ACS General Chemistry Practice Test 18
60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering every major topic tested on the ACS General Chemistry exam.
Note: These are original practice questions written in the ACS exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real ACS General Chemistry exam.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers: atomic structure, bonding, stoichiometry, gases, thermochemistry, kinetics, equilibrium, acids & bases, electrochemistry and more.
⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodic Trends
Q1Which of the following ions has exactly three unpaired electrons in its ground-state electron configuration?
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Correct: (C)
Cr3+ is [Ar]3d3, giving three unpaired electrons in the 3d subshell.
Q2Which element has the highest first ionization energy?
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Correct: (A)
Kr is a noble gas with a complete shell and high effective nuclear charge, so it has the highest first ionization energy of the four.
Q3Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) is NOT possible for an electron in an atom?
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Correct: (D)
For l = 1, ml can only be -1, 0, or +1, so ml = 2 is impossible.
Q4Which element has the greatest (most negative) electron affinity?
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Correct: (B)
Among the group 16 elements listed, S has the most negative electron affinity (O is anomalously low due to small size and electron-electron repulsion).
Q5What is the wavelength of the photon emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom falls from the n = 4 level to the n = 2 level?
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Correct: (C)
ΔE = 13.6 eV(1/4 – 1/16) = 2.55 eV; λ = 1240 eV·nm / 2.55 eV ≈ 486 nm (blue-green line of the Balmer series).
Q6Which pair of species is isoelectronic?
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Correct: (D)
S2- and Cl- both have 18 electrons, while the other pairs differ in electron count.
🔬 Chemical Bonding & Molecular Geometry
Q7What is the molecular geometry of ICl3?
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Correct: (B)
ICl3 has 5 electron domains (3 bonding, 2 lone pairs), giving a T-shaped molecular geometry.
Q8Which bond is the most polar?
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Correct: (C)
Si-Cl has the largest electronegativity difference (≈1.26), making it the most polar of the listed bonds.
Q9What is the hybridization of the xenon atom in XeF4?
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Correct: (A)
XeF4 has 6 electron domains (4 bonding, 2 lone pairs), requiring sp3d2 hybridization for square planar geometry.
Q10Which diatomic oxygen species has the highest bond order?
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Correct: (D)
O2+ has bond order 2.5, higher than O2 (2.0), O2- (1.5), and O22- (1.0).
Q11What is the formal charge on the nitrogen atom in the nitrate ion, NO3-?
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Correct: (B)
Formal charge = 5 – (0 nonbonding + 8/2 bonding) = +1 on nitrogen in the standard Lewis structure.
Q12Which molecule is polar (has a nonzero net dipole moment)?
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Correct: (C)
H2S has a bent geometry with two lone pairs on S, so its bond dipoles do not cancel; the others are symmetric and nonpolar.
Q13Which molecule is diamagnetic?
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Correct: (B)
C2 has no unpaired electrons in its molecular orbital configuration (bond order 2), so it is diamagnetic; B2, O2, and NO each have unpaired electrons.
🧪 Stoichiometry & Aqueous Reactions
Q14What mass of Al2O3 can be produced from 25.0 g of Al and 30.0 g of O2? (4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3)
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Correct: (A)
Al is limiting (0.926 mol Al needs 0.695 mol O2, and 0.938 mol O2 is available); 0.926/2 mol Al2O3 × 102 g/mol = 47.2 g.
Q15What is the molarity of NaOH after 15.0 mL of 2.50 M NaOH is diluted with water to a final volume of 250. mL?
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Correct: (C)
M2 = (2.50 M)(15.0 mL)/(250. mL) = 0.150 M.
Q16In a titration, 20.00 mL of HCl solution requires 32.50 mL of 0.100 M NaOH to reach the endpoint. What is the molarity of the HCl?
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Correct: (B)
1:1 stoichiometry gives M(HCl) = (0.100 M)(32.50 mL)/(20.00 mL) = 0.1625 M.
Q17What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of aqueous silver nitrate with aqueous sodium chloride?
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Correct: (D)
Ag+ and Cl- combine to form the insoluble precipitate AgCl; Na+ and NO3- are spectator ions.
Q18A synthesis has a theoretical yield of 12.5 g and an actual yield of 9.80 g. What is the percent yield?
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Correct: (A)
Percent yield = (9.80 g / 12.5 g) × 100% = 78.4%.
Q19A compound contains 40.0% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O by mass. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (C)
Mole ratio: C 3.33 : H 6.7 : O 3.33 = 1 : 2 : 1, giving the empirical formula CH2O.
Q20What is the oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7?
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Correct: (B)
With K at +1 and O at -2: 2(+1) + 2x + 7(-2) = 0 gives x = +6.
🌀 Gases & Intermolecular Forces
Q21What is the pressure exerted by 0.500 mol of an ideal gas at 300. K in a 10.0 L container?
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Correct: (D)
P = nRT/V = (0.500)(0.08206)(300.)/10.0 = 1.23 atm.
Q22At the same temperature and pressure, how many times faster does H2 effuse than O2?
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Correct: (A)
By Graham's law, rate ratio = √(M(O2)/M(H2)) = √(32/2) = 4.00.
Q23A gas mixture contains 2.0 mol N2 and 3.0 mol O2 at a total pressure of 2.50 atm. What is the partial pressure of O2?
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Correct: (C)
P(O2) = mole fraction × total = (3.0/5.0)(2.50 atm) = 1.50 atm.
Q24Which substance exhibits hydrogen bonding between its molecules?
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Correct: (B)
NH3 has H bonded directly to the highly electronegative N atom, enabling hydrogen bonding; the others lack this feature.
Q25Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C?
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Correct: (D)
Diethyl ether has the weakest intermolecular forces (dipole-dipole only, no hydrogen bonding), so it evaporates most readily.
🔥 Thermochemistry
Q26How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 50.0 g of water from 20.0°C to 45.0°C? (specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g·°C)
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Correct: (D)
q = mcΔT = (50.0 g)(4.184 J/g·°C)(25.0°C) = 5230 J = 5.23 kJ.
Q27Given: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -394 kJ; CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283 kJ. What is ΔH for C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g)?
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Correct: (B)
By Hess's law, subtract the second equation from the first: -394 – (-283) = -111 kJ.
Q28The standard enthalpy of formation of CO2(g) is -393.5 kJ/mol. What does this value mean?
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Correct: (A)
ΔHf° is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of compound forms from its elements in standard states; the negative sign means heat is released.
Q29Which statement correctly describes an exothermic reaction?
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Correct: (C)
Exothermic means heat flows out of the system (ΔH < 0), warming the surroundings.
Q30Estimate ΔH for H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) using bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol.
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Correct: (D)
ΔH = (436 + 242) – 2(431) = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ.
Q31Using the bond enthalpies below, estimate ΔH° for the combustion of ethene:
C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
Bond enthalpies (kJ/mol): C−H 413, C=C 614, O=O 498, C=O 799, O−H 463
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken: 4(413) + 614 + 3(498) = 3760 kJ; bonds formed: 4(799) + 4(463) = 5048 kJ; ΔH = 3760 − 5048 = −1288 kJ.
⚡ Quantum Theory & Electronic Structure
Q32Which element has the largest third ionization energy?
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Correct: (C)
Removing a third electron from Mg strips a core electron from a neon-like Mg2+ ion, and its higher nuclear charge makes this harder than for Na, while Al and Si still lose valence electrons.
Q33Which set of quantum numbers is impossible for an electron in an atom?
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Correct: (D)
The azimuthal quantum number l must be less than n, so l = 2 is not allowed when n = 2.
Q34What is the ground-state electron configuration of chromium (Z = 24)?
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Correct: (B)
Chromium is an exception to the filling order; a half-filled 3d subshell with one 4s electron is more stable than [Ar]4s2 3d4.
Q35How many angular (planar) nodes does a 3d orbital have?
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Correct: (C)
The number of angular nodes equals the azimuthal quantum number l, which is 2 for any d orbital.
⏱ Chemical Kinetics
Q36For the reaction A + 2B → products, the following initial-rate data were collected:
Exp 1: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 2.0 × 10−3 M/s
Exp 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 8.0 × 10−3 M/s
Exp 3: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 4.0 × 10−3 M/s
What is the rate law?
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Correct: (D)
Doubling [A] quadruples the rate (second order in A); doubling [B] doubles the rate (first order in B).
Q37The decomposition of N2O5 is first order with a half-life of 45.0 min. If the initial concentration is 0.800 M, what is the concentration after 135 min?
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Correct: (A)
135 min is three half-lives, so the concentration falls by (1/2)3: 0.800 M / 8 = 0.100 M.
Q38The rate constant for a reaction doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. What is the approximate activation energy?
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Correct: (B)
From ln(k2/k1) = (Ea/R)(1/T1 − 1/T2), Ea = (8.314 J/mol·K)(ln 2)/(1/300 − 1/310) ≈ 53.6 kJ/mol.
Q39A proposed mechanism for the reaction 2NO(g) + Br2(g) → 2NOBr(g) is:
Step 1 (slow): NO(g) + Br2(g) → NOBr2(g)
Step 2 (fast): NOBr2(g) + NO(g) → 2NOBr(g)
What is the rate law predicted by this mechanism?
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Correct: (C)
The rate-determining slow step is bimolecular, so the rate law is first order in each reactant of step 1.
Q40Which statement about catalysts is true?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst lowers the activation barrier via a new mechanism but leaves ΔH, K, and the overall stoichiometry unchanged.
Q41For a reaction with rate = k[X][Y]2, what are the units of the rate constant k?
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Correct: (B)
The reaction is third order overall, so k has units of M(1−3)·s−1 = M−2·s−1.
⇆ Chemical Equilibrium
Q42For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), Kc = 280 at a certain temperature. What is the equilibrium constant for SO3(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) at the same temperature?
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Correct: (A)
Reversing the reaction inverts K and halving the coefficients takes the square root: K = (1/280)1/2 = 0.0598.
Q43For N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), a mixture initially contains 0.50 M N2 and 0.80 M H2. At equilibrium, [NH3] = 0.20 M. What is the equilibrium concentration of H2?
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Correct: (D)
Forming 0.20 M NH3 consumes (3/2)(0.20) = 0.30 M H2, so [H2]eq = 0.80 − 0.30 = 0.50 M.
Q44For CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g), ΔH° > 0. Which change will increase the amount of CO2 present at equilibrium?
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Correct: (B)
The reaction is endothermic, so higher temperature favors products; pure solids do not affect the equilibrium position, and compression favors the side with fewer gas moles.
Q45For 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g), Kc = 170. In a flask, [NO2] = 0.30 M and [N2O4] = 0.50 M. In which direction will the reaction proceed?
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Correct: (C)
Qc = 0.50/(0.30)2 = 5.56, which is less than Kc, so the reaction shifts right to reach equilibrium.
Q46The molar solubility of CaF2 in water is 2.0 × 10−4 M. What is the Ksp of CaF2?
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Correct: (A)
For CaF2(s) ⇌ Ca2+ + 2F−, Ksp = s(2s)2 = 4s3 = 4(2.0 × 10−4)3 = 3.2 × 10−11.
Q47Compared with its solubility in pure water, the solubility of AgCl in 0.10 M NaCl solution will:
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Correct: (D)
The added chloride is a common ion; by Le Châtelier's principle it suppresses the dissolution of AgCl even though Ksp itself is unchanged.
🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers
Q48What is the pH of 0.10 M HF(aq)? (Ka of HF = 6.8 × 10−4)
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Correct: (B)
[H+] ≈ (Ka·C)1/2 = (6.8 × 10−5)1/2 = 8.2 × 10−3 M, so pH = −log(8.2 × 10−3) = 2.08.
Q49What is the conjugate base of H2PO4−?
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Correct: (C)
Removing one proton (H+) from the acid H2PO4− gives its conjugate base, HPO42−.
Q50Which of the following mixtures forms an effective buffer solution?
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Correct: (B)
A weak base (NH3) plus its conjugate acid (NH4+) resists pH changes; the other mixtures contain only strong acids/bases and spectator ions.
Q51In the titration of a weak acid HA with the strong base NaOH, the pH at the equivalence point is:
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Correct: (A)
At the equivalence point only the conjugate base A− remains, and its hydrolysis (A− + H2O ⇌ HA + OH−) makes the solution basic.
Q52A buffer is prepared with [CH3COO−]/[CH3COOH] = 10.0. If the pKa of acetic acid is 4.76, what is the pH of the buffer?
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Correct: (D)
By the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation, pH = pKa + log(10.0) = 4.76 + 1.00 = 5.76.
Q53Given Ka(HF) = 6.8 × 10−4, what is Kb for the fluoride ion, F−?
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Correct: (C)
For a conjugate pair, Ka·Kb = Kw, so Kb = 1.0 × 10−14 / 6.8 × 10−4 = 1.5 × 10−11.
🔋 Thermodynamics & Electrochemistry
Q54Which reaction has a negative standard entropy change (ΔS° < 0)?
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Correct: (C)
Four moles of gas combine to form two moles of gas, decreasing disorder; the other reactions increase disorder.
Q55For a reaction with ΔH° = −120 kJ/mol and ΔS° = −150 J/(mol·K), what is ΔG° at 500 K, and is the reaction spontaneous?
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Correct: (D)
ΔG° = ΔH° − TΔS° = −120 − (500)(−0.150) = −45 kJ/mol; a negative ΔG° means the reaction is spontaneous.
Q56Given E°(Zn2+/Zn) = −0.76 V and E°(Cu2+/Cu) = +0.34 V, in the galvanic cell Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s):
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Correct: (A)
Copper has the more positive reduction potential, so Cu2+ is reduced at the cathode while Zn is oxidized at the anode.
Q57What is the cell potential for Zn(s)|Zn2+(0.10 M)||Cu2+(2.0 M)|Cu(s) at 25°C? (E°cell = 1.10 V)
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Correct: (C)
By the Nernst equation, E = 1.10 − (0.0592/2)log(0.10/2.0) = 1.10 + 0.039 = 1.14 V.
Q58What mass of copper is deposited when a current of 2.00 A passes through a CuSO4 solution for 30.0 min? (Cu2+ + 2e− → Cu; molar mass Cu = 63.55 g/mol)
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Correct: (B)
Charge = (2.00 A)(1800 s) = 3600 C = 0.0373 mol e−; moles Cu = 0.0373/2 = 0.0187 mol, giving (0.0187)(63.55) = 1.19 g.
☢ Nuclear & Descriptive Chemistry
Q59Uranium-238 decays to thorium-234 according to 238U → 234Th + ?. What particle is emitted?
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Correct: (D)
The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number by 2, which identifies the emitted particle as an alpha particle (4He nucleus).
Q60A sample gives a crimson-red color in a flame test. Which element is most likely present?
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Correct: (A)
Strontium produces a characteristic crimson-red flame; sodium gives yellow, potassium gives lilac, and copper gives green.
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