A-Level Chemistry Practice Test 20

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering the full A-Level Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), AS & A2.

Note: These are original practice questions written in A-Level multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real A-Level Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers the full A-Level course: atomic structure, amount of substance, bonding, energetics & thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibria, redox & electrode potentials, acids & buffers, inorganic chemistry, and organic chemistry with spectroscopy.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodicity

Q1Boron has two isotopes, 10B with an abundance of 20% and 11B with an abundance of 80%. What is the relative atomic mass of boron?

(A) 10.5
(B) 10.2
(C) 10.8
(D) 11.0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ar = (10 × 0.20) + (11 × 0.80) = 2.0 + 8.8 = 10.8.

Q2The successive ionisation energies of an element show a very large increase between the third and fourth ionisation energies. In which group of the Periodic Table is the element?

(A) Group 1
(B) Group 2
(C) Group 14
(D) Group 13
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The first three electrons are removed from the outer shell relatively easily. The fourth electron comes from an inner shell, much closer to the nucleus, so its ionisation energy is far larger. The element has three outer-shell electrons, so it is in Group 13.

Q3What is the electronic configuration of an Fe^2+ ion? (Fe has atomic number 26)

(A) [Ar] 3d^6
(B) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^4
(C) [Ar] 3d^4
(D) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

A neutral Fe atom is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. When Fe^2+ forms, the two 4s electrons are lost first, leaving [Ar] 3d^6.

Q4Which oxide is amphoteric?

(A) Na2O
(B) Al2O3
(C) SO2
(D) MgO
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is amphoteric. Na2O and MgO are basic oxides and SO2 is an acidic oxide.

Q5The first ionisation energy of magnesium is greater than that of sodium. This is mainly because, in magnesium…

(A) there is one more electron shell
(B) the atoms are larger
(C) the electron is removed from a different subshell
(D) the nuclear charge is greater and the atomic radius is smaller, while shielding is similar
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Mg has one more proton than Na, the electrons are in the same shell so shielding is almost the same, and the Mg atom is smaller. The outer electron is therefore attracted more strongly.

⚖ Amount of Substance

Q6How many molecules are there in 0.500 mol of a substance? (Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)

(A) 3.01 × 10^23
(B) 6.02 × 10^23
(C) 1.20 × 10^24
(D) 3.01 × 10^22
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Number of molecules = 0.500 × 6.02 × 10^23 = 3.01 × 10^23.

Q7A 2.00 g sample of a gas occupies a volume of 1.24 dm^3 at a pressure of 100 kPa and a temperature of 300 K. What is the relative molecular mass of the gas? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 20
(B) 32
(C) 40
(D) 44
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

n = pV/RT = (100000 × 1.24 × 10^-3) / (8.31 × 300) = 124 / 2493 = 0.0497 mol. Mr = mass/moles = 2.00 / 0.0497 = 40.2, approximately 40.

Q8A 25.0 cm^3 sample of sulfuric acid was exactly neutralised by 25.0 cm^3 of 0.200 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution. What is the concentration of the sulfuric acid?

(A) 0.0500 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.100 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.400 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

moles of NaOH = 0.200 × 0.0250 = 0.00500 mol. H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O, so moles of H2SO4 = 0.00250 mol. Concentration = 0.00250 / 0.0250 = 0.100 mol dm^-3.

Q9The theoretical yield of a reaction is 5.00 g and the actual yield obtained is 4.60 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 8.0%
(B) 46%
(C) 109%
(D) 92%
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Percentage yield = (4.60 / 5.00) × 100 = 92%.

Q10A 25.0 cm^3 portion of a 2.00 mol dm^-3 solution is diluted with water to a total volume of 250 cm^3. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?

(A) 0.200 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.0200 mol dm^-3
(C) 2.00 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.500 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The number of moles does not change on dilution: new concentration = 2.00 × (25.0 / 250) = 0.200 mol dm^-3.

Q11Hydrated copper(II) sulfate has the formula CuSO4.xH2O. When 2.87 g of the hydrated crystals were heated to constant mass, 1.84 g of anhydrous copper(II) sulfate remained. What is the value of x? (Mr: CuSO4 = 159.5, H2O = 18)

(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 10
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Mass of water lost = 2.87 − 1.84 = 1.03 g, which is 1.03/18 = 0.0572 mol. Moles of CuSO4 = 1.84/159.5 = 0.0115 mol. Ratio = 0.0572/0.0115 = 4.96, so x = 5.

🔗 Bonding & Structure

Q12What is the shape of a BF3 molecule?

(A) tetrahedral
(B) pyramidal
(C) T-shaped
(D) trigonal planar
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Boron in BF3 has three bonding pairs of electrons and no lone pairs. The bonding pairs repel each other equally, giving a trigonal planar shape with bond angles of 120°.

Q13Which ion or molecule contains a coordinate (dative covalent) bond?

(A) CH4
(B) HCl
(C) NH4^+
(D) O2
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In the ammonium ion, the lone pair on the nitrogen atom of NH3 is donated to an H^+ ion, forming a coordinate bond in which both shared electrons come from nitrogen.

Q14The lattice enthalpy of magnesium oxide is much more exothermic than the lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride. This is because…

(A) the Mg^2+ and O^2- ions have higher charges and smaller radii than Na^+ and Cl^-, so the attractions between them are stronger
(B) magnesium oxide contains covalent bonds
(C) sodium chloride does not form a lattice
(D) magnesium is more reactive than sodium
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Lattice enthalpy depends on the charges and sizes of the ions. The 2+ and 2− ions in MgO are also smaller, so the electrostatic attractions in the lattice are much stronger than in NaCl.

Q15Which substance has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?

(A) CH4
(B) NH3
(C) H2S
(D) SiH4
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In NH3 the hydrogen atoms are bonded to the very electronegative nitrogen atom, so hydrogen bonds form between the H of one molecule and the lone pair on N of another.

Q16Magnesium has a higher melting point and is stronger than sodium. This is because, in magnesium…

(A) the atoms are larger
(B) there are fewer delocalised electrons
(C) the bonding is covalent
(D) each atom releases two delocalised electrons and the Mg^2+ ions have a higher charge, so the metallic bonding is stronger
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In Mg the metallic bonding is stronger than in Na because there are twice as many delocalised electrons per atom and the positive ions carry a 2+ charge and are smaller, giving stronger attraction.

Q17The H-O-H bond angle in a water molecule is 104.5°. This is because…

(A) oxygen has only bonding pairs of electrons
(B) the hydrogen atoms attract each other
(C) the two lone pairs on oxygen repel more strongly than the bonding pairs, pushing the O-H bonds closer together
(D) water molecules form hydrogen bonds with each other
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Water has two bonding pairs and two lone pairs. Lone pair-lone pair repulsion is strongest, so the bonding pairs are pushed together, reducing the angle from 109.5° to 104.5°.

🔥 Energetics & Thermodynamics

Q18When 0.460 g of ethanol was burned completely, the heat released raised the temperature of 100 g of water by 20.0 K. What is the enthalpy of combustion of ethanol calculated from this experiment? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1; Mr of ethanol = 46)

(A) −836 kJ mol^-1
(B) −418 kJ mol^-1
(C) −83.6 kJ mol^-1
(D) −1672 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.18 × 20.0 = 8360 J. Moles of ethanol = 0.460/46 = 0.0100 mol. ΔHc = −8360 / 0.0100 = −836000 J mol^-1 = −836 kJ mol^-1.

Q19Using mean bond enthalpies C-H = 413, O=O = 498, C=O = 805 and O-H = 464 kJ mol^-1, calculate ΔH for the combustion of methane: CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g).

(A) −409 kJ mol^-1
(B) −590 kJ mol^-1
(C) −1236 kJ mol^-1
(D) −818 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bonds broken = 4(C-H) + 2(O=O) = (4 × 413) + (2 × 498) = 1652 + 996 = 2648 kJ mol^-1. Bonds formed = 2(C=O) + 4(O-H) = (2 × 805) + (4 × 464) = 1610 + 1856 = 3466 kJ mol^-1. ΔH = 2648 − 3466 = −818 kJ mol^-1.

Q20For a certain reaction, the total entropy of the reactants is 200 J K^-1 mol^-1 and the total entropy of the products is 350 J K^-1 mol^-1. What is the entropy change of the system, ΔS?

(A) −150 J K^-1 mol^-1
(B) +150 J K^-1 mol^-1
(C) +550 J K^-1 mol^-1
(D) −550 J K^-1 mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

ΔS = S(products) − S(reactants) = 350 − 200 = +150 J K^-1 mol^-1.

Q21A reaction has ΔH = +120 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = +300 J K^-1 mol^-1. Above what temperature does this reaction become feasible?

(A) 0.40 K
(B) 40 K
(C) 400 K
(D) 4000 K
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The reaction becomes feasible when ΔG = 0, so T = ΔH/ΔS = 120000 / 300 = 400 K. Above 400 K, ΔG is negative.

Q22Enthalpies of combustion are: C = −394 kJ mol^-1 and CO = −283 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide?

(A) −111 kJ mol^-1
(B) −677 kJ mol^-1
(C) +111 kJ mol^-1
(D) −283 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

For C + 0.5O2 → CO, a Hess cycle using the combustion enthalpies gives ΔHf(CO) = ΔHc(C) − ΔHc(CO) = (−394) − (−283) = −111 kJ mol^-1.

Q23For sodium chloride, the enthalpy of formation is −411 kJ mol^-1. Other data: enthalpy of atomisation of Na = +108, first ionisation energy of Na = +500, enthalpy of atomisation of Cl = +121 and electron affinity of Cl = −364 kJ mol^-1. What is the lattice enthalpy of sodium chloride?

(A) −46 kJ mol^-1
(B) −365 kJ mol^-1
(C) −650 kJ mol^-1
(D) −776 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

From the Born-Haber cycle: lattice enthalpy = ΔHf − (atomisation + ionisation + atomisation + electron affinity) = −411 − (108 + 500 + 121 − 364) = −411 − 365 = −776 kJ mol^-1.

⏱ Kinetics & Rate Equations

Q24In rate experiments, doubling the concentration of A increases the rate by a factor of 4, while doubling the concentration of B doubles the rate. What is the rate equation for the reaction?

(A) rate = k[A][B]
(B) rate = k[A]^2[B]
(C) rate = k[A][B]^2
(D) rate = k[A]^2[B]^2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Doubling [A] multiplies the rate by 4 = 2^2, so the reaction is second order in A. Doubling [B] doubles the rate, so it is first order in B. Rate = k[A]^2[B].

Q25For a reaction with rate = k[A]^2[B], the rate is 2.0 × 10^-4 mol dm^-3 s^-1 when [A] = 0.10 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.10 mol dm^-3. What is the value of the rate constant, k?

(A) 0.020 mol^-2 dm^6 s^-1
(B) 2.0 mol^-2 dm^6 s^-1
(C) 0.20 mol^-2 dm^6 s^-1
(D) 20 mol^-2 dm^6 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

k = rate / ([A]^2[B]) = (2.0 × 10^-4) / (0.10^2 × 0.10) = (2.0 × 10^-4) / (1.0 × 10^-3) = 0.20 mol^-2 dm^6 s^-1.

Q26In the Arrhenius equation k = Ae^(-Ea/RT), the term e^(-Ea/RT) represents…

(A) the fraction of collisions that have energy greater than or equal to the activation energy
(B) the total frequency of collisions between molecules
(C) the activation energy of the reaction
(D) the rate constant itself
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The exponential term gives the proportion of molecules (collisions) with enough energy to react. The term A is the frequency factor and represents the collision frequency and orientation.

Q27A catalyst is added to a reaction mixture at constant temperature. On a Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution of molecular energies, the effect of the catalyst is that…

(A) fewer molecules have high energies
(B) the total area under the curve doubles
(C) the activation energy increases
(D) the activation energy is lowered, so a greater proportion of molecules have sufficient energy to react
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst provides an alternative route with a lower activation energy. The distribution itself is unchanged, but more molecules now have energy greater than the lowered activation energy.

Q28What are the units of the rate constant, k, for a first-order reaction?

(A) mol dm^-3 s^-1
(B) s^-1
(C) mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1
(D) mol^-2 dm^6 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For a first-order reaction, rate = k[A], so k = rate/[A] = (mol dm^-3 s^-1)/(mol dm^-3) = s^-1.

⚖ Chemical Equilibria (Kc & Kp)

Q29Ethanoic acid and ethanol react reversibly: CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O. A mixture initially containing 1.00 mol of the acid and 1.00 mol of ethanol reaches equilibrium when 0.33 mol of the acid remains. What is the value of Kc for this reaction?

(A) 0.24
(B) 2.03
(C) 4.12
(D) 0.49
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Acid reacted = 1.00 − 0.33 = 0.67 mol, so at equilibrium: acid = 0.33, ethanol = 0.33, ester = 0.67, water = 0.67 mol. All are in the same volume, so Kc = (0.67 × 0.67) / (0.33 × 0.33) = 4.12 (no units, as there are equal numbers of moles on each side).

Q30For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), what are the units of Kp?

(A) kPa^-1
(B) no units
(C) kPa^-2
(D) kPa
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Kp = (pNO2)^2 / (pN2O4). There is one more mole of gas on the right than on the left, so the units are (kPa^2)/(kPa) = kPa.

Q31An equilibrium has an exothermic forward reaction. What happens to the value of Kc when the temperature is increased?

(A) Kc decreases
(B) Kc increases
(C) Kc does not change
(D) Kc becomes zero
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Raising the temperature shifts the position of equilibrium in the endothermic (reverse) direction, so the concentration of products falls relative to reactants and Kc decreases. Kc changes only when temperature changes.

Q32When concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to a pink solution of aqueous cobalt(II) ions, the solution turns blue. This is because…

(A) the cobalt is oxidised to cobalt(III)
(B) chloride ions replace water ligands, forming the blue [CoCl4]^2- complex
(C) the water is removed by the acid
(D) cobalt(II) chloride precipitates out of solution
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The equilibrium [Co(H2O)6]^2+ + 4Cl^- ⇌ [CoCl4]^2- + 6H2O shifts to the right as the chloride ion concentration increases, replacing the pink octahedral aqua complex with the blue tetrahedral chloro complex.

Q33In an equilibrium mixture at a total pressure of 300 kPa, the mole fraction of ammonia is 0.20. What is the partial pressure of ammonia in the mixture?

(A) 15 kPa
(B) 30 kPa
(C) 60 kPa
(D) 150 kPa
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Partial pressure = mole fraction × total pressure = 0.20 × 300 = 60 kPa.




🔋 Redox & Electrode Potentials

Q34What is the oxidation state of sulfur in sodium thiosulfate, Na2S2O3, calculated as the average for the two sulfur atoms?

(A) −2
(B) +4
(C) +6
(D) +2
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Using oxidation states: 2(+1) + 2(S) + 3(−2) = 0, so 2 + 2S − 6 = 0 and S = +2 (average value).

Q35Which reaction is a disproportionation reaction?

(A) Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO
(B) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(C) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(D) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In this reaction chlorine (oxidation state 0) is simultaneously reduced to Cl^- (−1) in HCl and oxidised to ClO^- (+1) in HClO, so the same element is both oxidised and reduced.

Q36Standard electrode potentials are: Ag^+/Ag = +0.80 V and Zn^2+/Zn = −0.76 V. What is the EMF of a standard cell made from these two half-cells?

(A) +0.04 V
(B) +1.56 V
(C) −1.56 V
(D) +0.80 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

E(cell) = E(more positive) − E(more negative) = +0.80 − (−0.76) = +1.56 V.

Q37In an alkaline hydrogen fuel cell, what is the half-equation for the reaction at the negative electrode (anode)?

(A) H2 → 2H^+ + 2e^-
(B) O2 + 4H^+ + 4e^- → 2H2O
(C) 2H2 + 4OH^- → 4H2O + 4e^-
(D) 2H2O → O2 + 4H^+ + 4e^-
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In the alkaline fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with hydroxide ions at the anode: 2H2 + 4OH^- → 4H2O + 4e^-. The electrons released travel through the external circuit.

Q38In the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate using inert electrodes, 0.100 mol of electrons is passed through the cell. What mass of copper is deposited at the cathode? (Mr of Cu = 63.5)

(A) 6.35 g
(B) 1.59 g
(C) 12.7 g
(D) 3.18 g
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

At the cathode, Cu^2+ + 2e^- → Cu, so 2 mol of electrons deposits 1 mol of copper. Moles of Cu = 0.100/2 = 0.0500 mol; mass = 0.0500 × 63.5 = 3.18 g.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q39What is the pH of 0.200 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid?

(A) 0.70
(B) 0.20
(C) 1.00
(D) 13.30
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

HCl is fully ionised, so [H^+] = 0.200 mol dm^-3. pH = −log(0.200) = 0.70.

Q40What is the pH of a 0.100 mol dm^-3 solution of propanoic acid, which has Ka = 1.3 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3?

(A) 1.00
(B) 2.94
(C) 4.89
(D) 5.89
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

For a weak acid, [H^+] = √(Ka × c) = √(1.3 × 10^-5 × 0.100) = √(1.3 × 10^-6) = 1.14 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3. pH = −log(1.14 × 10^-3) = 2.94.

Q41A buffer solution is made containing 0.200 mol dm^-3 of a weak acid (pKa = 4.00) and 0.100 mol dm^-3 of its sodium salt. What is the pH of the buffer?

(A) 4.30
(B) 4.00
(C) 3.70
(D) 3.40
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

pH = pKa + log([salt]/[acid]) = 4.00 + log(0.100/0.200) = 4.00 + log(0.5) = 4.00 − 0.30 = 3.70.

Q42A weak acid is titrated with a strong base (sodium hydroxide solution). Which statement about the equivalence point of this titration is correct?

(A) The pH at the equivalence point is less than 7, and methyl orange is a suitable indicator
(B) The pH at the equivalence point is exactly 7, and litmus is a suitable indicator
(C) The pH at the equivalence point is less than 7, and phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator
(D) The pH at the equivalence point is greater than 7, and phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The salt formed is the conjugate base of a weak acid, which hydrolyses to give an alkaline solution, so the pH at equivalence is above 7. Phenolphthalein changes colour in the alkaline range covered by the steep section of the curve.

Q43As the temperature increases, the value of Kw for water increases. What does this mean for a sample of pure water at 50°C?

(A) Its pH is less than 7, but the water is still neutral
(B) Its pH is exactly 7 and it is alkaline
(C) Its pH is less than 7 and it is acidic
(D) [H^+] is less than [OH^-]
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In pure water [H^+] = [OH^-] at all temperatures, so it is always neutral. A larger Kw means [H^+] is greater, so the pH falls below 7 even though the water is neutral.

⚗ Inorganic Chemistry

Q44Calcium reacts with cold water. What are the products of this reaction?

(A) calcium oxide and hydrogen
(B) no reaction takes place
(C) calcium hydroxide and hydrogen
(D) calcium hydroxide and oxygen
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2. Calcium reacts steadily with cold water, forming a (partially soluble) hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Q45Sodium iodide is added to concentrated sulfuric acid. The iodide ions are strong enough reducing agents to reduce the sulfur in sulfuric acid (oxidation state +6) all the way to which product?

(A) SO2
(B) H2S
(C) S
(D) H2SO3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Iodide ions reduce concentrated sulfuric acid through SO2 (+4) and S (0) to hydrogen sulfide, H2S, in which sulfur has oxidation state −2. The iodide is oxidised to I2.

Q46Which compound is used as the catalyst in the Contact process for making sulfuric acid?

(A) iron
(B) nickel
(C) platinum
(D) vanadium(V) oxide, V2O5
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The Contact process oxidises SO2 to SO3 using a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst at about 450°C. Iron is the catalyst in the Haber process.

Q47What is observed when aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution containing Cu^2+ ions, first dropwise and then in excess?

(A) a pale blue precipitate forms, which does not dissolve in excess sodium hydroxide
(B) a pale blue precipitate forms, which dissolves in excess to give a deep blue solution
(C) a deep blue solution forms immediately and no precipitate is seen
(D) a white precipitate forms, which dissolves in excess sodium hydroxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cu^2+ ions react with hydroxide ions to form a pale blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide, Cu(OH)2. Unlike the reaction with excess ammonia, this precipitate does not dissolve in excess sodium hydroxide.

Q48When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution containing Fe^2+ ions, what is observed?

(A) a red-brown precipitate
(B) a blue precipitate
(C) a green precipitate
(D) a white precipitate
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Fe^2+ ions form a green precipitate of iron(II) hydroxide, Fe(OH)2, which slowly turns brown at its surface as it is oxidised by air to iron(III) hydroxide.

🛢 Organic Chemistry I

Q49Which step in the free-radical substitution of methane by chlorine is a propagation step?

(A) Cl2 → 2Cl•
(B) CH4 + Cl• → CH3• + HCl
(C) CH3• + CH3• → C2H6
(D) CH3• + Cl• → CH3Cl
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In propagation, a radical reacts with a molecule to form a product and a new radical, keeping the chain going. Steps (C) and (D) destroy radicals (termination) and step (A) is initiation.

Q50Which halogenoalkane is hydrolysed fastest by aqueous sodium hydroxide, reacting mainly by an SN1 mechanism?

(A) 1-bromobutane
(B) 2-bromobutane
(C) bromoethane
(D) 2-bromo-2-methylpropane
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

2-Bromo-2-methylpropane is a tertiary halogenoalkane. It forms a relatively stable tertiary carbocation intermediate, so it hydrolyses fastest by the SN1 mechanism.

Q51Ethene is shaken with cold, dilute potassium manganate(VII) solution. What happens?

(A) The purple colour fades and ethane-1,2-diol is formed
(B) The purple colour fades and ethanoic acid is formed
(C) There is no reaction
(D) A brown precipitate forms and the ethene is unchanged
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Cold, dilute manganate(VII) is a mild oxidising agent that adds two -OH groups across the C=C double bond (dihydroxylation), forming a diol and discharging the purple colour.

Q52Ethanol is heated with concentrated sulfuric acid at 170°C. What is the organic product?

(A) ethanal
(B) ethanoic acid
(C) ethene
(D) ethane
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Concentrated sulfuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent, eliminating water from ethanol to form the alkene ethene.

Q53Bromoethane is warmed with aqueous potassium hydroxide. What is the main organic product?

(A) ethene
(B) ethanol
(C) ethane
(D) ethanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

With aqueous alkali, nucleophilic substitution takes place: the -OH group replaces the bromine atom, forming ethanol. (Ethanolic KOH would give elimination to ethene instead.)

Q54Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) damage the ozone layer in the stratosphere because…

(A) they absorb carbon dioxide
(B) they dissolve in rain to form acid rain
(C) they react with nitrogen in the air
(D) ultraviolet radiation breaks the C-Cl bond, releasing chlorine radicals that catalyse the breakdown of ozone
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In the stratosphere, UV light causes homolytic fission of C-Cl bonds in CFCs. The chlorine radicals produced react with ozone, O3, and are regenerated, so each radical can destroy many ozone molecules.

🔬 Organic Chemistry II & Analysis

Q55Ethanal reacts with hydrogen cyanide in the presence of a small amount of alkali. What is the product of this nucleophilic addition?

(A) 2-hydroxypropanenitrile
(B) propanenitrile
(C) 2-aminopropanoic acid
(D) propanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The CN^- nucleophile adds to the carbonyl carbon and the H^+ adds to the oxygen, forming a hydroxynitrile (cyanohydrin): CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN, which is 2-hydroxypropanenitrile.

Q56Which conditions are used to prepare ethyl ethanoate by reacting ethanoic acid with ethanol?

(A) aqueous sodium hydroxide and reflux
(B) dilute sulfuric acid in the cold
(C) concentrated sulfuric acid and gentle warming
(D) phosphorus pentachloride at room temperature
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Esterification is a reversible reaction catalysed by concentrated sulfuric acid, which also acts as a dehydrating agent, and the mixture is warmed.

Q57Benzene does not readily undergo addition reactions, unlike ethene, mainly because…

(A) the C-C bonds in benzene are too strong to break
(B) addition would destroy the delocalised pi electron system and the extra stability it gives the ring
(C) benzene contains no pi bonds at all
(D) benzene molecules are too large to react
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Benzene is stabilised by its delocalised ring of pi electrons (its enthalpy of hydrogenation is less exothermic than expected). Addition reactions would destroy this delocalisation, so benzene reacts by substitution, which preserves it.

Q58Phenylamine is prepared in the laboratory by…

(A) nitrating benzene with concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids
(B) reducing nitrobenzene with tin and concentrated hydrochloric acid
(C) heating phenol with ammonia under pressure
(D) brominating benzene with bromine and iron(III) bromide
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Nitrobenzene is reduced to phenylamine using tin and concentrated hydrochloric acid (followed by alkali to release the free amine). Nitration of benzene is the earlier step used to make the nitrobenzene.

Q59Nylon-6,6 is a condensation polymer. Which pair of monomers is used to make it?

(A) hexanedioic acid and hexane-1,6-diamine
(B) ethene and ethene
(C) ethanediol and benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid
(D) glycine and alanine
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Nylon-6,6 forms when hexanedioic acid (a dicarboxylic acid) condenses with hexane-1,6-diamine (a diamine), forming amide (peptide) links and eliminating water. Each monomer contributes 6 carbon atoms, hence the name.

Q60How many different proton (1H) environments are there in propanone, CH3COCH3?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 6
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

The two CH3 groups in propanone are in identical environments, so all six hydrogen atoms are chemically equivalent and give a single signal in the 1H NMR spectrum.

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