.50 M = 0.020 L = 20.0 mL.

Q18In the reaction 2 Al + 3 CuSO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + 3 Cu, if 5.4 g Al reacts with excess CuSO4, how many grams of Cu are produced? (Al = 27.0, Cu = 63.5 g/mol)

(A) 6.35 g
(B) 12.7 g
(C) 19.1 g
(D) 25.4 g
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

5.4 g Al = 0.20 mol; 0.20 mol Al × (3 mol Cu/2 mol Al) = 0.30 mol Cu; 0.30 × 63.5 = 19.1 g.

Q19Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?

(A) CH3COOH
(B) NH3
(C) NaCl
(D) C6H12O6
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

NaCl is a soluble ionic compound that dissociates completely in water; CH3COOH and NH3 are weak electrolytes, C6H12O6 is a nonelectrolyte.

Q20What is the oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7?

(A) +3
(B) +6
(C) +7
(D) +12
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

K is +1, O is -2; 2(+1) + 2x + 7(-2) = 0; 2x = +12; x = +6.

🌀 Gases & Intermolecular Forces

Q21A gas occupies 2.50 L at 1.00 atm and 298 K. What volume will it occupy at 2.00 atm and 298 K?

(A) 10.0 L
(B) 2.50 L
(C) 5.00 L
(D) 1.25 L
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Boyle's law (P1V1 = P2V2 at constant T): V2 = (1.00 atm × 2.50 L)/2.00 atm = 1.25 L.

Q22What is the density of N2 gas at STP? (N = 14.0 g/mol; molar volume at STP = 22.4 L/mol)

(A) 1.25 g/L
(B) 0.625 g/L
(C) 2.50 g/L
(D) 28.0 g/L
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Density = molar mass/molar volume = 28.0 g/mol / 22.4 L/mol = 1.25 g/L.

Q23Which gas effuses fastest at the same temperature?

(A) O2
(B) He
(C) CH4
(D) H2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Graham's law: effusion rate is inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass; H2 (2.0 g/mol) is lightest and effuses fastest.

Q24A mixture of gases contains 0.30 mol He, 0.20 mol Ne, and 0.50 mol Ar. If the total pressure is 2.0 atm, what is the partial pressure of Ne?

(A) 0.20 atm
(B) 0.40 atm
(C) 0.60 atm
(D) 1.0 atm
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mole fraction of Ne = 0.20/1.00 = 0.20; P(Ne) = 0.20 × 2.0 atm = 0.40 atm.

Q25Which substance has the highest boiling point?

(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C) C3H8
(D) C4H10
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

All are nonpolar with only London dispersion forces; larger molecules have stronger dispersion forces and higher boiling points.

🔥 Thermochemistry

Q26How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 50.0 g of water from 20.0°C to 80.0°C? (specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g·°C)

(A) 12,550 J
(B) 2,510 J
(C) 25,100 J
(D) 50,200 J
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

q = mcΔT = 50.0 g × 4.184 J/g·°C × 60.0°C = 12,550 J.

Q27The combustion of methane releases 890 kJ/mol. How much heat is released when 8.0 g of CH4 is burned? (CH4 = 16.0 g/mol)

(A) 222 kJ
(B) 445 kJ
(C) 890 kJ
(D) 1,780 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

8.0 g CH4 = 0.50 mol; 0.50 mol × 890 kJ/mol = 445 kJ released.

Q28Which reaction is exothermic?

(A) H2O(l) → H2O(g)
(B) NaCl(s) → Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
(C) 2 H2(g) + O2(g) → 2 H2O(l)
(D) NH4NO3(s) → NH4+(aq) + NO3-(aq)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Combustion of hydrogen forms strong O-H bonds, releasing energy; the others require energy input (endothermic).

Q29Given: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ΔH = -393.5 kJ; CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g) ΔH = -283.0 kJ. What is ΔH for C(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO(g)?

(A) -283.0 kJ
(B) -676.5 kJ
(C) +110.5 kJ
(D) -110.5 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Hess's law: subtract the second reaction from the first; ΔH = -393.5 – (-283.0) = -110.5 kJ.

Q30A calorimeter contains 100.0 g of water at 25.0°C. A 50.0 g metal sample at 100.0°C is added, and the final temperature is 28.5°C. What is the specific heat of the metal? (c(water) = 4.184 J/g·°C)

(A) 0.410 J/g·°C
(B) 0.450 J/g·°C
(C) 0.902 J/g·°C
(D) 1.25 J/g·°C
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Heat lost by metal = heat gained by water; 50.0 × c × 71.5 = 100.0 × 4.184 × 3.5; c = 0.410 J/g·°C.

Q31Which has the highest standard molar entropy at 298 K?

(A) H2O(l)
(B) H2O(g)
(C) NaCl(s)
(D) Fe(s)
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Gases have much higher entropy than liquids or solids due to greater molecular disorder and available microstates.

⚡ Quantum Theory & Electronic Structure

Q32What is the wavelength of light with frequency 5.0 × 1014 Hz? (c = 3.0 × 108 m/s)

(A) 1.7 × 106 m
(B) 1.5 × 1023 m
(C) 6.0 × 10-8 m
(D) 6.0 × 10-7 m
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

λ = c/ν = (3.0 × 108 m/s)/(5.0 × 1014 Hz) = 6.0 × 10-7 m (600 nm, orange light).

Q33Which quantum number describes the shape of an orbital?

(A) n
(B) l
(C) ml
(D) ms
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The azimuthal quantum number l determines orbital shape (l = 0 s-spherical, l = 1 p-dumbbell, l = 2 d, l = 3 f).

Q34How many orbitals are in the n = 3 shell?

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 18
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Number of orbitals = n2 = 32 = 9 (one 3s, three 3p, five 3d orbitals).

Q35Which electron transition in hydrogen emits the highest energy photon?

(A) n = 2 → n = 1
(B) n = 4 → n = 2
(C) n = 5 → n = 2
(D) n = 3 → n = 2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy difference is greatest for transitions to n = 1 (Lyman series); n = 2 → n = 1 releases more energy than any Balmer transition.




⏱ Chemical Kinetics

Q36For the reaction 2 NO + O2 → 2 NO2, the rate law is rate = k[NO]2[O2]. What is the overall reaction order?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Overall order = sum of exponents = 2 + 1 = 3 (third order overall).

Q37If the concentration of a reactant is doubled and the rate quadruples, what is the order with respect to that reactant?

(A) Zero order
(B) First order
(C) Third order
(D) Second order
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Rate ∝ [A]n; 4 = 2n gives n = 2, so the reaction is second order in that reactant.

Q38Which factor increases the rate of reaction by increasing the frequency of effective collisions?

(A) Increasing temperature
(B) Adding a catalyst
(C) Increasing reactant concentration
(D) Both A and C
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Higher temperature increases molecular speed and collision energy; higher concentration increases collision frequency; both increase effective collisions.

Q39A catalyst increases reaction rate by:

(A) Increasing the equilibrium constant
(B) Shifting the equilibrium toward products
(C) Increasing the temperature of the reaction
(D) Providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Catalysts lower Ea by providing a different mechanism; they do not change ΔG, K, or equilibrium position.

Q40For a first-order reaction, the half-life is 20.0 min. What fraction remains after 60.0 min?

(A) 1/2
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/8
(D) 1/16
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

60.0 min = 3 half-lives; fraction remaining = (1/2)3 = 1/8.

Q41The activation energy for a reaction is 50 kJ/mol. If a catalyst lowers it to 30 kJ/mol, how does the rate change? (Assume same temperature and frequency factor)

(A) Increases dramatically (exponentially)
(B) Increases slightly
(C) Decreases
(D) Remains unchanged
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

From the Arrhenius equation k = Ae-Ea/RT, lowering Ea increases k exponentially; a 20 kJ/mol decrease at room temperature increases the rate by roughly 3000-fold.

⇆ Chemical Equilibrium

Q42For the reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) ⇌ 2 NH3(g), Kc = 0.50 at 400°C. What is the value of Kc for 2 NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3 H2(g)?

(A) 0.50
(B) 1.0
(C) 2.0
(D) 0.25
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Reversing a reaction inverts K; Kc(reverse) = 1/Kc(forward) = 1/0.50 = 2.0.

Q43For the equilibrium 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2 SO3(g), what happens if the volume is decreased at constant temperature?

(A) Shifts left
(B) Shifts right
(C) No shift
(D) K decreases
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Decreasing volume increases pressure; the equilibrium shifts toward fewer moles of gas (3 mol → 2 mol, right) to relieve the pressure.

Q44The equilibrium constant Kp for a gas-phase reaction is 4.0 × 10-3. What does this indicate?

(A) Products are favored at equilibrium
(B) The reaction is at equilibrium
(C) The reaction goes to completion
(D) Reactants are favored at equilibrium
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

K much less than 1 means the equilibrium lies far to the left; reactants predominate at equilibrium.

Q45For the reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g), Kc = 2.5. If [A] = 0.40 M and [B] = 0.60 M, which direction will the reaction proceed?

(A) Forward (toward B)
(B) Reverse (toward A)
(C) Already at equilibrium
(D) Cannot determine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Q = [B]/[A] = 0.60/0.40 = 1.5; since Q < K (1.5 < 2.5), the reaction shifts forward to reach equilibrium.

Q46Adding an inert gas at constant volume to an equilibrium mixture:

(A) Has no effect on the equilibrium position
(B) Shifts the equilibrium right
(C) Shifts the equilibrium left
(D) Decreases the equilibrium constant
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At constant volume, adding inert gas does not change partial pressures or concentrations of reactants/products, so no shift occurs.

Q47For the exothermic reaction 2 NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) + heat, increasing temperature will:

(A) Shift right, increasing N2O4
(B) Shift left, increasing NO2
(C) Have no effect
(D) Increase K
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

By Le Chatelier's principle, adding heat to an exothermic reaction shifts the equilibrium toward reactants (left), decreasing K.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q48Which of the following is a strong acid?

(A) HCl
(B) CH3COOH
(C) HF
(D) H2CO3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

HCl dissociates completely in water; HF, CH3COOH, and H2CO3 are all weak acids that only partially ionize.

Q49What is the pH of a 0.010 M HCl solution?

(A) 1.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 7.0
(D) 12.0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

HCl is a strong acid, so [H+] = 0.010 M; pH = -log(0.010) = 2.0.

Q50Which solution has the highest pH?

(A) 0.10 M HCl
(B) 0.10 M NaOH
(C) 0.10 M CH3COOH
(D) 0.10 M NH4Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NaOH is a strong base giving [OH-] = 0.10 M (pH = 13); HCl gives pH = 1, CH3COOH is a weak acid (pH ~2.9), NH4Cl is acidic (pH ~5).

Q51A buffer solution is best prepared from:

(A) A strong acid and its conjugate base
(B) A weak acid and its conjugate base in comparable amounts
(C) A strong base and water
(D) Two strong acids
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Buffers require a weak acid-base conjugate pair to neutralize added H+ or OH-; strong acids/bases cannot form effective buffers.

Q52What is the pH of a buffer containing 0.20 M CH3COOH and 0.20 M CH3COO-? (Ka = 1.8 × 10-5)

(A) 2.74
(B) 4.74
(C) 7.00
(D) 9.26
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Using Henderson-Hasselbalch: pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(1) = 4.74.

Q53In the titration of a weak acid with a strong base, the pH at the equivalence point is:

(A) Less than 7
(B) Equal to 7
(C) Greater than 7
(D) Cannot be predicted
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the equivalence point only the conjugate base remains, which hydrolyzes to produce OH-, making the solution basic (pH > 7).

🔋 Thermodynamics & Electrochemistry

Q54For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure:

(A) ΔG > 0
(B) ΔG < 0
(C) ΔG = 0
(D) ΔS < 0
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A negative Gibbs free energy change (ΔG < 0) indicates a spontaneous process under constant T and P.

Q55A reaction has ΔH = -120 kJ and ΔS = -150 J/K. At what temperature does it become nonspontaneous? (ΔG = ΔH – TΔS)

(A) Below 800 K
(B) Above 800 K
(C) At all temperatures
(D) At no temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Set ΔG = 0: T = ΔH/ΔS = (-120,000 J)/(-150 J/K) = 800 K; above 800 K, the -TΔS term dominates and ΔG > 0.

Q56In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the:

(A) Cathode, which is positive
(B) Anode, which is negative
(C) Cathode, which is negative
(D) Salt bridge
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In galvanic (voltaic) cells, oxidation occurs at the anode (negative electrode) and reduction at the cathode (positive electrode).

Q57Which species is the strongest oxidizing agent? (Standard reduction potentials: F2/F- = +2.87 V, Cl2/Cl- = +1.36 V, Br2/Br- = +1.07 V, I2/I- = +0.54 V)

(A) F2
(B) Cl2
(C) Br2
(D) I2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The strongest oxidizing agent has the most positive reduction potential; F2 (+2.87 V) is the strongest oxidizer listed.

Q58What is the standard cell potential for Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)? (E°(Cu2+/Cu) = +0.34 V, E°(Zn2+/Zn) = -0.76 V)

(A) -1.10 V
(B) -0.42 V
(C) +0.42 V
(D) +1.10 V
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

E°cell = E°cathode – E°anode = (+0.34 V) – (-0.76 V) = +1.10 V.

☢ Nuclear & Descriptive Chemistry

Q59Which type of radioactive decay produces a new element with atomic number decreased by 2?

(A) Beta decay
(B) Alpha decay
(C) Gamma decay
(D) Electron capture
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alpha decay emits a helium nucleus (2 protons, 2 neutrons), decreasing Z by 2 and mass number by 4.

Q60Which compound is commonly known as "laughing gas"?

(A) NO
(B) NO2
(C) N2O
(D) N2O4
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Nitrous oxide (N2O) is known as laughing gas due to its euphoric effects; it is also used as a dental anesthetic.