A-Level Chemistry Practice Test 8

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering the full A-Level Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), AS & A2.

Note: These are original practice questions written in A-Level multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real A-Level Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers the full A-Level course: atomic structure, amount of substance, bonding, energetics & thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibria, redox & electrode potentials, acids & buffers, inorganic chemistry, and organic chemistry with spectroscopy.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodicity

Q1A sample of magnesium contains 79.0% of ^24Mg, 10.0% of ^25Mg and 11.0% of ^26Mg. What is the relative atomic mass of magnesium in this sample?

(A) 24.0
(B) 25.0
(C) 24.8
(D) 24.3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ar = (24 × 79.0 + 25 × 10.0 + 26 × 11.0) / 100 = (1896 + 250 + 286) / 100 = 24.32, i.e. 24.3.

Q2The first ionisation energy of aluminium is lower than that of magnesium, even though aluminium has a greater nuclear charge. This is because in aluminium…

(A) the outer electron is removed from a 3p orbital, which is higher in energy than the 3s orbital
(B) there are more electron shells shielding the outer electron
(C) the nuclear charge is actually smaller
(D) the outer electron is paired, and electron−electron repulsion lowers the ionisation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Magnesium loses a 3s electron whereas aluminium loses a 3p electron; the 3p electron is at a higher energy level and slightly further from the nucleus, so it is removed more easily.

Q3How many unpaired electrons are there in a chromium atom? (Cr has the electron configuration [Ar] 3d5 4s1)

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Each of the five 3d orbitals contains one unpaired electron and the 4s orbital contains one more, giving 5 + 1 = 6 unpaired electrons.

Q4Which element shows the largest increase between its first and second ionisation energies?

(A) Magnesium
(B) Sodium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Calcium
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sodium has one outer electron; the second electron must be removed from a full inner shell (n = 2) that is much closer to the nucleus, so the second ionisation energy is very much larger.

Q5In a time-of-flight mass spectrometer, singly charged ions are accelerated and travel along a flight tube. Which ion reaches the detector last?

(A) An ion with m/z = 28
(B) An ion with m/z = 32
(C) An ion with m/z = 40
(D) An ion with m/z = 44
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

All ions are given the same kinetic energy, so the ion with the largest mass (largest m/z) travels most slowly and has the longest flight time.

⚖ Amount of Substance

Q6What amount of gas is present in 480 cm^3 of a gas measured at room temperature and pressure? (Molar volume of a gas at r.t.p. = 24.0 dm^3 mol^-1)

(A) 0.0200 mol
(B) 0.500 mol
(C) 0.00200 mol
(D) 20.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

480 cm^3 = 0.480 dm^3; amount = 0.480 / 24.0 = 0.0200 mol.

Q7A volume of 20.0 cm^3 of 0.125 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution is needed to neutralise 25.0 cm^3 of hydrochloric acid. What is the concentration of the acid?

(A) 0.0800 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.100 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.125 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.156 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles NaOH = 0.125 × 0.0200 = 0.00250 mol = moles HCl; concentration = 0.00250 / 0.0250 = 0.100 mol dm^-3.

Q8What is the percentage by mass of nitrogen in ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3? (Mr of NH4NO3 = 80)

(A) 17.5%
(B) 70.0%
(C) 35.0%
(D) 28.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

NH4NO3 contains two nitrogen atoms: mass of N = 28; percentage = (28 / 80) × 100 = 35.0%.

Q9A gas sample contains 0.500 mol of gas in a volume of 10.0 dm^3 at 300 K. What is the pressure of the gas? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 12.5 kPa
(B) 250 kPa
(C) 62.5 kPa
(D) 125 kPa
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

p = nRT / V = (0.500 × 8.31 × 300) / 0.0100 = 124 650 Pa, which is approximately 125 kPa.

Q10Magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid: Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g). A mixture contains 0.200 mol of Mg and 0.300 mol of HCl. How many moles of hydrogen are formed?

(A) 0.150 mol
(B) 0.200 mol
(C) 0.300 mol
(D) 0.100 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

0.200 mol of Mg would need 0.400 mol of HCl, so HCl is the limiting reagent; moles of H2 = 0.300 / 2 = 0.150 mol.

Q11A solution is made by dissolving 5.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) in water and making the volume up to 500 cm^3. What is the concentration of the solution?

(A) 0.100 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.400 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.0500 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles = 5.85 / 58.5 = 0.100 mol; concentration = 0.100 / 0.500 = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

🔗 Bonding & Structure

Q12What are the shape and H−N−H bond angle in an ammonia molecule, NH3?

(A) Trigonal planar, 120°
(B) Trigonal pyramidal, 107°
(C) Tetrahedral, 109.5°
(D) Bent, 104.5°
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nitrogen has three bonding pairs and one lone pair; the lone pair repels more strongly, compressing the bond angle to 107° in a trigonal pyramidal shape.

Q13Which substance has the highest melting point?

(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Water
(C) Methane
(D) Sodium chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sodium chloride has a giant ionic lattice with strong electrostatic attractions in all directions; the others are simple molecular substances with weak intermolecular forces.

Q14Which ionic compound has the most exothermic lattice enthalpy?

(A) MgO
(B) NaCl
(C) KBr
(D) NaF
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Lattice enthalpy is more exothermic for small ions with high charges; Mg^2+ and O^2- are both small and doubly charged, so MgO has the most exothermic lattice enthalpy.

Q15Which intermolecular forces exist between molecules of iodine, I2?

(A) Hydrogen bonds
(B) Permanent dipole−dipole forces
(C) Van der Waals forces
(D) Ionic attractions
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Iodine molecules are non-polar, so the only attractions between them are temporary (van der Waals / London dispersion) forces.

Q16What is the shape of an SF6 molecule?

(A) Tetrahedral
(B) Octahedral
(C) Square planar
(D) Trigonal bipyramidal
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Sulfur in SF6 has six bonding pairs and no lone pairs, which repel to give an octahedral shape with 90° bond angles.

Q17Ice is less dense than liquid water because…

(A) the covalent bonds in water molecules are longer in ice
(B) air is trapped between the molecules in ice
(C) water molecules contract when they freeze
(D) hydrogen bonding holds the molecules in an open lattice structure
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In ice each water molecule is hydrogen-bonded into an open, tetrahedral lattice with large spaces, so ice has a lower density than liquid water and floats.

🔥 Energetics & Thermodynamics

Q18A student burns 0.500 g of ethanol (Mr = 46.0) and uses the energy released to heat 200 g of water, raising its temperature by 11.0 K. What is the enthalpy of combustion calculated from these results? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1)

(A) −1370 kJ mol^-1
(B) −423 kJ mol^-1
(C) −846 kJ mol^-1
(D) −92 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

q = 200 × 4.18 × 11.0 = 9196 J = 9.20 kJ. Moles of ethanol = 0.500 / 46.0 = 0.0109 mol. ΔH = −9.20 / 0.0109 = −846 kJ mol^-1.

Q19Use mean bond enthalpies to calculate the enthalpy change for N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g). (Bond enthalpies / kJ mol^-1: N≡N = 945, H−H = 436, N−H = 391)

(A) −93 kJ mol^-1
(B) +93 kJ mol^-1
(C) −46.5 kJ mol^-1
(D) −1119 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Bonds broken = 945 + 3(436) = 2253 kJ; bonds formed = 6(391) = 2346 kJ. ΔH = 2253 − 2346 = −93 kJ mol^-1.

Q20Which sample has the greatest entropy?

(A) 1 mol of H2O(s)
(B) 1 mol of H2O(g)
(C) 1 mol of H2O(l)
(D) 1 mol of NaCl(s)
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Gases are far more disordered than liquids or solids, so 1 mol of steam has the greatest entropy.

Q21A reaction has ΔH = +50 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = +200 J K^-1 mol^-1. At which temperatures is the reaction feasible?

(A) Below 250 K
(B) At no temperature
(C) At all temperatures
(D) Above 250 K
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

ΔG = ΔH − TΔS becomes negative when TΔS exceeds ΔH, i.e. when T = 50 000 / 200 = 250 K is exceeded, so the reaction is feasible above 250 K.

Q22Equal volumes (25.0 cm^3) of 2.00 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid and 2.00 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide are mixed in a polystyrene cup. What is the temperature rise? (Enthalpy of neutralisation = −57.0 kJ mol^-1; specific heat capacity of the mixture = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1; density = 1.00 g cm^-3)

(A) 6.9 K
(B) 27.4 K
(C) 13.7 K
(D) 57.0 K
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of water formed = 2.00 × 0.0250 = 0.0500 mol; q = 0.0500 × 57.0 = 2.85 kJ = 2850 J. Mass of mixture = 50.0 g, so ΔT = 2850 / (50.0 × 4.18) = 13.7 K.

Q23Which statement correctly describes the standard enthalpy of combustion of a substance?

(A) The enthalpy change when 1 mol of the substance burns completely in oxygen under standard conditions
(B) The enthalpy change when 1 mol of the substance is formed from its elements under standard conditions
(C) The enthalpy change when 1 mol of gaseous atoms is formed from the substance
(D) The enthalpy change when an acid and an alkali react to form 1 mol of water
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Standard enthalpy of combustion is the enthalpy change when one mole of a substance is completely burned in oxygen under standard conditions (100 kPa, 298 K).

⏱ Kinetics & Rate Equations

Q24In a kinetics experiment, tripling the concentration of reactant A (with all other concentrations constant) increased the initial rate by a factor of 9. What is the order of reaction with respect to A?

(A) Zero
(B) Second
(C) First
(D) Third
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

3^2 = 9, so the rate is proportional to [A]^2 and the reaction is second order with respect to A.

Q25In the Arrhenius equation, k = A e^(-Ea/RT). Which change will decrease the value of the rate constant k?

(A) Increasing the temperature
(B) Increasing the pre-exponential factor A
(C) Decreasing the activation energy
(D) Increasing the activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A larger activation energy means a smaller fraction of molecules have enough energy to react, so k decreases.

Q26A first-order reaction has a rate constant k = 0.0231 s^-1. What is the half-life of the reaction?

(A) 3.0 s
(B) 43 s
(C) 30 s
(D) 0.033 s
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

For a first-order reaction, t(1/2) = ln 2 / k = 0.693 / 0.0231 = 30 s.

Q27For a zero-order reaction, rate = k. What are the units of k?

(A) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(B) s^-1
(C) mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1
(D) It has no units
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

For a zero-order reaction the rate constant has the same units as rate itself, mol dm^-3 s^-1.

Q28A Maxwell−Boltzmann distribution curve is drawn for a gas at a higher temperature. Compared with the original curve, the new curve has…

(A) a higher peak shifted to the left
(B) a lower peak shifted to the right, with the same total area
(C) a larger total area under the curve
(D) the same peak position but a lower activation energy
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

At a higher temperature the distribution flattens and shifts to higher energies; the area stays the same because the number of molecules is unchanged. The activation energy does not change.

⚖ Chemical Equilibria (Kc & Kp)

Q29For the equilibrium P(g) ⇌ 2Q(g), the equilibrium concentrations are [P] = 0.50 mol dm^-3 and [Q] = 1.00 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?

(A) 0.50 mol dm^-3
(B) 1.00 mol dm^-3
(C) 4.00 mol dm^-3
(D) 2.00 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Kc = [Q]^2 / [P] = (1.00)^2 / 0.50 = 2.00 mol dm^-3.

Q30The synthesis of ammonia is exothermic: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g). What is the effect of increasing the temperature on the value of Kc?

(A) Kc increases
(B) Kc does not change
(C) Kc decreases
(D) Kc changes only if a catalyst is present
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Raising the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (reverse) direction, so the equilibrium concentration of NH3 falls and Kc decreases.

Q31An equilibrium mixture at a total pressure of 200 kPa contains ammonia with a mole fraction of 0.40. What is the partial pressure of ammonia in the mixture?

(A) 40 kPa
(B) 80 kPa
(C) 120 kPa
(D) 500 kPa
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Partial pressure = mole fraction × total pressure = 0.40 × 200 = 80 kPa.

Q32The Haber process is operated at about 450 °C and 200 atm with an iron catalyst, even though a lower temperature would give a higher equilibrium yield of ammonia. Why is 450 °C used?

(A) It is a compromise temperature that gives an acceptable yield in a reasonable time
(B) It gives the maximum possible equilibrium yield
(C) The iron catalyst only works at exactly 450 °C
(D) It is the cheapest temperature to maintain
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A lower temperature gives a better yield but an unacceptably slow rate; 450 °C is a compromise between the rate of reaction and the equilibrium yield.

Q33What are the units of Kp for the equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)?

(A) kPa
(B) No units
(C) kPa^2
(D) kPa^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Kp = p(SO3)^2 / [ p(SO2)^2 × p(O2) ]. The top has pressure^2 and the bottom pressure^3, so the units are pressure^-1, i.e. kPa^-1.




🔋 Redox & Electrode Potentials

Q34What is the oxidation state of sulfur in H2SO4?

(A) +6
(B) +4
(C) −2
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

2(+1) + x + 4(−2) = 0, so x = +6.

Q35The standard electrode potentials are: Fe^3+/Fe^2+ = +0.77 V; Br2/Br- = +1.09 V; Cl2/Cl- = +1.36 V; I2/I- = +0.54 V. Which is the strongest oxidising agent?

(A) Fe^3+
(B) Br2
(C) Cl2
(D) I2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The strongest oxidising agent is the species in the half-equation with the most positive electrode potential, which is Cl2 at +1.36 V.

Q36What is the EMF of a cell combining a magnesium electrode with a copper electrode? (E: Mg^2+/Mg = −2.37 V; Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V)

(A) 2.03 V
(B) 2.71 V
(C) −2.71 V
(D) 2.37 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

EMF = +0.34 − (−2.37) = 2.71 V.

Q37Concentrated sodium chloride solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes. What is the gas given off at the cathode?

(A) Sodium vapour
(B) Chlorine
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Sodium is too reactive to be discharged from aqueous solution, so H+ ions are discharged at the cathode to form hydrogen gas.

Q38In which reaction does disproportionation occur?

(A) Cl2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaClO + H2O
(B) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(C) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(D) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Chlorine starts with oxidation state 0 and is simultaneously reduced to −1 (in NaCl) and oxidised to +1 (in NaClO), which is disproportionation.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q39What is the pH of a 0.200 mol dm^-3 solution of hydrochloric acid?

(A) 1.70
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.70
(D) 13.30
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

[H+] = 0.200 mol dm^-3, so pH = −log(0.200) = 0.70.

Q40A 0.0500 mol dm^-3 solution of propanoic acid has Ka = 1.3 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3. What is the pH of the solution?

(A) 1.30
(B) 3.09
(C) 4.89
(D) 2.79
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

[H+] = sqrt(Ka × c) = sqrt(1.3 × 10^-5 × 0.0500) = sqrt(6.5 × 10^-7) = 8.1 × 10^-4 mol dm^-3; pH = −log(8.1 × 10^-4) = 3.09.

Q41A buffer solution contains 0.300 mol dm^-3 ethanoic acid and 0.100 mol dm^-3 sodium ethanoate. Ka for ethanoic acid = 1.8 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3 (pKa = 4.74). What is the pH of the buffer?

(A) 4.74
(B) 5.22
(C) 3.26
(D) 4.26
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

[H+] = Ka × [acid] / [salt] = 1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.300 / 0.100 = 5.4 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3; pH = 4.26 (equivalently, pH = pKa + log([salt]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(1/3) = 4.74 − 0.48).

Q42At 50 °C, Kw = 5.5 × 10^-14 mol^2 dm^-6. What is the pH of neutral water at this temperature?

(A) 6.63
(B) 7.00
(C) 7.37
(D) 6.30
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In neutral water [H+] = sqrt(Kw) = sqrt(5.5 × 10^-14) = 2.3 × 10^-7 mol dm^-3; pH = −log(2.3 × 10^-7) = 6.63. Neutral water has [H+] = [OH-] even though the pH is below 7.

Q43During the titration of a weak acid with sodium hydroxide, the pH at the half-neutralisation point is 5.00. What is the pKa of the weak acid?

(A) 2.50
(B) 10.0
(C) 5.00
(D) 7.00
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the half-neutralisation point [HA] = [A-], so [H+] = Ka and pH = pKa = 5.00.

⚗ Inorganic Chemistry

Q44The hydroxides of the Group 2 elements become more soluble down the group. Which hydroxide is the most soluble?

(A) Mg(OH)2
(B) Ba(OH)2
(C) Ca(OH)2
(D) Be(OH)2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Solubility of Group 2 hydroxides increases down the group (the opposite trend to the sulfates), so Ba(OH)2 is the most soluble.

Q45Chlorine is passed into cold, dilute sodium hydroxide solution. What are the products?

(A) NaCl and H2O only
(B) NaClO3 and H2O
(C) NaCl and NaClO3
(D) NaCl, NaClO and H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cl2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaClO + H2O; the chlorine is disproportionated to chloride and chlorate(I) ions.

Q46Which transition metal ion is colourless in aqueous solution?

(A) Zn^2+
(B) Cu^2+
(C) Fe^3+
(D) Cr^3+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Zn^2+ has a full 3d subshell (3d10), so no d−d electron transitions can occur and its compounds are colourless (white).

Q47Which reagent is used to test for chloride ions in solution?

(A) Barium chloride solution
(B) Limewater
(C) Acidified silver nitrate solution
(D) Sodium hydroxide solution
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ag+ ions give a white precipitate of AgCl with chloride ions; the solution is acidified with dilute nitric acid to remove carbonate ions first.

Q48Aqueous aluminium ions are treated with sodium hydroxide solution until the hydroxide is in excess. What is the final observation?

(A) The white precipitate remains undissolved
(B) The white precipitate dissolves to form a colourless solution
(C) A green precipitate forms
(D) A gas is given off rapidly
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Al(OH)3 is amphoteric; it first precipitates as a white solid and then dissolves in excess NaOH to form the colourless [Al(OH)4]- complex.

🛢 Organic Chemistry I

Q49Decane, C10H22, is cracked. Which pair of products could be formed in this cracking reaction?

(A) C10H20 and H2
(B) Carbon dioxide and water
(C) C5H12 only
(D) C8H18 and C2H4
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Cracking splits a long-chain alkane into a shorter alkane and an alkene: C10H22 → C8H18 + C2H4, and the atoms balance (C: 8 + 2 = 10; H: 18 + 4 = 22).

Q50Bromine is added to ethene at room temperature and the orange colour is discharged. By what mechanism does bromine react with ethene?

(A) Electrophilic addition
(B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Free-radical substitution
(D) Elimination
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The pi electrons in the C=C bond attack the electrophile Br^δ+, forming a carbocation that then reacts with Br-, giving dibromoethane overall by electrophilic addition.

Q51Butan-2-ol is oxidised by warming with acidified potassium dichromate(VI). What is the organic product?

(A) Butanal
(B) Butanoic acid
(C) Butanone
(D) But-2-ene
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Butan-2-ol is a secondary alcohol, so it is oxidised to a ketone, butanone; ketones are not oxidised further by dichromate(VI).

Q52Which halogenoalkane is hydrolysed most rapidly by aqueous sodium hydroxide?

(A) 1-Bromobutane
(B) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
(C) Bromoethane
(D) 1-Bromopropane
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

2-Bromo-2-methylpropane is a tertiary halogenoalkane; it hydrolyses fastest because the tertiary carbocation formed in the SN1 mechanism is stabilised by three alkyl groups.

Q53In the free-radical substitution of methane by chlorine, which step is a propagation step?

(A) Cl2 → 2Cl•
(B) CH3• + CH3• → C2H6
(C) Cl• + Cl• → Cl2
(D) CH3• + Cl2 → CH3Cl + Cl•
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In propagation, a radical reacts with a molecule to give a product and a new radical, so the chain continues; the other steps are initiation (A) and termination (B and C).

Q54Propan-2-ol is heated with concentrated phosphoric acid. What is the main organic product?

(A) Propene
(B) Propane
(C) Propanal
(D) Propanone
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The acid catalyst causes an elimination (dehydration) reaction, removing H2O from the alcohol to form propene.

🔬 Organic Chemistry II & Analysis

Q55Which reagent distinguishes propanal from propanone?

(A) 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
(B) Bromine water
(C) Fehling's solution
(D) Sodium metal
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Propanal is an aldehyde and reduces Fehling's solution to give a brick-red precipitate of Cu2O on warming; propanone, a ketone, does not react. 2,4-DNP reacts with both compounds.

Q56Ethyl ethanoate is heated with dilute hydrochloric acid. What are the organic products of this hydrolysis?

(A) Methanoic acid and ethanol
(B) Ethanoic acid and ethanol
(C) Ethanol and ethanoyl chloride
(D) Ethanoic acid and ethane
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Acid hydrolysis of an ester gives the parent carboxylic acid and alcohol: CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O → CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH.

Q57Phenol is shaken with bromine water. What is observed?

(A) No reaction takes place
(B) The solution stays orange
(C) A single bromine atom is substituted into the ring only if a catalyst is used
(D) The bromine water is decolourised and a white precipitate forms
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The −OH group activates the ring so strongly that bromine substitutes at the 2, 4 and 6 positions without a catalyst, forming white 2,4,6-tribromophenol.

Q58Nylon-6,6 is a polyamide. By what type of polymerisation is it formed?

(A) Condensation polymerisation
(B) Addition polymerisation
(C) Free-radical polymerisation
(D) Cracking
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nylon-6,6 forms when a diamine and a dicarboxylic acid react together with the elimination of water molecules, which is condensation polymerisation.

Q59How many peaks are there in the ^1H NMR spectrum of propanone, CH3COCH3?

(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 6
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

All six hydrogen atoms are in the same chemical environment (two equivalent CH3 groups), so there is only one peak (a singlet).

Q60In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.8 cm from the baseline while the solvent front moves 8.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?

(A) 1.67
(B) 0.48
(C) 0.60
(D) 3.2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent front = 4.8 / 8.0 = 0.60.

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