A-Level Chemistry Practice Test 6

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering the full A-Level Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), AS & A2.

Note: These are original practice questions written in A-Level multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real A-Level Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers the full A-Level course: atomic structure, amount of substance, bonding, energetics & thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibria, redox & electrode potentials, acids & buffers, inorganic chemistry, and organic chemistry with spectroscopy.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodicity

Q1The first two ionisation energies of an element X are 520 kJ mol^-1 and 7300 kJ mol^-1. In which group of the Periodic Table is X?

(A) Group 2
(B) Group 1
(C) Group 13
(D) Group 18
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

There is a very large jump between the first and second ionisation energies, so the second electron is removed from an inner shell; X has only one outer electron and is in Group 1.

Q2A sample of magnesium contains the isotopes ^24Mg (79.0%), ^25Mg (10.0%) and ^26Mg (11.0%). What is the relative atomic mass of magnesium in this sample?

(A) 24.0
(B) 25.0
(C) 24.5
(D) 24.3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ar = (0.790 × 24) + (0.100 × 25) + (0.110 × 26) = 18.96 + 2.50 + 2.86 = 24.3

Q3What is the electronic configuration of a copper atom? (Cu has atomic number 29.)

(A) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10
(B) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^9
(C) [Ar] 4s^0 3d^11
(D) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^10
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Copper is an exception to the usual filling order: the arrangement [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10, with a full 3d subshell, is more stable than [Ar] 4s^2 3d^9.

Q4Which Period 3 element has the highest melting point?

(A) Sodium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Silicon
(D) Sulfur
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Silicon has a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds throughout, giving it a very high melting point; sodium and aluminium are metals and sulfur is a simple molecular solid.

Q5Which statement is the correct definition of the first ionisation energy of an element?

(A) The energy released when one mole of gaseous atoms each gain an electron.
(B) The energy required to remove an electron from each atom in one mole of atoms in the solid state.
(C) The energy required to remove one mole of electrons from one mole of gaseous ions.
(D) The energy required to remove one electron from each atom in one mole of gaseous atoms, forming one mole of gaseous 1+ ions.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

First ionisation energy is defined for gaseous atoms forming gaseous 1+ ions, with one electron removed from each atom.

⚖ Amount of Substance

Q6A gas occupies a volume of 500 cm^3 at a pressure of 100 kPa and a temperature of 300 K. How many moles of gas are present? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 0.0201 mol
(B) 0.200 mol
(C) 2.01 mol
(D) 0.00201 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

n = pV/RT = (100000 × 500 × 10^-6)/(8.31 × 300) = 50.0/2493 = 0.0201 mol

Q7The theoretical yield of an ester preparation is 7.00 g, but the actual yield obtained is 4.55 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 45.0%
(B) 154%
(C) 65.0%
(D) 35.0%
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Percentage yield = (4.55/7.00) × 100 = 65.0%

Q8What volume of 0.150 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution is needed to neutralise 25.0 cm^3 of 0.100 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid?

(A) 25.0 cm^3
(B) 16.7 cm^3
(C) 37.5 cm^3
(D) 375 cm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Moles of HCl = 0.0250 × 0.100 = 2.50 × 10^-3; NaOH reacts 1:1 with HCl, so volume = 2.50 × 10^-3/0.150 = 0.0167 dm^3 = 16.7 cm^3

Q9Magnesium reacts with sulfuric acid: Mg + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + H2. Magnesium sulfate is the required product. What is the atom economy of this reaction? (Mr: Mg = 24.0, H2SO4 = 98.0, MgSO4 = 120.0)

(A) 24.6%
(B) 75.4%
(C) 80.3%
(D) 98.4%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Atom economy = 120.0/(24.0 + 98.0) × 100 = 120.0/122.0 × 100 = 98.4%

Q10A compound contains 52.2% carbon, 13.0% hydrogen and 34.8% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?

(A) C2H6O
(B) CH3O
(C) C2H6O2
(D) C3H8O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Moles: C = 52.2/12.0 = 4.35; H = 13.0/1.00 = 13.0; O = 34.8/16.0 = 2.18; dividing by 2.18 gives the ratio 2 : 6 : 1, so the empirical formula is C2H6O.

Q11A standard solution is prepared by dissolving 1.06 g of sodium carbonate (Mr = 106) in water and making the volume up to 250 cm^3. What is its concentration?

(A) 0.0100 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.00400 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.0400 mol dm^-3
(D) 4.00 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of Na2CO3 = 1.06/106 = 0.0100; concentration = 0.0100/0.250 = 0.0400 mol dm^-3

🔗 Bonding & Structure

Q12What is the shape of a boron trifluoride molecule and its bond angle?

(A) Tetrahedral, 109.5°
(B) Trigonal planar, 120°
(C) Trigonal pyramidal, 107°
(D) Linear, 180°
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

BF3 has three bonding pairs and no lone pair on the boron atom, so the electron pairs spread out in a trigonal planar arrangement with bond angles of 120°.

Q13Which species contains a coordinate (dative covalent) bond?

(A) CH4
(B) H2O
(C) CO2
(D) NH4^+
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In NH4^+, the lone pair on the nitrogen atom of NH3 is donated to an H^+ ion, forming a coordinate bond; once formed it is identical to the other N-H bonds.

Q14Which compound has the most exothermic lattice enthalpy?

(A) LiF
(B) NaCl
(C) KBr
(D) NaF
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Li^+ and F^- are the smallest pair of ions here, so the electrostatic attractions in the lattice are the strongest and the lattice enthalpy is the most exothermic.

Q15Which bond is the most polar?

(A) H-H
(B) C-H
(C) H-F
(D) C-Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fluorine is the most electronegative element, so the difference in electronegativity between H and F is the largest of these, making the H-F bond the most polar.

Q16Diamond has a very high melting point. What is the main reason for this?

(A) Diamond contains strong ionic bonds.
(B) Each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds in a giant structure, so a very large amount of energy is needed to break the bonds.
(C) There are strong van der Waals forces between the carbon atoms.
(D) Diamond contains delocalised electrons that hold the atoms together.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Melting diamond requires breaking many strong covalent bonds in the giant lattice, which takes a great deal of energy.

Q17Bromine is a liquid at room temperature but chlorine is a gas. What is the main reason for this difference?

(A) The Br-Br covalent bond is stronger than the Cl-Cl bond.
(B) Bromine molecules form hydrogen bonds but chlorine molecules do not.
(C) Bromine atoms have more protons than chlorine atoms.
(D) Bromine molecules have more electrons, so the van der Waals forces between them are stronger.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The larger number of electrons in Br2 gives stronger instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces, so more energy is needed to separate the molecules; the covalent bonds are not broken on boiling.

🔥 Energetics & Thermodynamics

Q18Use these enthalpies of combustion (kJ mol^-1): C(s) = −394; H2(g) = −286; CH4(g) = −891. What is the enthalpy of formation of methane?

(A) −75 kJ mol^-1
(B) +75 kJ mol^-1
(C) −1857 kJ mol^-1
(D) +1857 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

ΔHf = ΔHc(C) + 2ΔHc(H2) − ΔHc(CH4) = −394 + 2(−286) − (−891) = −966 + 891 = −75 kJ mol^-1

Q19Burning 0.100 mol of a fuel raises the temperature of 100 g of water by 20.0 K. What is the enthalpy change of combustion of the fuel? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1)

(A) −8.36 kJ mol^-1
(B) −41.8 kJ mol^-1
(C) −83.6 kJ mol^-1
(D) −836 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.18 × 20.0 = 8360 J = 8.36 kJ; ΔH = −8.36/0.100 = −83.6 kJ mol^-1

Q20A reaction has ΔH = −200 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = −100 J K^-1 mol^-1. What is ΔG for this reaction at 400 K?

(A) −240 kJ mol^-1
(B) −160 kJ mol^-1
(C) −200 kJ mol^-1
(D) +160 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = −200 − 400 × (−0.100) = −200 + 40 = −160 kJ mol^-1

Q21Which process is accompanied by a decrease in entropy?

(A) Boiling of water
(B) Dissolving ammonium nitrate in water
(C) Sublimation of iodine
(D) Freezing of water
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

When water freezes, the particles become arranged in an ordered solid lattice, so the disorder (entropy) decreases.

Q22Use these bond enthalpies (kJ mol^-1): N≡N = 945; H-H = 436; N-H = 391. What is the enthalpy change for the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)?

(A) −93 kJ mol^-1
(B) +93 kJ mol^-1
(C) −46 kJ mol^-1
(D) −2346 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Energy absorbed breaking bonds = 945 + 3(436) = 2253; energy released forming bonds = 6 × 391 = 2346; ΔH = 2253 − 2346 = −93 kJ mol^-1

Q23Which equation represents the standard enthalpy of formation of water?

(A) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
(B) H^+(aq) + OH^-(aq) → H2O(l)
(C) H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(l)
(D) H2(g) + O(g) → H2O(l)
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The enthalpy of formation is for making one mole of the compound from its elements in their standard states, which is H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(l).

⏱ Kinetics & Rate Equations

Q24A first-order reaction has a half-life of 20 s. How long will it take for the concentration of the reactant to fall to one eighth of its original value?

(A) 40 s
(B) 60 s
(C) 80 s
(D) 160 s
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Falling to 1/8 takes three half-lives (1 → 1/2 → 1/4 → 1/8), so the time taken is 3 × 20 = 60 s.

Q25In a reaction between X and Y, doubling the concentration of X has no effect on the rate, but doubling the concentration of Y doubles the rate. What is the rate equation?

(A) rate = k[X][Y]
(B) rate = k[X]^2[Y]
(C) rate = k[Y]^2
(D) rate = k[Y]
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The reaction is zero order with respect to X and first order with respect to Y, so rate = k[Y].

Q26In the Arrhenius equation k = Ae^(-Ea/RT), the term e^(-Ea/RT) represents…

(A) the fraction of colliding particles that have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy
(B) the total number of collisions per second between the particles
(C) the fraction of particles that are in the gas phase
(D) the probability that a collision has the correct orientation
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The exponential term gives the fraction of particles with energy at least equal to Ea; the pre-exponential factor A covers the collision frequency and orientation.

Q27A reaction is first order with respect to A. When [A] = 0.200 mol dm^-3, the rate is 4.00 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3 s^-1. What is the rate constant, k?

(A) 8.00 × 10^-4 s^-1
(B) 0.800 s^-1
(C) 0.0200 s^-1
(D) 50.0 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

k = rate/[A] = 4.00 × 10^-3/0.200 = 0.0200 s^-1

Q28A catalyst is added to a reacting mixture. Which statement best explains the increase in the rate of reaction?

(A) The catalyst increases the frequency of collisions between the particles.
(B) The catalyst provides an alternative route with a lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of collisions are successful.
(C) The catalyst increases the average kinetic energy of the particles.
(D) The catalyst increases the activation energy so that the particles react more vigorously.
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy; it does not change the energy of the particles or the overall enthalpy change.

⚖ Chemical Equilibria (Kc & Kp)

Q29For the equilibrium 2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g), the initial concentration of HI is 1.00 mol dm^-3. At equilibrium the concentration of HI is 0.80 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?

(A) 0.0625
(B) 0.156
(C) 1.56
(D) 0.0156
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

0.20 mol dm^-3 of HI reacts, forming 0.10 mol dm^-3 each of H2 and I2; Kc = [H2][I2]/[HI]^2 = (0.10 × 0.10)/(0.80)^2 = 0.0100/0.64 = 0.0156 (no units, as there are equal numbers of moles on each side).

Q30For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), what are the units of Kp?

(A) kPa
(B) No units
(C) kPa^-1
(D) kPa^2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Kp = p(NO2)^2/p(N2O4), so the units are kPa^2/kPa = kPa.

Q31For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g), ΔH = −197 kJ mol^-1. What happens to the equilibrium yield of SO3 and to the value of Kc when the temperature is increased?

(A) The yield increases and Kc increases.
(B) The yield increases and Kc is unchanged.
(C) The yield decreases and Kc decreases.
(D) The yield decreases and Kc increases.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Raising the temperature favours the endothermic (reverse) reaction, so the yield of SO3 falls; Kc also decreases, because equilibrium constants for exothermic reactions become smaller as the temperature rises.

Q32Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in a reversible reaction: CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O. Which expression is correct for Kc?

(A) Kc = [CH3COOH][C2H5OH]/([CH3COOC2H5][H2O])
(B) Kc = [CH3COOC2H5][H2O]/([CH3COOH][C2H5OH])
(C) Kc = [CH3COOC2H5]/([CH3COOH][C2H5OH])
(D) Kc = [CH3COOH]/([CH3COOC2H5][H2O])
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Kc is the concentrations of the products (ester and water) divided by the concentrations of the reactants (acid and alcohol), each raised to its stoichiometric power.

Q33For the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), the equilibrium partial pressures are HI = 80 kPa, H2 = 10 kPa and I2 = 10 kPa. What is the value of Kp?

(A) 0.64
(B) 6.4
(C) 640
(D) 64
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Kp = p(HI)^2/(p(H2) × p(I2)) = 80^2/(10 × 10) = 6400/100 = 64 (no units, as there are equal numbers of moles of gas on each side).




🔋 Redox & Electrode Potentials

Q34What is the oxidation state of sulfur in sulfuric acid, H2SO4?

(A) +6
(B) +4
(C) −2
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

2(+1) + x + 4(−2) = 0, so x = +6.

Q35Standard electrode potentials: Zn^2+/Zn = −0.76 V; Fe^2+/Fe = −0.44 V; Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V; Ag^+/Ag = +0.80 V. Which metal is the strongest reducing agent?

(A) Cu
(B) Ag
(C) Zn
(D) Fe
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The metal with the most negative electrode potential loses electrons most readily, so zinc is the strongest reducing agent.

Q36What is the EMF of a cell combining Mg^2+(aq)/Mg(s), E° = −2.37 V, with Cu^2+(aq)/Cu(s), E° = +0.34 V?

(A) +2.03 V
(B) +2.71 V
(C) −2.71 V
(D) +1.37 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

EMF = 0.34 − (−2.37) = +2.71 V

Q37Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis (Al^3+ + 3e^- → Al). What quantity of electricity is needed to produce 0.0100 mol of aluminium? (F = 96500 C mol^-1)

(A) 965 C
(B) 96500 C
(C) 290 C
(D) 2895 C
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Each Al^3+ ion needs three electrons, so moles of electrons = 3 × 0.0100 = 0.0300; Q = 0.0300 × 96500 = 2895 C.

Q38Which statement about a hydrogen fuel cell is correct?

(A) The overall reaction is 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O.
(B) The cell must be recharged from the mains when it runs down.
(C) Water is split into hydrogen and oxygen inside the cell.
(D) Carbon dioxide is one of the products.
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a hydrogen fuel cell, hydrogen and oxygen react to form water only, generating an electric current; the cell keeps working for as long as fuel is supplied.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q39A solution is made by mixing 25.0 cm^3 of 0.100 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid with 25.0 cm^3 of 0.0500 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide. What is the pH of the mixture?

(A) 1.00
(B) 2.00
(C) 1.60
(D) 1.30
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of H^+ = 2.50 × 10^-3 and moles of OH^- = 1.25 × 10^-3, so excess H^+ = 1.25 × 10^-3 mol in 50.0 cm^3; [H^+] = 0.0250 mol dm^-3 and pH = −log(0.0250) = 1.60

Q40The Ka of an acid is 3.2 × 10^-4 mol dm^-3. What is the pKa of this acid?

(A) 4.49
(B) 3.49
(C) 3.20
(D) −3.49
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

pKa = −log(3.2 × 10^-4) = 3.49

Q41A buffer solution is made from ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate. Why does its pH change only slightly when a small amount of alkali is added?

(A) The OH^- ions react with the ethanoate ions in the buffer.
(B) The OH^- ions are diluted by the buffer solution.
(C) The salt in the buffer neutralises the ethanoic acid.
(D) The OH^- ions react with ethanoic acid molecules to form ethanoate ions and water, so very few OH^- ions remain free.
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Added OH^- is removed by reaction with the large reserve of undissociated acid: CH3COOH + OH^- → CH3COO^- + H2O, so the pH barely changes.

Q42A solution has a pH of 2.50. What is the concentration of hydrogen ions in this solution?

(A) 3.16 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3
(B) 2.50 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3
(C) 3.16 × 10^-2 mol dm^-3
(D) 1.00 × 10^-2 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

[H^+] = 10^-pH = 10^-2.50 = 3.16 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3

Q43Which indicator is the most suitable for the titration of a weak acid, such as ethanoic acid, with a strong base, such as sodium hydroxide?

(A) Methyl orange
(B) Litmus
(C) Phenolphthalein
(D) Universal indicator
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The equivalence point of a weak acid-strong base titration lies above pH 7 because the conjugate base hydrolyses, so an indicator that changes colour in alkaline solution, such as phenolphthalein, must be used.

⚗ Inorganic Chemistry

Q44Which Group 2 hydroxide is the most soluble in water?

(A) Mg(OH)2
(B) Ba(OH)2
(C) Ca(OH)2
(D) Be(OH)2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The solubility of the Group 2 hydroxides increases down the group, so barium hydroxide is the most soluble; the sulfates show the opposite trend.

Q45A solution of a halide gives a cream precipitate when acidified silver nitrate solution is added. Which halide ion is present?

(A) Chloride
(B) Fluoride
(C) Iodide
(D) Bromide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Silver bromide is a cream precipitate; silver chloride is white, silver iodide is yellow, and silver fluoride is soluble so no precipitate forms with fluoride.

Q46In the Contact process, vanadium(V) oxide catalyses the oxidation of sulfur dioxide. In the first step, the V2O5 is reduced to an oxide of vanadium in which vanadium has oxidation state +4. What is this oxide?

(A) VO2
(B) V2O3
(C) VO
(D) V2O5
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Vanadium is in oxidation state +5 in V2O5; it is reduced by SO2 to VO2 (vanadium +4) and is then re-oxidised by oxygen back to V2O5.

Q47Excess concentrated ammonia solution is added to a pale blue solution containing Cu^2+ ions. What is observed?

(A) A green precipitate remains undissolved.
(B) A white precipitate forms.
(C) A deep blue solution forms.
(D) The solution becomes colourless.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The initial pale blue precipitate of Cu(OH)2 redissolves in excess ammonia to form the deep blue complex ion [Cu(NH3)4(H2O)2]^2+.

Q48What are the products when chlorine is passed into hot, concentrated sodium hydroxide solution?

(A) NaCl and NaClO
(B) NaCl and NaClO3
(C) NaClO and H2O only
(D) NaClO3 and H2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

3Cl2 + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O; with hot concentrated alkali, chlorine disproportionates to chloride ions and chlorate(V) ions.

🛢 Organic Chemistry I

Q49Bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide. What is the main organic product?

(A) Ethene
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethanal
(D) Ethanol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The hydroxide ion is a nucleophile and substitutes the bromine atom, giving ethanol by nucleophilic substitution.

Q50Propene is reacted with concentrated sulfuric acid, and the product is then warmed with water. What is the final organic product?

(A) Propan-2-ol
(B) Propan-1-ol
(C) Propanone
(D) Propane
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Electrophilic addition of sulfuric acid follows Markovnikov's rule, placing the sulfate group on the middle carbon, and hydrolysis of the intermediate gives propan-2-ol.

Q51Decane, C10H22, is cracked to form ethene and one other hydrocarbon product. What is the other product?

(A) C8H16
(B) C8H20
(C) C8H18
(D) C6H12
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

C10H22 → C2H4 + C8H18; the atoms balance (C: 2 + 8 = 10; H: 4 + 18 = 22), and the other product is the alkane octane.

Q52Which alcohol is oxidised to a ketone by acidified potassium dichromate(VI)?

(A) Propan-1-ol
(B) Propan-2-ol
(C) Methanol
(D) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Secondary alcohols are oxidised to ketones; propan-1-ol gives a carboxylic acid under reflux, and the tertiary alcohol 2-methylpropan-2-ol resists oxidation.

Q53Ethene is manufactured by passing ethanol vapour over a heated catalyst. What is the catalyst?

(A) Iron
(B) Vanadium(V) oxide
(C) Nickel
(D) Aluminium oxide
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Heated aluminium oxide dehydrates ethanol to ethene (concentrated sulfuric acid at 170°C can also be used).

Q54Which species acts as a nucleophile?

(A) OH^-
(B) H^+
(C) NO2^+
(D) Br^+
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A nucleophile is an electron pair donor; OH^- has lone pairs that it can donate to form a new covalent bond, whereas H^+, NO2^+ and Br^+ are electron pair acceptors (electrophiles).

🔬 Organic Chemistry II & Analysis

Q55Propanal is tested with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine solution. What is observed?

(A) A silver mirror forms.
(B) A brick-red precipitate forms on heating.
(C) An orange precipitate forms.
(D) The solution turns from orange to green.
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine reacts with carbonyl compounds (aldehydes and ketones) to form an orange or yellow crystalline precipitate, which can be used to identify the carbonyl compound from its melting point.

Q56Proteins are hydrolysed by heating with aqueous sodium hydroxide. What are the products?

(A) Esters and water
(B) The sodium salts of the amino acids
(C) Alkenes and ammonia
(D) Amines and carbon dioxide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Alkaline hydrolysis breaks the peptide links in the protein, giving the amino acids as their carboxylate (sodium) salts.

Q57In the Friedel-Crafts methylation of benzene, using chloromethane and an aluminium chloride catalyst, what is the electrophile?

(A) CH3Cl
(B) CH3^-
(C) AlCl3
(D) CH3^+
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

AlCl3 accepts a chloride ion from CH3Cl, generating the carbocation CH3^+, which is the electrophile that attacks the benzene ring.

Q58The infrared spectrum of a compound shows a very broad absorption between 2500 and 3300 cm^-1 and a strong absorption at about 1720 cm^-1. Which compound is it most likely to be?

(A) Propanoic acid
(B) Propan-1-ol
(C) Propanal
(D) Propane
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The very broad 2500-3300 cm^-1 absorption is the O-H bond of a carboxylic acid and the peak near 1720 cm^-1 is its C=O bond; an alcohol shows a broad O-H peak at 3200-3600 cm^-1 but has no C=O peak.

Q59In a paper chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.5 cm from the baseline while the solvent front moves 9.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.50
(D) 4.5
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rf = distance moved by the spot/distance moved by the solvent front = 4.5/9.0 = 0.50

Q60Which polymer is formed by condensation polymerisation?

(A) Poly(ethene)
(B) Nylon-6,6
(C) Poly(chloroethene)
(D) Poly(propene)
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nylon-6,6 is a polyamide formed when monomers join together with the loss of small molecules; the others are addition polymers formed from alkene monomers with no by-product.

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