A-Level Chemistry Practice Test 15
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering the full A-Level Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), AS & A2.
Note: These are original practice questions written in A-Level multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real A-Level Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers the full A-Level course: atomic structure, amount of substance, bonding, energetics & thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibria, redox & electrode potentials, acids & buffers, inorganic chemistry, and organic chemistry with spectroscopy.
⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodicity
Q1A sample of gallium contains 60% of the isotope with mass number 69 and 40% of the isotope with mass number 71. What is the relative atomic mass of this sample of gallium?
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Correct: (B)
(69 × 0.60) + (71 × 0.40) = 41.4 + 28.4 = 69.8
Q2Which of these Period 3 elements has the highest first ionisation energy?
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Correct: (D)
First ionisation energy generally increases across Period 3 as the nuclear charge increases and the atoms get smaller; phosphorus (1012 kJ mol^-1) is higher than magnesium, aluminium and silicon.
Q3What is the electronic configuration of an Fe^3+ ion?
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Correct: (C)
Iron is [Ar] 3d^6 4s^2. When ions form, the 4s electrons are removed first, then one 3d electron, giving [Ar] 3d^5.
Q4An element has first, second and third ionisation energies of 738, 1451 and 7733 kJ mol^-1 respectively. In which group of the Periodic Table is this element?
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Correct: (A)
The very large increase between the second and third ionisation energies shows that the third electron is removed from an inner shell, so the atom has only two outer-shell electrons.
Q5Which statement about the elements from sodium to argon is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Across the period the nuclear charge increases while the electrons are added to the same shell, so atoms get smaller and ionisation energy generally rises (with small dips at aluminium and sulfur).
⚖ Amount of Substance
Q6A sample of gas occupies 500 cm^3 at a pressure of 100 kPa and a temperature of 300 K. How many moles of gas are present? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (D)
n = pV / RT = (100000 × 5.00 × 10^-4) / (8.31 × 300) = 50 / 2493 = 0.020 mol
Q7In an experiment, the theoretical yield of a product is 12.5 g and the actual yield obtained is 9.40 g. What is the percentage yield?
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Correct: (C)
Percentage yield = (9.40 / 12.5) × 100 = 75.2%
Q8A 25.0 cm^3 sample of sodium hydroxide solution of concentration 0.100 mol dm^-3 is completely neutralised by 20.0 cm^3 of sulfuric acid. What is the concentration of the sulfuric acid?
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Correct: (A)
Moles of NaOH = 0.100 × 0.0250 = 2.50 × 10^-3. H2SO4 reacts with NaOH in a 1:2 ratio, so moles of H2SO4 = 1.25 × 10^-3. Concentration = 1.25 × 10^-3 / 0.0200 = 0.0625 mol dm^-3.
Q9A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.70% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?
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Correct: (B)
C: 40.0/12 = 3.33; H: 6.70/1 = 6.70; O: 53.3/16 = 3.33. Ratio 1:2:1, so the empirical formula is CH2O.
Q10In the reaction CaCO3 → CaO + CO2, calcium oxide is the desired product. What is the atom economy of this reaction? (Mr: CaCO3 = 100, CaO = 56, CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (D)
Atom economy = (Mr of desired product / total Mr of all products) × 100 = (56 / 100) × 100 = 56%
Q11How many molecules are there in 4.40 g of carbon dioxide? (Mr of CO2 = 44; Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)
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Correct: (C)
Moles of CO2 = 4.40 / 44 = 0.100 mol. Number of molecules = 0.100 × 6.02 × 10^23 = 6.02 × 10^22.
🔗 Bonding & Structure
Q12For sodium chloride, ΔHf = -411 kJ mol^-1, enthalpy of atomisation of Na = +107 kJ mol^-1, first ionisation energy of Na = +496 kJ mol^-1, enthalpy of atomisation of Cl = +121 kJ mol^-1 and electron affinity of Cl = -349 kJ mol^-1. What is the lattice enthalpy of formation of NaCl?
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Correct: (A)
From the Born-Haber cycle: -411 = 107 + 121 + 496 – 349 + ΔHlatt, so ΔHlatt = -411 – 375 = -786 kJ mol^-1.
Q13What is the H-N-H bond angle in an ammonia molecule?
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Correct: (B)
Nitrogen has three bonding pairs and one lone pair. The lone pair repels more strongly than the bonding pairs, pushing the bonds together and reducing the angle from 109.5° to 107°.
Q14Which of these compounds has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?
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Correct: (D)
Hydrogen bonding occurs when hydrogen is bonded to a small, highly electronegative atom such as nitrogen, oxygen or fluorine. Only NH3 qualifies here.
Q15Graphite conducts electricity because it
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Correct: (C)
Each carbon atom in graphite forms three covalent bonds, leaving one electron per atom delocalised; these electrons can move and carry charge.
Q16Which chloride has the greatest covalent character?
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Correct: (A)
The small, highly charged Al^3+ ion has the greatest polarising power and distorts the electron cloud of the large Cl^- ion most, giving AlCl3 the most covalent character (Fajans' rules).
Q17Magnesium oxide has a very high melting point because
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Correct: (B)
The doubly charged ions attract each other strongly in all directions in the giant ionic lattice, so a very large amount of thermal energy is needed to melt it.
🔥 Energetics & Thermodynamics
Q18When 0.0100 mol of a liquid fuel is burned completely, the temperature of 100 g of water rises by 12.5 °C. What is the enthalpy of combustion of the fuel? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1)
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Correct: (D)
q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.18 × 12.5 = 5225 J = 5.225 kJ. ΔH = -5.225 / 0.0100 = -523 kJ mol^-1 (energy released per mole burned).
Q19The standard enthalpies of combustion of carbon, hydrogen and ethanol are -394, -286 and -1367 kJ mol^-1 respectively. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of ethanol, C2H5OH, in the reaction 2C + 3H2 + 0.5O2 → C2H5OH?
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Correct: (C)
ΔHf = [2(-394) + 3(-286)] – (-1367) = (-788 – 858) + 1367 = -279 kJ mol^-1.
Q20Using mean bond enthalpies (H-H = 436, O=O = 498, O-H = 464 kJ mol^-1), what is the enthalpy change for the reaction H2(g) + 0.5O2(g) → H2O(g)?
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Correct: (A)
Bonds broken = 436 + (0.5 × 498) = 685 kJ. Bonds formed = 2 × 464 = 928 kJ. ΔH = 685 – 928 = -243 kJ mol^-1.
Q21Which reaction has a positive entropy change of the system?
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Correct: (B)
A gas is produced from a solid, so the number of particles and the degree of disorder increase, giving a positive ΔS.
Q22A reaction has ΔH = -100 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = -200 J K^-1 mol^-1. At which temperature is ΔG = 0 for this reaction?
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Correct: (D)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = 0 when T = ΔH / ΔS = 100000 / 200 = 500 K. The reaction is feasible below this temperature.
Q23The lattice enthalpy of dissociation of potassium chloride is +701 kJ mol^-1. The enthalpies of hydration of K^+ and Cl^- are -322 and -364 kJ mol^-1 respectively. What is the enthalpy of solution of KCl?
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Correct: (C)
ΔHsolution = ΔHdissociation + ΔHhydration = 701 + (-322 – 364) = 701 – 686 = +15 kJ mol^-1.
⏱ Kinetics & Rate Equations
Q24For the reaction with rate equation rate = k[A]^2, the rate is 2.0 × 10^-4 mol dm^-3 s^-1 when [A] = 0.10 mol dm^-3. What is the rate constant, k?
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Correct: (A)
k = rate / [A]^2 = (2.0 × 10^-4) / (0.10)^2 = (2.0 × 10^-4) / 0.010 = 0.020 mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1.
Q25In a series of experiments at constant temperature, doubling the concentration of X (with all other concentrations constant) increased the initial rate by a factor of four. What is the order of reaction with respect to X?
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Correct: (B)
Rate is proportional to [X]^2, since 2^2 = 4; the reaction is second order with respect to X.
Q26A plot of ln k against 1/T for a reaction is a straight line with gradient -1.20 × 10^4 K. What is the activation energy of the reaction? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (D)
Gradient = -Ea / R, so Ea = 1.20 × 10^4 × 8.31 = 99 720 J mol^-1 ≈ 100 kJ mol^-1.
Q27A reaction proceeds by the mechanism: Step 1 (slow): 2NO2 → NO3 + NO; Step 2 (fast): NO3 + CO → NO2 + CO2. What is the rate equation for this reaction?
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Correct: (C)
The rate equation is determined by the slow (rate-determining) step, which involves two molecules of NO2, so rate = k[NO2]^2. CO appears only in the fast step and does not affect the rate.
Q28A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction because it
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst offers a different route with a lower activation energy; it does not change the energies of the particles or the position of equilibrium.
⚖ Chemical Equilibria (Kc & Kp)
Q29For the equilibrium A + B ⇌ 2C, 1.00 mol of A and 1.00 mol of B are mixed in a 1.00 dm^3 vessel. At equilibrium, [C] = 0.600 mol dm^-3. What is the value of Kc?
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Correct: (B)
Formation of 0.600 mol dm^-3 of C consumes 0.300 mol dm^-3 of A and of B, so [A] = [B] = 0.700 mol dm^-3. Kc = (0.600)^2 / (0.700 × 0.700) = 0.36 / 0.49 = 0.73 (no units, as top and bottom powers cancel).
Q30For the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), the equilibrium partial pressure of NO2 is 40 kPa and the equilibrium partial pressure of N2O4 is 60 kPa. What is the value of Kp?
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Correct: (D)
Kp = (pNO2)^2 / pN2O4 = (40)^2 / 60 = 1600 / 60 = 26.7 kPa.
Q31The forward reaction in an equilibrium is exothermic. What happens to the value of Kc when the temperature is increased?
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Correct: (C)
Raising the temperature favours the endothermic (reverse) direction, so the equilibrium shifts left and the equilibrium constant Kc becomes smaller.
Q32What is the effect of adding a catalyst on the value of Kc for a reversible reaction at constant temperature?
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Correct: (A)
A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally, so the position of equilibrium and the value of Kc are unchanged; equilibrium is simply reached faster.
Q33For the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), Kc = 64 at a given temperature. A mixture initially contains 0.50 mol of H2 and 0.50 mol of I2 in a 1.0 dm^3 vessel and no HI. How many moles of HI are present at equilibrium?
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Correct: (B)
Let x mol of H2 react: Kc = (2x)^2 / (0.50 – x)^2 = 64. Taking the square root: 2x / (0.50 – x) = 8, so 2x = 4.0 – 8x and x = 0.40. HI formed = 2x = 0.80 mol.
🔋 Redox & Electrode Potentials
Q34What is the oxidation state of chromium in the dichromate(VI) ion, Cr2O7^2-?
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Correct: (D)
Let the oxidation state of Cr be x: 2x + 7(-2) = -2, so 2x = +12 and x = +6.
Q35Using the standard electrode potentials Zn^2+/Zn = -0.76 V and Cu^2+/Cu = +0.34 V, what is the EMF of the cell Zn(s) | Zn^2+(aq) || Cu^2+(aq) | Cu(s)?
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Correct: (C)
EMF = E(reduction side) – E(oxidation side) = (+0.34) – (-0.76) = +1.10 V.
Q36Given the standard electrode potentials I2/I^- = +0.54 V, Fe^3+/Fe^2+ = +0.77 V and Br2/Br^- = +1.09 V, which is the strongest oxidising agent?
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Correct: (A)
The strongest oxidising agent is the species in the couple with the most positive electrode potential; Br2 (+1.09 V) has the greatest tendency to gain electrons and be reduced.
Q37Using Fe^3+/Fe^2+ = +0.77 V and I2/I^- = +0.54 V, will Fe^3+ ions oxidise I^- ions?
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Correct: (B)
Eθcell = (+0.77) – (+0.54) = +0.23 V. A positive Eθcell means the reaction is feasible, so Fe^3+ oxidises I^- to I2 and is itself reduced to Fe^2+.
Q38A current of 0.50 A is passed through aqueous copper(II) sulfate for 3860 s. What mass of copper is deposited at the cathode? (Faraday constant = 96 500 C mol^-1; Mr of Cu = 63.5)
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Correct: (D)
Charge = It = 0.50 × 3860 = 1930 C, which is 1930 / 96500 = 0.0200 mol of electrons. Cu^2+ + 2e^- → Cu, so moles of Cu = 0.0100 and mass = 0.0100 × 63.5 = 0.64 g.
🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers
Q39What is the pH of a 0.020 mol dm^-3 solution of sodium hydroxide at 298 K? (Kw = 1.0 × 10^-14 mol^2 dm^-6)
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Correct: (C)
[OH^-] = 0.020 mol dm^-3, so pOH = -log(0.020) = 1.70 and pH = 14.00 – 1.70 = 12.30.
Q40Ethanoic acid has Ka = 1.8 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3. What is the pH of a 0.100 mol dm^-3 solution of ethanoic acid?
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Correct: (A)
[H^+] ≈ sqrt(Ka × c) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-5 × 0.100) = sqrt(1.8 × 10^-6) = 1.34 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3. pH = -log(1.34 × 10^-3) = 2.87.
Q41At 310 K, Kw for water is 2.92 × 10^-14 mol^2 dm^-6. What is the pH of pure water at this temperature?
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Correct: (B)
Pure water is neutral, so [H^+] = sqrt(Kw) = sqrt(2.92 × 10^-14) = 1.71 × 10^-7 mol dm^-3. pH = -log(1.71 × 10^-7) = 6.77. (Neutral pH is below 7 because Kw is larger at higher temperature.)
Q42A buffer solution is made from ethanoic acid (pKa = 4.76) and sodium ethanoate. The concentration of the salt is twice the concentration of the acid. What is the pH of the buffer?
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Correct: (D)
pH = pKa + log([salt] / [acid]) = 4.76 + log(2) = 4.76 + 0.30 = 5.06.
Q43A 0.100 mol dm^-3 solution of a weak acid HA has pH 3.00. What is the value of Ka for the acid?
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Correct: (C)
[H^+] = 10^-3.00 = 1.0 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3. Ka = [H^+]^2 / [HA] = (1.0 × 10^-3)^2 / 0.100 = 1.0 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3.
⚗ Inorganic Chemistry
Q44Which of the Group 2 sulfates is the least soluble in water?
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Correct: (A)
The solubility of Group 2 sulfates decreases down the group; barium sulfate is the least soluble and is effectively insoluble.
Q45Chlorine is bubbled through cold, dilute sodium hydroxide solution. Which statement about this reaction is correct?
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Correct: (B)
The oxidation state of chlorine changes from 0 to -1 in NaCl (reduction) and from 0 to +1 in NaClO (oxidation), so the chlorine disproportionates. The NaClO formed is used as bleach.
Q46When excess concentrated ammonia solution is added to aqueous copper(II) sulfate, the final observation is
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Correct: (D)
Ammonia first precipitates pale blue Cu(OH)2, which dissolves in excess ammonia as four NH3 ligands replace water ligands, forming the deep blue tetraamminecopper(II) complex ion.
Q47Which precipitate is formed when sodium hydroxide solution is added to aqueous iron(III) chloride?
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Correct: (C)
Fe^3+(aq) forms insoluble iron(III) hydroxide, which appears as an orange-brown precipitate.
Q48Which of these aqueous ions is colourless?
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Correct: (A)
Zn^2+ has a completely filled 3d subshell (3d^10), so no d-d electron transitions are possible and its compounds absorb no visible light.
🛢 Organic Chemistry I
Q49In the chlorination of methane in ultraviolet light, which step is the initiation step?
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Correct: (B)
In initiation, UV light provides the energy for homolytic fission of the Cl-Cl bond, forming two chlorine free radicals.
Q50Which halogenoalkane is hydrolysed fastest by aqueous sodium hydroxide?
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Correct: (D)
2-Bromo-2-methylpropane is a tertiary halogenoalkane and hydrolyses by an SN1 mechanism through a stable tertiary carbocation, so it reacts much faster than primary halogenoalkanes.
Q51What is the major organic product when hydrogen bromide reacts with propene?
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Correct: (C)
The electrophile H^+ adds to the double bond to give the more stable secondary carbocation (Markovnikov addition), which then reacts with Br^- to form 2-bromopropane as the major product.
Q52Propan-1-ol is warmed with acidified potassium dichromate(VI) and the product is distilled off as it forms. What is the product?
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Correct: (A)
Distillation removes the aldehyde before it can be oxidised further, so the primary alcohol is oxidised only to propanal. (Under reflux, propanoic acid would form.)
Q53What is the organic product when butan-1-ol is heated with concentrated sulfuric acid at 170 °C?
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Correct: (B)
Concentrated sulfuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent; the alcohol eliminates water to form the alkene but-1-ene.
Q54Which product is formed when methane burns in a limited supply of oxygen?
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Correct: (D)
With insufficient oxygen, incomplete combustion occurs and the toxic gas carbon monoxide is produced instead of carbon dioxide.
🔬 Organic Chemistry II & Analysis
Q55Which statement correctly describes the use of Tollens' reagent?
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Correct: (C)
Tollens' reagent is a mild oxidising agent; aldehydes reduce the Ag^+ ions to a silver mirror, whereas ketones cannot be oxidised further and give no reaction.
Q56What are the products when ethyl ethanoate is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide?
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Correct: (A)
Alkaline hydrolysis of an ester gives the sodium salt of the carboxylic acid and the alcohol: CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa + C2H5OH.
Q57Which reagents and conditions are used for the nitration of benzene?
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Correct: (B)
The nitrating mixture of concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids generates the NO2^+ electrophile; the temperature is kept near 50 °C to avoid multiple nitration.
Q58Which of these nitrogen compounds is the strongest base?
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Correct: (D)
The alkyl group in ethylamine pushes electrons towards the nitrogen, making its lone pair more available to accept a proton than in ammonia. In phenylamine the lone pair is delocalised into the benzene ring, making it a much weaker base.
Q59In a strongly alkaline solution, glycine (H2N-CH2-COOH) exists mainly as
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Correct: (C)
In alkaline solution the -NH3^+ group of the zwitterion loses a proton to OH^-, so the amino acid exists mainly as the anion H2N-CH2-COO^-.
Q60How many peaks are there in the carbon-13 NMR spectrum of 2-methylpropane, (CH3)3CH?
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Correct: (A)
The three CH3 groups are in identical environments and the single CH carbon is in a different environment, so there are two different carbon environments and two peaks.
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