ACS General Chemistry Practice Test 18

60 original exam-style multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering every major topic tested on the ACS General Chemistry exam.

Note: These are original practice questions written in the ACS exam style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real ACS General Chemistry exam.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers: atomic structure, bonding, stoichiometry, gases, thermochemistry, kinetics, equilibrium, acids & bases, electrochemistry and more.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodic Trends

Q1Which of the following ions has exactly three unpaired electrons in its ground-state electron configuration?

(A) V3+
(B) Mn2+
(C) Cr3+
(D) Fe2+
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Cr3+ is [Ar]3d3, giving three unpaired electrons in the 3d subshell.

Q2Which element has the highest first ionization energy?

(A) Kr
(B) As
(C) Se
(D) Br
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Kr is a noble gas with a complete shell and high effective nuclear charge, so it has the highest first ionization energy of the four.

Q3Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) is NOT possible for an electron in an atom?

(A) 3, 2, 1, +1/2
(B) 4, 3, -3, -1/2
(C) 5, 4, 0, +1/2
(D) 2, 1, 2, +1/2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

For l = 1, ml can only be -1, 0, or +1, so ml = 2 is impossible.

Q4Which element has the greatest (most negative) electron affinity?

(A) O
(B) S
(C) Te
(D) Se
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Among the group 16 elements listed, S has the most negative electron affinity (O is anomalously low due to small size and electron-electron repulsion).

Q5What is the wavelength of the photon emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom falls from the n = 4 level to the n = 2 level?

(A) 656 nm
(B) 434 nm
(C) 486 nm
(D) 410 nm
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔE = 13.6 eV(1/4 – 1/16) = 2.55 eV; λ = 1240 eV·nm / 2.55 eV ≈ 486 nm (blue-green line of the Balmer series).

Q6Which pair of species is isoelectronic?

(A) Mg2+ and Na
(B) N3- and P3-
(C) Al3+ and Ca2+
(D) S2- and Cl-
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

S2- and Cl- both have 18 electrons, while the other pairs differ in electron count.

🔬 Chemical Bonding & Molecular Geometry

Q7What is the molecular geometry of ICl3?

(A) Trigonal planar
(B) T-shaped
(C) Trigonal pyramidal
(D) Seesaw
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ICl3 has 5 electron domains (3 bonding, 2 lone pairs), giving a T-shaped molecular geometry.

Q8Which bond is the most polar?

(A) C-H
(B) N-H
(C) Si-Cl
(D) O-F
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Si-Cl has the largest electronegativity difference (≈1.26), making it the most polar of the listed bonds.

Q9What is the hybridization of the xenon atom in XeF4?

(A) sp3d2
(B) sp3
(C) sp3d
(D) sp2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

XeF4 has 6 electron domains (4 bonding, 2 lone pairs), requiring sp3d2 hybridization for square planar geometry.

Q10Which diatomic oxygen species has the highest bond order?

(A) O2
(B) O2-
(C) O22-
(D) O2+
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

O2+ has bond order 2.5, higher than O2 (2.0), O2- (1.5), and O22- (1.0).

Q11What is the formal charge on the nitrogen atom in the nitrate ion, NO3-?

(A) -1
(B) +1
(C) 0
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Formal charge = 5 – (0 nonbonding + 8/2 bonding) = +1 on nitrogen in the standard Lewis structure.

Q12Which molecule is polar (has a nonzero net dipole moment)?

(A) CCl4
(B) CO2
(C) H2S
(D) SO3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

H2S has a bent geometry with two lone pairs on S, so its bond dipoles do not cancel; the others are symmetric and nonpolar.

Q13Which molecule is diamagnetic?

(A) B2
(B) C2
(C) O2
(D) NO
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

C2 has no unpaired electrons in its molecular orbital configuration (bond order 2), so it is diamagnetic; B2, O2, and NO each have unpaired electrons.

🧪 Stoichiometry & Aqueous Reactions

Q14What mass of Al2O3 can be produced from 25.0 g of Al and 30.0 g of O2? (4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3)

(A) 47.2 g
(B) 25.0 g
(C) 31.9 g
(D) 63.8 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Al is limiting (0.926 mol Al needs 0.695 mol O2, and 0.938 mol O2 is available); 0.926/2 mol Al2O3 × 102 g/mol = 47.2 g.

Q15What is the molarity of NaOH after 15.0 mL of 2.50 M NaOH is diluted with water to a final volume of 250. mL?

(A) 0.375 M
(B) 0.0600 M
(C) 0.150 M
(D) 1.50 M
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

M2 = (2.50 M)(15.0 mL)/(250. mL) = 0.150 M.

Q16In a titration, 20.00 mL of HCl solution requires 32.50 mL of 0.100 M NaOH to reach the endpoint. What is the molarity of the HCl?

(A) 0.0813 M
(B) 0.1625 M
(C) 0.325 M
(D) 0.0650 M
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

1:1 stoichiometry gives M(HCl) = (0.100 M)(32.50 mL)/(20.00 mL) = 0.1625 M.

Q17What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of aqueous silver nitrate with aqueous sodium chloride?

(A) Na+ + NO3- → NaNO3
(B) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
(C) Na+ + Cl- → NaCl
(D) Ag+ + Cl- → AgCl(s)
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ag+ and Cl- combine to form the insoluble precipitate AgCl; Na+ and NO3- are spectator ions.

Q18A synthesis has a theoretical yield of 12.5 g and an actual yield of 9.80 g. What is the percent yield?

(A) 78.4%
(B) 127.6%
(C) 21.6%
(D) 72.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Percent yield = (9.80 g / 12.5 g) × 100% = 78.4%.

Q19A compound contains 40.0% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O by mass. What is its empirical formula?

(A) CHO
(B) C2H4O2
(C) CH2O
(D) CH3O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Mole ratio: C 3.33 : H 6.7 : O 3.33 = 1 : 2 : 1, giving the empirical formula CH2O.

Q20What is the oxidation number of chromium in K2Cr2O7?

(A) +3
(B) +6
(C) +4
(D) +7
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With K at +1 and O at -2: 2(+1) + 2x + 7(-2) = 0 gives x = +6.

🌀 Gases & Intermolecular Forces

Q21What is the pressure exerted by 0.500 mol of an ideal gas at 300. K in a 10.0 L container?

(A) 0.615 atm
(B) 2.46 atm
(C) 12.3 atm
(D) 1.23 atm
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

P = nRT/V = (0.500)(0.08206)(300.)/10.0 = 1.23 atm.

Q22At the same temperature and pressure, how many times faster does H2 effuse than O2?

(A) 4.00
(B) 2.00
(C) 8.00
(D) 16.0
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

By Graham's law, rate ratio = √(M(O2)/M(H2)) = √(32/2) = 4.00.

Q23A gas mixture contains 2.0 mol N2 and 3.0 mol O2 at a total pressure of 2.50 atm. What is the partial pressure of O2?

(A) 1.00 atm
(B) 1.25 atm
(C) 1.50 atm
(D) 2.50 atm
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

P(O2) = mole fraction × total = (3.0/5.0)(2.50 atm) = 1.50 atm.

Q24Which substance exhibits hydrogen bonding between its molecules?

(A) CH4
(B) NH3
(C) PH3
(D) H2S
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

NH3 has H bonded directly to the highly electronegative N atom, enabling hydrogen bonding; the others lack this feature.

Q25Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C?

(A) Water
(B) Ethanol
(C) Glycerol
(D) Diethyl ether
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Diethyl ether has the weakest intermolecular forces (dipole-dipole only, no hydrogen bonding), so it evaporates most readily.

🔥 Thermochemistry

Q26How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 50.0 g of water from 20.0°C to 45.0°C? (specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g·°C)

(A) 1.05 kJ
(B) 10.5 kJ
(C) 20.9 kJ
(D) 5.23 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

q = mcΔT = (50.0 g)(4.184 J/g·°C)(25.0°C) = 5230 J = 5.23 kJ.

Q27Given: C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -394 kJ; CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) → CO2(g), ΔH = -283 kJ. What is ΔH for C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g)?

(A) -677 kJ
(B) -111 kJ
(C) +111 kJ
(D) -283 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

By Hess's law, subtract the second equation from the first: -394 – (-283) = -111 kJ.

Q28The standard enthalpy of formation of CO2(g) is -393.5 kJ/mol. What does this value mean?

(A) Forming 1 mol of CO2 from its elements in their standard states releases 393.5 kJ of heat.
(B) Decomposing 1 mol of CO2 into its elements absorbs 393.5 kJ of heat.
(C) Forming 1 mol of CO2 from CO and O2 absorbs 393.5 kJ of heat.
(D) The combustion of 1 mol of carbon releases 393.5 kJ per gram of CO2.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔHf° is the enthalpy change when 1 mol of compound forms from its elements in standard states; the negative sign means heat is released.

Q29Which statement correctly describes an exothermic reaction?

(A) ΔH is positive and the system absorbs heat from the surroundings.
(B) ΔH is negative and the system absorbs heat from the surroundings.
(C) ΔH is negative and the surroundings get warmer as heat is released.
(D) ΔH is positive and the surroundings get warmer as heat is released.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Exothermic means heat flows out of the system (ΔH < 0), warming the surroundings.

Q30Estimate ΔH for H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) using bond energies: H-H = 436 kJ/mol, Cl-Cl = 242 kJ/mol, H-Cl = 431 kJ/mol.

(A) +184 kJ
(B) -92 kJ
(C) +92 kJ
(D) -184 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔH = (436 + 242) – 2(431) = 678 – 862 = -184 kJ.

Q31Using the bond enthalpies below, estimate ΔH° for the combustion of ethene:
C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
Bond enthalpies (kJ/mol): C−H 413, C=C 614, O=O 498, C=O 799, O−H 463

(A) −1288 kJ
(B) −872 kJ
(C) +1288 kJ
(D) −2344 kJ
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken: 4(413) + 614 + 3(498) = 3760 kJ; bonds formed: 4(799) + 4(463) = 5048 kJ; ΔH = 3760 − 5048 = −1288 kJ.

⚡ Quantum Theory & Electronic Structure

Q32Which element has the largest third ionization energy?

(A) Na
(B) Al
(C) Mg
(D) Si
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Removing a third electron from Mg strips a core electron from a neon-like Mg2+ ion, and its higher nuclear charge makes this harder than for Na, while Al and Si still lose valence electrons.

Q33Which set of quantum numbers is impossible for an electron in an atom?

(A) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
(B) n = 2, l = 1, ml = −1, ms = −1/2
(C) n = 4, l = 3, ml = 2, ms = +1/2
(D) n = 2, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = −1/2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The azimuthal quantum number l must be less than n, so l = 2 is not allowed when n = 2.

Q34What is the ground-state electron configuration of chromium (Z = 24)?

(A) [Ar]4s2 3d4
(B) [Ar]4s1 3d5
(C) [Ar]3d6
(D) [Ar]4s1 3d4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Chromium is an exception to the filling order; a half-filled 3d subshell with one 4s electron is more stable than [Ar]4s2 3d4.

Q35How many angular (planar) nodes does a 3d orbital have?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The number of angular nodes equals the azimuthal quantum number l, which is 2 for any d orbital.




⏱ Chemical Kinetics

Q36For the reaction A + 2B → products, the following initial-rate data were collected:
Exp 1: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 2.0 × 10−3 M/s
Exp 2: [A] = 0.20 M, [B] = 0.10 M, rate = 8.0 × 10−3 M/s
Exp 3: [A] = 0.10 M, [B] = 0.20 M, rate = 4.0 × 10−3 M/s
What is the rate law?

(A) rate = k[A][B]2
(B) rate = k[A]2[B]2
(C) rate = k[A][B]
(D) rate = k[A]2[B]
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Doubling [A] quadruples the rate (second order in A); doubling [B] doubles the rate (first order in B).

Q37The decomposition of N2O5 is first order with a half-life of 45.0 min. If the initial concentration is 0.800 M, what is the concentration after 135 min?

(A) 0.100 M
(B) 0.200 M
(C) 0.267 M
(D) 0.0500 M
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

135 min is three half-lives, so the concentration falls by (1/2)3: 0.800 M / 8 = 0.100 M.

Q38The rate constant for a reaction doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. What is the approximate activation energy?

(A) 26.8 kJ/mol
(B) 53.6 kJ/mol
(C) 107 kJ/mol
(D) 8.31 kJ/mol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

From ln(k2/k1) = (Ea/R)(1/T1 − 1/T2), Ea = (8.314 J/mol·K)(ln 2)/(1/300 − 1/310) ≈ 53.6 kJ/mol.

Q39A proposed mechanism for the reaction 2NO(g) + Br2(g) → 2NOBr(g) is:
Step 1 (slow): NO(g) + Br2(g) → NOBr2(g)
Step 2 (fast): NOBr2(g) + NO(g) → 2NOBr(g)
What is the rate law predicted by this mechanism?

(A) rate = k[NO]2[Br2]
(B) rate = k[NOBr2][NO]
(C) rate = k[NO][Br2]
(D) rate = k[Br2]
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The rate-determining slow step is bimolecular, so the rate law is first order in each reactant of step 1.

Q40Which statement about catalysts is true?

(A) A catalyst is consumed during the reaction.
(B) A catalyst increases the equilibrium constant of the reaction.
(C) A catalyst increases the activation energy of the slowest step.
(D) A catalyst speeds the reaction by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy, without being consumed.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst lowers the activation barrier via a new mechanism but leaves ΔH, K, and the overall stoichiometry unchanged.

Q41For a reaction with rate = k[X][Y]2, what are the units of the rate constant k?

(A) s−1
(B) M−2·s−1
(C) M−1·s−1
(D) M·s−1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The reaction is third order overall, so k has units of M(1−3)·s−1 = M−2·s−1.

⇆ Chemical Equilibrium

Q42For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), Kc = 280 at a certain temperature. What is the equilibrium constant for SO3(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) at the same temperature?

(A) 5.98 × 10−2
(B) 5.60 × 102
(C) 3.57 × 10−3
(D) 16.7
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Reversing the reaction inverts K and halving the coefficients takes the square root: K = (1/280)1/2 = 0.0598.

Q43For N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), a mixture initially contains 0.50 M N2 and 0.80 M H2. At equilibrium, [NH3] = 0.20 M. What is the equilibrium concentration of H2?

(A) 0.20 M
(B) 0.30 M
(C) 0.70 M
(D) 0.50 M
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Forming 0.20 M NH3 consumes (3/2)(0.20) = 0.30 M H2, so [H2]eq = 0.80 − 0.30 = 0.50 M.

Q44For CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g), ΔH° > 0. Which change will increase the amount of CO2 present at equilibrium?

(A) Adding more CaCO3(s)
(B) Raising the temperature
(C) Decreasing the volume of the container
(D) Adding CaO(s)
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The reaction is endothermic, so higher temperature favors products; pure solids do not affect the equilibrium position, and compression favors the side with fewer gas moles.

Q45For 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g), Kc = 170. In a flask, [NO2] = 0.30 M and [N2O4] = 0.50 M. In which direction will the reaction proceed?

(A) Toward reactants (left)
(B) The system is already at equilibrium
(C) Toward products (right)
(D) The value of K will increase until equilibrium is reached
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Qc = 0.50/(0.30)2 = 5.56, which is less than Kc, so the reaction shifts right to reach equilibrium.

Q46The molar solubility of CaF2 in water is 2.0 × 10−4 M. What is the Ksp of CaF2?

(A) 3.2 × 10−11
(B) 8.0 × 10−12
(C) 4.0 × 10−8
(D) 1.6 × 10−11
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

For CaF2(s) ⇌ Ca2+ + 2F−, Ksp = s(2s)2 = 4s3 = 4(2.0 × 10−4)3 = 3.2 × 10−11.

Q47Compared with its solubility in pure water, the solubility of AgCl in 0.10 M NaCl solution will:

(A) increase, because NaCl is a strong electrolyte
(B) remain the same, because Ksp is a constant
(C) increase, due to the higher ionic strength
(D) decrease, because the common Cl− ion shifts the dissolution equilibrium to the left
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The added chloride is a common ion; by Le Châtelier's principle it suppresses the dissolution of AgCl even though Ksp itself is unchanged.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q48What is the pH of 0.10 M HF(aq)? (Ka of HF = 6.8 × 10−4)

(A) 1.00
(B) 2.08
(C) 3.17
(D) 4.15
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

[H+] ≈ (Ka·C)1/2 = (6.8 × 10−5)1/2 = 8.2 × 10−3 M, so pH = −log(8.2 × 10−3) = 2.08.

Q49What is the conjugate base of H2PO4−?

(A) H3PO4
(B) PO43−
(C) HPO42−
(D) H2PO3−
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Removing one proton (H+) from the acid H2PO4− gives its conjugate base, HPO42−.

Q50Which of the following mixtures forms an effective buffer solution?

(A) 0.20 M HCl + 0.20 M NaCl
(B) 0.10 M NH3 + 0.10 M NH4Cl
(C) 0.15 M NaOH + 0.10 M HCl
(D) 0.20 M HNO3 + 0.20 M KNO3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A weak base (NH3) plus its conjugate acid (NH4+) resists pH changes; the other mixtures contain only strong acids/bases and spectator ions.

Q51In the titration of a weak acid HA with the strong base NaOH, the pH at the equivalence point is:

(A) greater than 7
(B) equal to 7
(C) less than 7
(D) equal to the pKa of HA
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

At the equivalence point only the conjugate base A− remains, and its hydrolysis (A− + H2O ⇌ HA + OH−) makes the solution basic.

Q52A buffer is prepared with [CH3COO−]/[CH3COOH] = 10.0. If the pKa of acetic acid is 4.76, what is the pH of the buffer?

(A) 3.76
(B) 4.76
(C) 6.76
(D) 5.76
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

By the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation, pH = pKa + log(10.0) = 4.76 + 1.00 = 5.76.

Q53Given Ka(HF) = 6.8 × 10−4, what is Kb for the fluoride ion, F−?

(A) 6.8 × 10−4
(B) 1.0 × 10−7
(C) 1.5 × 10−11
(D) 6.8 × 10−11
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

For a conjugate pair, Ka·Kb = Kw, so Kb = 1.0 × 10−14 / 6.8 × 10−4 = 1.5 × 10−11.

🔋 Thermodynamics & Electrochemistry

Q54Which reaction has a negative standard entropy change (ΔS° < 0)?

(A) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(B) H2O(l) → H2O(g)
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(D) NaCl(s) → Na+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Four moles of gas combine to form two moles of gas, decreasing disorder; the other reactions increase disorder.

Q55For a reaction with ΔH° = −120 kJ/mol and ΔS° = −150 J/(mol·K), what is ΔG° at 500 K, and is the reaction spontaneous?

(A) −195 kJ/mol; spontaneous
(B) −120 kJ/mol; spontaneous
(C) +45 kJ/mol; nonspontaneous
(D) −45 kJ/mol; spontaneous
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔG° = ΔH° − TΔS° = −120 − (500)(−0.150) = −45 kJ/mol; a negative ΔG° means the reaction is spontaneous.

Q56Given E°(Zn2+/Zn) = −0.76 V and E°(Cu2+/Cu) = +0.34 V, in the galvanic cell Zn(s)|Zn2+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu(s):

(A) the copper electrode is the cathode, where reduction occurs
(B) the zinc electrode is the cathode, where reduction occurs
(C) the copper electrode is the anode, where oxidation occurs
(D) both electrodes serve equally as cathode and anode
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper has the more positive reduction potential, so Cu2+ is reduced at the cathode while Zn is oxidized at the anode.

Q57What is the cell potential for Zn(s)|Zn2+(0.10 M)||Cu2+(2.0 M)|Cu(s) at 25°C? (E°cell = 1.10 V)

(A) 1.06 V
(B) 1.10 V
(C) 1.14 V
(D) 1.18 V
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

By the Nernst equation, E = 1.10 − (0.0592/2)log(0.10/2.0) = 1.10 + 0.039 = 1.14 V.

Q58What mass of copper is deposited when a current of 2.00 A passes through a CuSO4 solution for 30.0 min? (Cu2+ + 2e− → Cu; molar mass Cu = 63.55 g/mol)

(A) 0.594 g
(B) 1.19 g
(C) 2.37 g
(D) 3.56 g
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Charge = (2.00 A)(1800 s) = 3600 C = 0.0373 mol e−; moles Cu = 0.0373/2 = 0.0187 mol, giving (0.0187)(63.55) = 1.19 g.

☢ Nuclear & Descriptive Chemistry

Q59Uranium-238 decays to thorium-234 according to 238U → 234Th + ?. What particle is emitted?

(A) A beta particle
(B) A gamma ray
(C) A positron
(D) An alpha particle
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The mass number decreases by 4 and the atomic number by 2, which identifies the emitted particle as an alpha particle (4He nucleus).

Q60A sample gives a crimson-red color in a flame test. Which element is most likely present?

(A) Sr
(B) Na
(C) K
(D) Cu
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Strontium produces a characteristic crimson-red flame; sodium gives yellow, potassium gives lilac, and copper gives green.