A-Level Chemistry Practice Test 18

60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering the full A-Level Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), AS & A2.

Note: These are original practice questions written in A-Level multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real A-Level Chemistry exams.

📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers the full A-Level course: atomic structure, amount of substance, bonding, energetics & thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibria, redox & electrode potentials, acids & buffers, inorganic chemistry, and organic chemistry with spectroscopy.

⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodicity

Q1Which statement correctly defines the first ionisation energy of an element?

(A) The energy released when one mole of gaseous atoms gains one mole of electrons
(B) The energy needed to remove one electron from every atom in a mole of solid element
(C) The energy needed to remove one mole of electrons from one mole of solid atoms
(D) The energy required to remove one mole of electrons from one mole of gaseous atoms to form one mole of gaseous 1+ ions
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ionisation energies always refer to gaseous atoms forming gaseous ions, with one mole of electrons removed from one mole of atoms.

Q2An element has mass spectrum peaks at m/z 28 (92.2%), 29 (4.7%) and 30 (3.1%). What is its relative atomic mass?

(A) 28.5
(B) 28.1
(C) 29.0
(D) 27.8
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Ar = (28 × 92.2 + 29 × 4.7 + 30 × 3.1) / 100 = (2581.6 + 136.3 + 93.0) / 100 = 28.1.

Q3Why do the first ionisation energies generally increase across Period 3?

(A) The nuclear charge increases while electrons are added to the same shell, so shielding is similar and the attraction for the outer electrons increases
(B) The atoms become larger across the period
(C) The shielding increases greatly across the period
(D) The electrons are removed from a shell further from the nucleus
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Across a period the proton number rises but shielding stays roughly constant, so the effective nuclear charge increases and the electrons are held more tightly.

Q4What is the electronic configuration of a copper atom? (Cu: atomic number 29)

(A) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^9
(B) [Ar] 4s^2 3d^10
(C) [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10
(D) [Ar] 3d^11
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Copper is an exception to the expected filling pattern: a full 3d subshell is especially stable, so the configuration is [Ar] 4s^1 3d^10 rather than [Ar] 4s^2 3d^9.

Q5In a time-of-flight mass spectrometer, an ion with m/z = 100 takes 2.0 × 10^-5 s to travel the flight tube. How long does an ion with m/z = 25 take, if all ions are given the same kinetic energy?

(A) 4.0 × 10^-5 s
(B) 2.0 × 10^-5 s
(C) 5.0 × 10^-6 s
(D) 1.0 × 10^-5 s
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Flight time is proportional to sqrt(m/z): sqrt(25/100) = 0.5, so the time is 0.5 × 2.0 × 10^-5 = 1.0 × 10^-5 s.

⚖ Amount of Substance

Q6What amount, in moles, is there in 480 cm^3 of carbon dioxide at room temperature and pressure? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3 mol^-1)

(A) 0.0200 mol
(B) 0.0500 mol
(C) 0.200 mol
(D) 20.0 mol
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

n = V / molar volume = 0.480 / 24 = 0.0200 mol.

Q7A 25.0 cm^3 sample of hydrochloric acid is exactly neutralised by 18.6 cm^3 of 0.200 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide. What is the concentration of the acid?

(A) 0.100 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.269 mol dm^-3
(C) 0.149 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.372 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of NaOH = 0.200 × 18.6/1000 = 0.00372, which equals the moles of HCl. Concentration = 0.00372 / 0.0250 = 0.149 mol dm^-3.

Q8In a preparation, the theoretical yield of a product is 15.0 g and the actual yield obtained is 12.0 g. What is the percentage yield?

(A) 20%
(B) 80%
(C) 125%
(D) 75%
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Percentage yield = (12.0 / 15.0) × 100 = 80%.

Q9An oxide of iron contains 3.36 g of iron and 1.28 g of oxygen. What is the empirical formula of the oxide? (Ar: Fe = 56, O = 16)

(A) FeO
(B) Fe2O3
(C) FeO2
(D) Fe3O4
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Moles of Fe = 3.36 / 56 = 0.0600; moles of O = 1.28 / 16 = 0.0800. The ratio 0.0600 : 0.0800 = 3 : 4, so the empirical formula is Fe3O4.

Q10What volume is occupied by 0.200 mol of a gas at 300 K and 100 kPa? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)

(A) 4.99 dm^3
(B) 49.9 dm^3
(C) 2.49 dm^3
(D) 0.499 dm^3
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

V = nRT/p = (0.200 × 8.31 × 300) / 100000 = 4.99 × 10^-3 m^3 = 4.99 dm^3.

Q11Which reaction has an atom economy of 100%?

(A) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(B) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(C) C2H4 + H2 → C2H6
(D) CH3Cl + OH^- → CH3OH + Cl^-
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In an addition reaction, all of the atoms in the reactants end up in the single product, so the atom economy is 100%.

🔗 Bonding & Structure

Q12What is the shape of a ClF3 molecule? (In ClF3 there are three bonding pairs and two lone pairs around the central chlorine atom.)

(A) Trigonal planar
(B) T-shaped
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) Trigonal pyramidal
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The five electron pairs arrange in a trigonal bipyramidal geometry; the two lone pairs occupy equatorial positions, leaving a T-shaped molecule.

Q13Which molecule is polar overall?

(A) BF3
(B) CO2
(C) CH4
(D) NH3
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

NH3 is trigonal pyramidal, so its bond dipoles do not cancel. BF3, CO2 and CH4 are symmetrical, so their bond dipoles cancel out.

Q14Which ionic compound has the most exothermic lattice enthalpy?

(A) MgO
(B) CaO
(C) NaCl
(D) KCl
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Mg^2+ and O^2- are small ions carrying high charges, giving the strongest electrostatic attractions and the most exothermic lattice enthalpy.

Q15Which statement about structure and melting point is correct?

(A) Sodium chloride has a low melting point because its ions are small
(B) Ice melts easily because hydrogen bonds are stronger than covalent bonds
(C) Silicon dioxide has a high melting point because strong covalent bonds throughout its giant structure must be broken on melting
(D) Iodine has a high melting point because of strong covalent bonds between its molecules
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

SiO2 has a giant covalent structure, so melting requires breaking strong covalent bonds. Iodine is a simple molecular substance with only weak forces between its molecules.

Q16Ethanol (boiling point 78 °C) and methoxymethane (boiling point −24 °C) are isomers. Why does ethanol have the higher boiling point?

(A) Ethanol molecules are heavier than methoxymethane molecules
(B) Ethanol has weaker intermolecular forces than methoxymethane
(C) Methoxymethane forms hydrogen bonds but ethanol does not
(D) Ethanol molecules form hydrogen bonds with each other, which need extra energy to break
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The O−H group in ethanol allows hydrogen bonding between molecules; methoxymethane has no O−H bond and can form only weaker permanent dipole-dipole forces.

Q17The boiling points of the halogens increase down Group 7 (Cl2 < Br2 < I2). This is because…

(A) The covalent bonds within the molecules become stronger down the group
(B) The molecules contain more electrons, so the van der Waals (London) forces between the molecules become stronger
(C) The molecules become more polar down the group
(D) Hydrogen bonding between the molecules increases down the group
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

Larger molecules have bigger, more easily distorted electron clouds, giving stronger instantaneous dipole-induced dipole (London) forces between the molecules.

🔥 Energetics & Thermodynamics

Q1850.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid is mixed with 50.0 cm^3 of 1.00 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide in a calorimeter, and the temperature rises by 6.8 °C. What is the enthalpy of neutralisation? (Take the total mass of solution as 100 g; c = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1)

(A) −56.8 kJ mol^-1
(B) −28.4 kJ mol^-1
(C) −5.68 kJ mol^-1
(D) −113.6 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.18 × 6.8 = 2842 J. Moles of water formed = 0.0500. ΔH = −2842 / 0.0500 = −56.8 kJ mol^-1.

Q19Calculate the enthalpy of formation of ethene, C2H4, from these enthalpies of combustion: C = −393; H2 = −286; C2H4 = −1411 kJ mol^-1.

(A) −1358 kJ mol^-1
(B) −53 kJ mol^-1
(C) +53 kJ mol^-1
(D) −731 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

For 2C + 2H2 → C2H4: ΔHf = 2(−393) + 2(−286) − (−1411) = −786 − 572 + 1411 = +53 kJ mol^-1.

Q20Use bond enthalpies to find the enthalpy change for N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3. Bond enthalpies / kJ mol^-1: N≡N = 945; H−H = 436; N−H = 391.

(A) −2346 kJ mol^-1
(B) +93 kJ mol^-1
(C) −2253 kJ mol^-1
(D) −93 kJ mol^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Bonds broken = 945 + 3(436) = 2253 kJ mol^-1. Bonds formed = 6(391) = 2346 kJ mol^-1. ΔH = 2253 − 2346 = −93 kJ mol^-1.

Q21In which reaction is the entropy change of the system negative?

(A) NH4NO3(s) → N2O(g) + 2H2O(g)
(B) 3O2(g) → 2O3(g)
(C) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(D) H2O(s) → H2O(l)
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The number of moles of gas decreases from 3 to 2, so the disorder decreases and ΔS is negative. The other reactions produce gas or a liquid from a solid, increasing disorder.

Q22A reaction has ΔH = +120 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = +300 J K^-1 mol^-1. Above what temperature is the reaction feasible?

(A) 400 K
(B) 200 K
(C) 40 K
(D) 4000 K
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The reaction becomes feasible when ΔG = ΔH − TΔS becomes negative, i.e. above T = ΔH/ΔS = 120000/300 = 400 K.

Q23A reaction has ΔH = −50 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = −100 J K^-1 mol^-1. What is ΔG at 298 K, and is the reaction feasible?

(A) ΔG = −79.8 kJ mol^-1; feasible
(B) ΔG = +20.2 kJ mol^-1; not feasible
(C) ΔG = −20.2 kJ mol^-1; feasible
(D) ΔG = 0; at equilibrium
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

ΔG = −50000 − (298 × −100) = −50000 + 29800 = −20200 J mol^-1 = −20.2 kJ mol^-1, so the reaction is feasible.

⏱ Kinetics & Rate Equations

Q24In the reaction between substances X and Y, doubling [X] quadruples the rate, while doubling [Y] has no effect on the rate. What are the orders of reaction?

(A) First order in X and first order in Y
(B) Second order in X and first order in Y
(C) First order in X and zero order in Y
(D) Second order in X and zero order in Y
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The rate is proportional to [X]^2 and is independent of [Y].

Q25For the rate equation rate = k[A]^2, the rate is 4.0 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3 s^-1 when [A] = 0.20 mol dm^-3. What is the value of k?

(A) 0.020 mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1
(B) 0.10 mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1
(C) 0.80 mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1
(D) 2.0 mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

k = rate / [A]^2 = (4.0 × 10^-3) / (0.20)^2 = (4.0 × 10^-3) / 0.040 = 0.10 mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1.

Q26According to the Arrhenius equation, k = A e^(−Ea/RT). Why does k increase when the temperature rises?

(A) The fraction of collisions with energy at least equal to Ea increases, so the term e^(−Ea/RT) becomes larger
(B) The activation energy decreases as the temperature rises
(C) The pre-exponential factor A decreases as the temperature rises
(D) The molecules collide less frequently at higher temperatures
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Ea and A are effectively constant; as T increases, −Ea/RT becomes less negative, so the exponential term, and hence k, increases.

Q27Which observation is characteristic of a zero-order reaction?

(A) The half-life is constant
(B) The rate doubles when the concentration doubles
(C) A plot of concentration against time is a straight line with a constant gradient
(D) A plot of ln(concentration) against time is a straight line
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

In a zero-order reaction the rate is constant, so the concentration falls at a constant rate. A constant half-life and a straight ln plot are features of first-order reactions.

Q28A catalyst is added to a reaction mixture. Which statement is correct?

(A) The total area under the Maxwell-Boltzmann curve increases
(B) The shape of the Maxwell-Boltzmann curve changes completely
(C) The activation energy of the uncatalysed route increases
(D) The Maxwell-Boltzmann curve is unchanged, but the activation energy is lower, so a larger proportion of molecules can react
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy; it does not change the energy distribution of the molecules.

⚖ Chemical Equilibria (Kc & Kp)

Q29For the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), the equilibrium concentrations are [H2] = 0.10, [I2] = 0.10 and [HI] = 0.80 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?

(A) 64
(B) 8.0
(C) 0.80
(D) 640
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Kc = [HI]^2 / ([H2][I2]) = (0.80)^2 / (0.10 × 0.10) = 0.64 / 0.010 = 64. Kc has no units here because there are equal numbers of moles on both sides.

Q30What is the expression for Kp for the equilibrium N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)?

(A) Kp = p(NH3) / (p(N2) × p(H2))
(B) Kp = p(N2) × p(H2)^3 / p(NH3)^2
(C) Kp = p(NH3)^2 / (p(N2) × p(H2)^3)
(D) Kp = p(NH3)^2 / (p(N2) × p(H2))
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Kp is the partial pressures of the products, each raised to its stoichiometric coefficient, divided by the same for the reactants.

Q312.00 mol of gas A is placed in a 2.00 dm^3 container and the equilibrium A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g) is established. At equilibrium, 1.20 mol of A remains. What is the value of Kc?

(A) 0.533 mol dm^-3
(B) 0.267 mol dm^-3
(C) 1.07 mol dm^-3
(D) 0.800 mol dm^-3
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

0.80 mol of A has reacted, forming 0.80 mol each of B and C. Concentrations: [A] = 0.600, [B] = [C] = 0.400 mol dm^-3. Kc = (0.400 × 0.400) / 0.600 = 0.267 mol dm^-3.

Q32What is the effect of increasing the total pressure on the value of Kp for a gas-phase equilibrium?

(A) Kp increases
(B) Kp decreases
(C) Kp increases only if the forward reaction is exothermic
(D) Kp is unchanged; only temperature changes the value of Kp
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Equilibrium constants depend only on temperature. A pressure change may shift the position of equilibrium, but it does not change K.

Q33More of a product is added to a reversible reaction mixture at equilibrium, so the equilibrium position shifts to the left. What happens to the value of Kc?

(A) Kc is unchanged
(B) Kc increases
(C) Kc decreases
(D) Kc falls to zero
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Changing the concentrations changes the position of equilibrium, but Kc remains the same at a given temperature.




🔋 Redox & Electrode Potentials

Q34What is the average oxidation state of sulfur in sodium thiosulfate, Na2S2O3?

(A) +4
(B) +6
(C) +2
(D) 0
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

2(+1) + 2S + 3(−2) = 0, so 2S = +4 and the average oxidation state of sulfur is +2.

Q35Calculate the EMF of an Fe|Fe^2+(aq)||Cu^2+(aq)|Cu cell. E°(Fe^2+/Fe) = −0.44 V; E°(Cu^2+/Cu) = +0.34 V.

(A) +0.10 V
(B) +0.78 V
(C) −0.78 V
(D) +1.56 V
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

EMF = 0.34 − (−0.44) = +0.78 V.

Q36E°(Fe^3+/Fe^2+) = +0.77 V. Which species can oxidise Fe^2+ ions to Fe^3+ ions?

(A) Zn(s); E°(Zn^2+/Zn) = −0.76 V
(B) Cu^2+(aq); E° = +0.34 V
(C) I2; E° = +0.54 V
(D) Acidified MnO4^- ions; E° = +1.51 V
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The oxidising agent must come from a system with an E° more positive than +0.77 V, so that E°cell is positive. Only acidified manganate(VII), at +1.51 V, qualifies.

Q37A current of 2.00 A is passed through molten aluminium oxide for 4825 s. What mass of aluminium is produced? (F = 96500 C mol^-1; Ar of Al = 27.0)

(A) 0.900 g
(B) 2.70 g
(C) 0.450 g
(D) 27.0 g
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Q = It = 2.00 × 4825 = 9650 C, which is 0.100 mol of electrons. Al^3+ + 3e^- → Al, so moles of Al = 0.100/3 = 0.0333 and mass = 0.0333 × 27.0 = 0.900 g.

Q38In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell with an acidic electrolyte, what is the reaction at the negative electrode?

(A) O2 + 4H^+ + 4e^- → 2H2O
(B) 2H2O → O2 + 4H^+ + 4e^-
(C) H2 → 2H^+ + 2e^-
(D) H^+ + OH^- → H2O
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

At the negative electrode (anode), hydrogen is oxidised and releases electrons; oxygen is reduced at the positive electrode.

🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers

Q39What is the pH of 0.00100 mol dm^-3 sulfuric acid, assuming that both protons are fully ionised?

(A) 3.00
(B) 2.00
(C) 3.30
(D) 2.70
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

[H^+] = 2 × 0.00100 = 0.00200 mol dm^-3, so pH = −log(0.00200) = 2.70.

Q40A weak acid has Ka = 4.0 × 10^-4 mol dm^-3. What is the pKa of the acid?

(A) 3.40
(B) 4.40
(C) 3.00
(D) 10.60
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

pKa = −log(4.0 × 10^-4) = 3.40.

Q41A buffer solution is made from ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate. What happens when a small amount of hydrochloric acid is added to the buffer?

(A) The pH falls sharply to below 2
(B) The added H^+ ions react with ethanoate ions to form ethanoic acid, so the pH changes only slightly
(C) The added H^+ ions react with the ethanoic acid molecules
(D) Nothing reacts; the added acid is simply diluted
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The ethanoate ions (the conjugate base in the buffer) remove most of the added H^+, forming the weak acid, so the pH stays almost constant.

Q4250.0 cm^3 of 0.200 mol dm^-3 hydrochloric acid is mixed with 25.0 cm^3 of 0.200 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide solution. What is the pH of the mixture?

(A) 0.70
(B) 1.48
(C) 1.18
(D) 2.00
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Moles of H^+ = 0.0100; moles of OH^- = 0.00500; excess H^+ = 0.00500 mol in 75.0 cm^3, so [H^+] = 0.0667 mol dm^-3. pH = −log(0.0667) = 1.18.

Q43At 50 °C, the value of Kw is larger than at 25 °C. Which statement is correct?

(A) Water is no longer neutral at 50 °C
(B) The pH of pure water at 50 °C is greater than 7
(C) The concentration of H^+ ions in pure water decreases at 50 °C
(D) Pure water is still neutral, but its pH is less than 7 because [H^+] = [OH^-] is larger
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

The ionisation of water is endothermic, so Kw increases with temperature and both [H^+] and [OH^-] rise equally. The water remains neutral ([H^+] = [OH^-]) but the pH falls below 7.

⚗ Inorganic Chemistry

Q44Which Group 2 hydroxide is the most soluble in water?

(A) Barium hydroxide
(B) Magnesium hydroxide
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Strontium hydroxide
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The solubility of the Group 2 hydroxides increases down the group, so Ba(OH)2 is the most soluble.

Q45Which displacement reaction will occur?

(A) I2 + 2KBr → Br2 + 2KI
(B) Br2 + 2KI → I2 + 2KBr
(C) Cl2 + 2NaF → F2 + 2NaCl
(D) I2 + 2KCl → Cl2 + 2KI
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

A more reactive halogen displaces a less reactive halogen from its halide. Bromine is above iodine in Group 7, so bromine displaces iodide ions.

Q46[Co(H2O)6]^2+ ions are pink in aqueous solution. When concentrated hydrochloric acid is added, [CoCl4]^2- ions are formed. What is the colour change, and how does the coordination number change?

(A) Pink to pink; 6 to 6
(B) Pink to yellow; 6 to 4
(C) Pink to blue; 6 to 4
(D) Blue to pink; 4 to 6
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ligand substitution by chloride ions gives the tetrahedral [CoCl4]^2- complex, which is blue; the coordination number falls from 6 to 4.

Q47Which reagent is used to test for sulfate ions in a solution?

(A) Silver nitrate solution and nitric acid
(B) Sodium hydroxide solution
(C) Limewater
(D) Barium chloride solution and hydrochloric acid
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Ba^2+ ions form a white precipitate of BaSO4 with sulfate ions. The hydrochloric acid is added to remove carbonate ions, which would also give a white precipitate with Ba^2+.

Q48Which statement about transition metals is NOT correct?

(A) They have low melting points compared with most other metals
(B) They form coloured ions
(C) They and their compounds can act as catalysts
(D) They show variable oxidation states
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

Transition metals generally have high melting and boiling points because of strong metallic bonding involving 3d and 4s electrons. The other statements are characteristic properties of transition metals.

🛢 Organic Chemistry I

Q49Bromoethane reacts with potassium cyanide in ethanol. What is the product, and how does its carbon chain compare with that of bromoethane?

(A) Ethanenitrile; the chain is the same length
(B) Propanenitrile; the chain is one carbon longer
(C) Propylamine; the chain is one carbon longer
(D) Ethylamine; the chain is the same length
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The CN group replaces Br, and the nitrile carbon adds one carbon to the chain: CH3CH2Br → CH3CH2CN, propanenitrile.

Q50Propene reacts with steam in the presence of a phosphoric acid catalyst. What is the major product?

(A) Propan-1-ol
(B) Propanone
(C) Propan-2-ol
(D) Propanoic acid
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Electrophilic addition of water follows Markovnikov's rule, so the OH group ends up on the middle carbon, giving propan-2-ol.

Q51Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?

(A) Propan-1-ol
(B) Propan-2-ol
(C) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
(D) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

In 2-methylpropan-2-ol, the carbon atom bonded to the OH group is attached to three other carbon atoms.

Q52Ethanol is heated with concentrated sulfuric acid at 170 °C. What is the organic product?

(A) Ethanoic acid
(B) Ethene
(C) Ethane
(D) Ethyl ethanoate
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The alcohol is dehydrated in an elimination reaction, giving the alkene ethene (and water).

Q53Which step is a termination step in the free-radical substitution of methane by chlorine?

(A) CH3• + CH3• → C2H6
(B) Cl• + CH4 → CH3• + HCl
(C) CH3• + Cl2 → CH3Cl + Cl•
(D) Cl2 → 2Cl•
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

In a termination step, two radicals combine to form a stable molecule, removing radicals from the chain reaction. (B) and (C) are propagation steps and (D) is initiation.

Q54Which equation represents the incomplete combustion of methane?

(A) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(B) 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O
(C) CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl
(D) CH4 → C + 2H2
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

In a limited supply of oxygen, methane burns incompletely to give toxic carbon monoxide and water. Equation (A) is complete combustion.

🔬 Organic Chemistry II & Analysis

Q55Ethanoyl chloride is added to ethanol. Which pair of products is formed?

(A) Ethyl ethanoate and water
(B) Ethanoic acid and chloroethane
(C) Ethyl methanoate and hydrogen chloride
(D) Ethyl ethanoate and hydrogen chloride
Show Answer

Correct: (D)

Acyl chlorides react vigorously with alcohols to give an ester and HCl: CH3COCl + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 + HCl.

Q56Which reagent will reduce ethanoic acid to ethanol?

(A) NaBH4 in methanol
(B) LiAlH4 in dry ether
(C) Acidified potassium dichromate(VI)
(D) Fehling's solution
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

LiAlH4 is a powerful reducing agent that reduces carboxylic acids to primary alcohols. NaBH4 is not strong enough to reduce a carboxylic acid, and the other two reagents are oxidising agents.

Q57In the paper chromatography of a mixture of amino acids, the colourless amino acids are located on the chromatogram by…

(A) Viewing the paper under ultraviolet light only
(B) Measuring the melting points of the spots
(C) Spraying with ninhydrin, which produces purple spots
(D) Adding Fehling's solution to the paper
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Ninhydrin reacts with amino acids to form purple compounds, making the otherwise invisible spots visible.

Q58Nylon-6,6 is a polyamide made by condensation polymerisation. Which pair of monomers is used to make it?

(A) Ethene and ethene
(B) Hexane-1,6-diamine and hexanedioyl dichloride
(C) Ethane-1,2-diol and benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid
(D) Two different amino acids
Show Answer

Correct: (B)

The diamine and the diacyl chloride condense together, eliminating HCl, to form the polyamide. (The pair in option C forms the polyester Terylene.)

Q59How many different proton (hydrogen) environments are there in ethanol, CH3CH2OH, as shown by its ^1H NMR spectrum?

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 1
Show Answer

Correct: (A)

The CH3 protons, the CH2 protons and the OH proton are in three different environments, giving three peaks with an integration ratio of 3 : 2 : 1.

Q60In a chromatography experiment, a spot moves 4.5 cm from the baseline and the solvent front moves 9.0 cm. What is the Rf value of the substance?

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.50
(D) 4.5
Show Answer

Correct: (C)

Rf = distance moved by the spot / distance moved by the solvent = 4.5 / 9.0 = 0.50.

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