A-Level Chemistry Practice Test 19
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering the full A-Level Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), AS & A2.
Note: These are original practice questions written in A-Level multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real A-Level Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers the full A-Level course: atomic structure, amount of substance, bonding, energetics & thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibria, redox & electrode potentials, acids & buffers, inorganic chemistry, and organic chemistry with spectroscopy.
⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodicity
Q1A sample of an element X contains two isotopes, 69X and 71X, with percentage abundances of 60.0% and 40.0% respectively. What is the relative atomic mass of X?
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Correct: (B)
Ar = (69 × 0.600) + (71 × 0.400) = 41.4 + 28.4 = 69.8.
Q2Which element has the highest second ionisation energy?
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Correct: (A)
After one electron is removed, Na^+ has the stable electronic configuration of neon; removing a second electron means breaking into this stable inner shell, which requires a very large amount of energy.
Q3Which species is isoelectronic with an argon atom?
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Correct: (C)
A chlorine atom has 17 electrons; Cl^- has gained one extra electron, giving 18 electrons, the same number as argon.
Q4Which atom has the largest atomic radius?
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Correct: (D)
K is in Period 4 and Group 1: it has one more electron shell than Na and Mg, and in Period 4 it has a smaller effective nuclear charge than Ca, so its outer electron is held least tightly and its radius is largest.
Q5The first ionisation energy of sulfur is lower than that of phosphorus, even though sulfur has a greater nuclear charge. This is because in sulfur…
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Correct: (A)
In phosphorus the three 3p electrons are unpaired in separate orbitals; in sulfur one 3p orbital contains a pair of electrons, and the repulsion between them makes one electron easier to remove.
⚖ Amount of Substance
Q6What volume is occupied by 0.250 mol of a gas at a pressure of 100 kPa and a temperature of 300 K? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (C)
V = nRT/p = (0.250 × 8.31 × 300) / 100000 = 6.23 × 10^-3 m^3 = 6.23 dm^3.
Q7What is the mass of sodium chloride in 250 cm^3 of a 0.200 mol dm^-3 solution? (Mr of NaCl = 58.5)
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Correct: (D)
moles = 0.200 × 0.250 = 0.0500 mol; mass = 0.0500 × 58.5 = 2.93 g.
Q8In a preparation, the theoretical yield of a product was 8.00 g but only 6.40 g was obtained. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (B)
Percentage yield = (6.40 / 8.00) × 100 = 80.0%.
Q9Calcium carbonate is heated to form calcium oxide: CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g). What is the atom economy for the production of calcium oxide? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56)
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Correct: (C)
Atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of reactants) × 100 = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%.
Q10A 25.0 cm^3 sample of 0.100 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution was neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of hydrochloric acid. What is the concentration of the hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (A)
moles of NaOH = 0.100 × 0.0250 = 0.00250 mol = moles of HCl; concentration = 0.00250 / 0.0200 = 0.125 mol dm^-3.
Q11A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (D)
C: 40.0/12 = 3.33; H: 6.7/1 = 6.7; O: 53.3/16 = 3.33. Dividing by 3.33 gives a ratio of 1 : 2 : 1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.
🔗 Bonding & Structure
Q12What is the shape of an ammonia molecule and its H-N-H bond angle?
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Correct: (C)
NH3 has three bonding pairs and one lone pair of electrons. The lone pair repels the bonding pairs more strongly, giving a trigonal pyramidal shape and reducing the bond angle to 107°.
Q13Which molecule is polar (has a permanent dipole)?
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Correct: (B)
In NH3 the bond dipoles do not cancel because the molecule is pyramidal. CO2, BF3 and CH4 are symmetrical, so their bond dipoles cancel out.
Q14The lattice enthalpy of an ionic compound is the enthalpy change when…
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Correct: (D)
Lattice enthalpy (of formation) is the exothermic enthalpy change when 1 mol of an ionic lattice is formed from its separate gaseous ions.
Q15Which substance has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?
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Correct: (A)
CH3OH contains an O-H group. The hydrogen attached to the highly electronegative oxygen atom forms hydrogen bonds with lone pairs on oxygen atoms of neighbouring molecules.
Q16Which compound has the greatest ionic character?
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Correct: (C)
CsF has the greatest difference in electronegativity between its elements (caesium is the least electronegative metal and fluorine the most electronegative element), so its bonding has the most ionic character.
Q17What is the shape of the XeF4 molecule?
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Correct: (B)
XeF4 has four bonding pairs and two lone pairs arranged in an octahedral arrangement of electron pairs, with the lone pairs opposite each other, giving a square planar shape.
🔥 Energetics & Thermodynamics
Q18When a fuel was burned, the temperature of 50.0 g of water in a calorimeter rose by 8.00 K. How much heat energy was released? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1)
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Correct: (D)
q = mcΔT = 50.0 × 4.18 × 8.00 = 1672 J = 1.67 kJ.
Q19Enthalpies of combustion are: C = −393, H2 = −286 and CH4 = −890 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy of formation of methane?
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Correct: (A)
By Hess's law: ΔHf = ΔHc(C) + 2ΔHc(H2) − ΔHc(CH4) = (−393) + 2(−286) − (−890) = −393 − 572 + 890 = −75 kJ mol^-1.
Q20For the reaction CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g), the entropy change, ΔS, is…
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Correct: (C)
A gas has far more disorder (entropy) than solids, so forming CO2 gas from a solid carbonate gives a positive entropy change.
Q21A reaction has ΔH = −100 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = −200 J K^-1 mol^-1. What is ΔG at 400 K?
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Correct: (D)
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = −100 − (400 × −0.200) = −100 + 80 = −20 kJ mol^-1, so the reaction is feasible at 400 K.
Q22Using bond enthalpies H-H = 436, Cl-Cl = 242 and H-Cl = 431 kJ mol^-1, what is ΔH for the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)?
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Correct: (B)
Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ mol^-1; bonds formed = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ mol^-1; ΔH = 678 − 862 = −184 kJ mol^-1.
Q23A reaction has ΔH = +50.0 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = +100 J K^-1 mol^-1. Above what temperature does the reaction become feasible?
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Correct: (A)
The reaction becomes feasible when ΔG = 0, so T = ΔH/ΔS = 50000 / 100 = 500 K. Above 500 K, ΔG is negative.
⏱ Kinetics & Rate Equations
Q24For a reaction with rate = k[A]^2[B], what happens to the rate when the concentration of A is doubled and the concentration of B is halved?
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Correct: (C)
The change in rate = 2^2 × 0.5 = 2, so the rate doubles.
Q25What are the units of the rate constant for a reaction that is second order overall?
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Correct: (B)
Since rate has units mol dm^-3 s^-1 and rate = k[A]^2, k = rate/[A]^2, giving units mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1 for a second-order reaction.
Q26In an experiment, doubling the concentration of X (with Y unchanged) doubles the rate, but doubling the concentration of Y (with X unchanged) has no effect on the rate. What is the rate equation?
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Correct: (D)
The reaction is first order with respect to X and zero order with respect to Y, so rate = k[X].
Q27According to the Arrhenius equation, raising the temperature increases the rate constant mainly because…
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Correct: (A)
As T increases, the exponential term e^(-Ea/RT) increases, so a much larger fraction of collisions have enough energy to react.
Q28A reaction has a constant half-life of 40 s, which does not change as the reaction proceeds. The reaction must be…
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Correct: (C)
A constant half-life, independent of concentration, is the characteristic feature of a first-order reaction.
⚖ Chemical Equilibria (Kc & Kp)
Q29For the equilibrium N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), which expression gives Kc?
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Correct: (D)
Kc = [products]/[reactants] with each concentration raised to the power of its stoichiometric coefficient: Kc = [NH3]^2 / ([N2][H2]^3).
Q30For the equilibrium A(aq) ⇌ 2B(aq), 0.800 mol of A was dissolved in a 1.00 dm^3 flask. At equilibrium, 0.600 mol of A remained. What is the value of Kc?
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Correct: (A)
A reacted = 0.800 − 0.600 = 0.200 mol, so B formed = 0.400 mol. [A] = 0.600 and [B] = 0.400 mol dm^-3. Kc = [B]^2/[A] = (0.400)^2 / 0.600 = 0.267 mol dm^-3.
Q31For the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), which statement about Kp and Kc is correct?
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Correct: (B)
There are 2 moles of gas on each side, so the change in the number of moles of gas is zero and Kp = Kc(RT)^0 = Kc.
Q32The equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) is exothermic in the forward direction. Which change increases the equilibrium yield of SO3?
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Correct: (C)
There are 3 moles of gas on the left and 2 moles on the right, so increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium to the right, towards fewer moles of gas, increasing the yield of SO3.
Q33What is the effect of adding a catalyst on the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, for a reaction?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst increases the rates of the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the position of equilibrium and the value of Kc are unchanged. Kc depends only on temperature.
🔋 Redox & Electrode Potentials
Q34What is the oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7?
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Correct: (A)
Using oxidation states: 2(+1) + 2(Cr) + 7(−2) = 0, so 2 + 2Cr − 14 = 0 and Cr = +6.
Q35Standard electrode potentials are: Zn^2+/Zn = −0.76 V, Fe^2+/Fe = −0.44 V, Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V. Which metal is the strongest reducing agent?
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Correct: (B)
The most negative electrode potential corresponds to the metal that loses electrons most readily, so zinc is the strongest reducing agent of the three.
Q36What is the EMF, under standard conditions, of a cell combining the half-cells Zn^2+/Zn (−0.76 V) and Cu^2+/Cu (+0.34 V)?
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Correct: (C)
E(cell) = E(more positive) − E(more negative) = +0.34 − (−0.76) = +1.10 V.
Q37A current of 0.500 A is passed through aqueous copper(II) sulfate for 1930 s. What mass of copper is deposited at the cathode? (F = 96500 C mol^-1; Mr of Cu = 63.5)
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Correct: (D)
Q = It = 0.500 × 1930 = 965 C, which is 965/96500 = 0.0100 mol of electrons. Cu^2+ + 2e^- → Cu, so moles of Cu = 0.00500 and mass = 0.00500 × 63.5 = 0.318 g.
Q38E for Fe^3+/Fe^2+ is +0.77 V and E for I2/I^- is +0.54 V. What is the EMF for the reaction of Fe^3+ ions with I^- ions, and is it feasible?
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Correct: (A)
EMF = +0.77 − (+0.54) = +0.23 V. The EMF is positive, so Fe^3+ can oxidise I^- to I2 and the reaction is feasible.
🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers
Q39What is the pH of 0.0100 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid?
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Correct: (B)
HCl is a strong acid and is fully ionised, so [H^+] = 0.0100 mol dm^-3. pH = −log(0.0100) = 2.00.
Q40What is the pH of a 0.100 mol dm^-3 solution of a weak acid with Ka = 1.00 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3?
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Correct: (C)
For a weak acid, [H^+] = √(Ka × c) = √(1.00 × 10^-5 × 0.100) = √(1.00 × 10^-6) = 1.00 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3. pH = 3.00.
Q41What is the pH of 0.0500 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution? (Kw = 1.00 × 10^-14 mol^2 dm^-6)
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Correct: (D)
pOH = −log(0.0500) = 1.30. pH = 14.00 − 1.30 = 12.70.
Q42A buffer solution contains ethanoic acid (pKa = 4.74) and sodium ethanoate, both at a concentration of 0.100 mol dm^-3. What is the pH of the buffer?
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Correct: (A)
pH = pKa + log([salt]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(0.100/0.100) = 4.74 + 0 = 4.74.
Q43A solution of a weak acid is exactly half-neutralised by sodium hydroxide. At this point in the titration…
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Correct: (B)
At the half-neutralisation point, half the acid has been converted to its salt, so [acid] = [salt] and pH = pKa + log(1) = pKa.
⚗ Inorganic Chemistry
Q44Which statement about Group 2 elements and their compounds is correct?
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Correct: (B)
The solubility of Group 2 hydroxides increases down the group: Mg(OH)2 is sparingly soluble while Ba(OH)2 is appreciably soluble. Reactivity of the metals also increases down the group.
Q45Chlorine is passed into cold, dilute sodium hydroxide solution. What are the products of this reaction?
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Correct: (D)
Cl2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaClO + H2O. Chlorine is both oxidised (0 to +1 in NaClO) and reduced (0 to −1 in NaCl), so this is a disproportionation reaction.
Q46When excess concentrated ammonia solution is added to aqueous copper(II) sulfate, what is the colour of the resulting solution?
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Correct: (A)
A pale blue precipitate of Cu(OH)2 forms first and then dissolves in excess ammonia as ligand substitution forms the [Cu(NH3)4(H2O)2]^2+ complex, which is deep blue.
Q47Which reagents are used to test a solution for the presence of sulfate ions?
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Correct: (C)
Ba^2+ ions form a white precipitate of BaSO4 with sulfate ions. The acid is added first to remove carbonate ions, which would also give a white precipitate with Ba^2+.
Q48When dilute sodium hydroxide solution is added dropwise to a solution containing Fe^3+ ions, what is observed?
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Correct: (B)
Fe^3+ ions form a red-brown (rust-coloured) precipitate of iron(III) hydroxide, Fe(OH)3.
🛢 Organic Chemistry I
Q49In the free-radical substitution of methane by chlorine in ultraviolet light, the initiation step involves…
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Correct: (D)
Ultraviolet light provides the energy for homolytic fission of the Cl-Cl bond, producing two chlorine radicals, which start the chain reaction.
Q50Which halogenoalkane reacts fastest with aqueous sodium hydroxide?
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Correct: (A)
In nucleophilic substitution the carbon-halogen bond must break. The C-I bond is the weakest of the carbon-halogen bonds, so 1-iodobutane reacts fastest.
Q51Propene reacts with hydrogen bromide. The major product of this electrophilic addition is…
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Correct: (C)
By Markovnikov's rule, the hydrogen adds to the carbon of the double bond that already has the most hydrogen atoms, because this gives the more stable secondary carbocation intermediate. The major product is 2-bromopropane.
Q52Propan-1-ol is heated under reflux with excess acidified potassium dichromate(VI). What is the organic product?
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Correct: (B)
A primary alcohol is oxidised to an aldehyde and then, when heated under reflux with excess oxidising agent, further oxidised to the carboxylic acid, propanoic acid.
Q532-Bromopropane is heated with potassium hydroxide dissolved in ethanol. What is the main organic product?
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Correct: (D)
Hot ethanolic KOH gives elimination (dehydrohalogenation) rather than substitution, removing HBr from the halogenoalkane to form the alkene, propene.
Q54Which equation represents a cracking reaction?
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Correct: (A)
Cracking breaks a long-chain alkane into a shorter-chain alkane and an alkene. The equation is balanced: C, 10 = 8 + 2; H, 22 = 18 + 4.
🔬 Organic Chemistry II & Analysis
Q55Which reagent gives a silver mirror with an aldehyde but does not react with a ketone?
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Correct: (C)
Tollens' reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate) is a mild oxidising agent. Aldehydes reduce Ag^+ to silver metal, forming a silver mirror, but ketones cannot be oxidised further and do not react.
Q56Ethyl ethanoate is boiled with aqueous sodium hydroxide. What are the products?
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Correct: (B)
Alkaline hydrolysis of an ester gives the sodium salt of the carboxylic acid (sodium ethanoate) and the alcohol (ethanol).
Q57In the nitration of benzene, the attacking electrophile is…
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Correct: (D)
Concentrated sulfuric acid protonates nitric acid and removes water, generating the nitronium ion, NO2^+, which is the electrophile that attacks the benzene ring.
Q58Phenylamine is a much weaker base than ethylamine because…
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Correct: (A)
In phenylamine the nitrogen lone pair overlaps with the pi system of the benzene ring and becomes delocalised, so it is less available to accept a proton. In ethylamine the lone pair is localised on nitrogen.
Q59Glycine, H2NCH2COOH, is dissolved in a solution of very low pH. The predominant form of glycine is…
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Correct: (C)
At very low pH there is a high concentration of H^+ ions, so the basic -NH2 group is protonated to -NH3^+ while the -COOH group stays protonated. The predominant species is ^+NH3CH2COOH.
Q60In a thin-layer chromatography experiment, a spot moved 4.2 cm from the baseline while the solvent front moved 6.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?
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Correct: (B)
Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent front = 4.2 / 6.0 = 0.70.
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