A-Level Chemistry Practice Test 14
60 original multiple-choice questions with answers & explanations — covering the full A-Level Chemistry syllabus (AQA, Edexcel & OCR), AS & A2.
Note: These are original practice questions written in A-Level multiple-choice style — not reproduced exam questions. Use them to test your readiness for the real A-Level Chemistry exams.
📱 How to use: Try each question first, then click “Show Answer” to check. Covers the full A-Level course: atomic structure, amount of substance, bonding, energetics & thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibria, redox & electrode potentials, acids & buffers, inorganic chemistry, and organic chemistry with spectroscopy.
⚛ Atomic Structure & Periodicity
Q1A sample of magnesium contains the isotopes ^24Mg (79.0%), ^25Mg (10.0%) and ^26Mg (11.0%). What is the relative atomic mass of magnesium in this sample?
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Correct: (C)
(24 × 0.790) + (25 × 0.100) + (26 × 0.110) = 18.96 + 2.50 + 2.86 = 24.32, which is approximately 24.3.
Q2The successive ionisation energies of an element show a very large increase between the 5th and 6th ionisation energies. In which group of the Periodic Table is the element?
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Correct: (B)
A large jump after five electrons have been removed means there are five electrons in the outer shell, so the element is in Group 15.
Q3What is the electronic configuration of an Fe^2+ ion? (Atomic number of Fe = 26)
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Correct: (A)
Fe is [Ar] 4s^2 3d^6. The 4s electrons are removed first when the ion forms, so Fe^2+ is [Ar] 3d^6.
Q4Which statement correctly explains why the atomic radius decreases across Period 3 from sodium to chlorine?
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Correct: (D)
Across the period, protons are added but the electrons enter the same outer shell, so shielding stays similar and the effective nuclear charge increases, drawing the electrons inwards.
Q5In a time of flight mass spectrometer, ions with m/z = 32 take 1.6 × 10^-5 s to reach the detector. What time is taken by ions with m/z = 128 under the same conditions?
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Correct: (B)
Flight time is proportional to sqrt(m/z): t = 1.6 × 10^-5 × sqrt(128/32) = 1.6 × 10^-5 × 2 = 3.2 × 10^-5 s.
⚖ Amount of Substance
Q6A 250 cm^3 sample of carbon dioxide gas is held at 101 kPa and 298 K. What is the mass of the sample? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1; Mr of CO2 = 44)
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Correct: (D)
n = pV/RT = (101 000 × 250 × 10^-6)/(8.31 × 298) = 25.25/2476 = 0.0102 mol. Mass = 0.0102 × 44 = 0.45 g.
Q725.0 cm^3 of a sulfuric acid solution is exactly neutralised by 30.0 cm^3 of 0.100 mol dm^-3 sodium hydroxide. What is the concentration of the sulfuric acid?
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Correct: (A)
Moles of NaOH = 0.0300 × 0.100 = 3.00 × 10^-3. H2SO4 reacts with NaOH in a 1 : 2 ratio, so moles of H2SO4 = 1.50 × 10^-3. Concentration = 1.50 × 10^-3 / 0.0250 = 0.060 mol dm^-3.
Q8A hydrocarbon contains 85.7% carbon and 14.3% hydrogen by mass. Its relative molecular mass is 84. What is its molecular formula?
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Correct: (C)
Amounts: C = 85.7/12 = 7.14; H = 14.3/1 = 14.3, a ratio of 1 : 2, so the empirical formula is CH2 (Mr = 14). 84/14 = 6, so the molecular formula is C6H12.
Q9Glucose is fermented to make ethanol: C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2. What is the atom economy for the ethanol? (Mr: glucose = 180; ethanol = 46)
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Correct: (B)
Atom economy = (total Mr of desired product / total Mr of all reactants) × 100 = (2 × 46)/180 × 100 = 92/180 × 100 = 51.1%.
Q105.85 g of sodium chloride (Mr = 58.5) is dissolved in water to make 250 cm^3 of solution. What is the concentration of the solution?
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Correct: (D)
Moles = 5.85/58.5 = 0.100 mol. Concentration = 0.100/0.250 = 0.400 mol dm^-3.
Q11Magnesium burns in oxygen: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. What volume of oxygen, at room temperature and pressure, is needed to burn 0.48 g of magnesium completely? (Molar gas volume = 24 dm^3 mol^-1; Ar(Mg) = 24)
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Correct: (A)
Moles of Mg = 0.48/24 = 0.0200. From the equation, moles of O2 = 0.0100. Volume = 0.0100 × 24 000 = 240 cm^3.
🔗 Bonding & Structure
Q12Which molecule has a trigonal planar shape with bond angles of 120°?
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Correct: (C)
BF3 has three bonding pairs and no lone pairs around the central boron atom; the pairs repel into a trigonal planar arrangement with 120° bond angles.
Q13The boiling point of water (100 °C) is much higher than that of hydrogen sulfide (-60 °C), even though H2S has the larger Mr. This is because…
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Correct: (B)
Oxygen is very electronegative and the O-H bond is highly polar, so water forms hydrogen bonds; sulfur is not electronegative enough for hydrogen bonding in H2S, so far less energy is needed to separate its molecules.
Q14Use these data for potassium chloride: enthalpy change of formation = -437 kJ mol^-1; enthalpy of atomisation of K = +89 kJ mol^-1; first ionisation energy of K = +418 kJ mol^-1; enthalpy of atomisation of chlorine = +121 kJ mol^-1; electron affinity of Cl = -349 kJ mol^-1. What is the lattice enthalpy of KCl?
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Correct: (D)
From the Born-Haber cycle, lattice enthalpy = -437 – (89 + 418 + 121 – 349) = -437 – 279 = -716 kJ mol^-1.
Q15Sodium, magnesium and aluminium are metals in Period 3. Which of them has the strongest metallic bonding and so the highest melting point?
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Correct: (A)
Aluminium atoms release three electrons per atom into the delocalised sea and form small 3+ ions, giving the strongest attraction between the ions and the electrons, so aluminium has the highest melting point.
Q16Which bond is the most polar?
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Correct: (C)
Fluorine is the most electronegative element, so the difference in electronegativity across the H-F bond is the largest and the bond is the most polar.
Q17Which statement about graphite is correct?
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Correct: (B)
Within each layer, every carbon atom is covalently bonded to three others, but only weak van der Waals forces act between the layers, so the layers slide easily and graphite is soft.
🔥 Energetics & Thermodynamics
Q180.46 g of ethanol is burned completely and heats 100 g of water by 32.7 °C. What is the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol? (c = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1; Mr of ethanol = 46)
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Correct: (A)
q = 100 × 4.18 × 32.7 = 13 669 J. Moles of ethanol = 0.46/46 = 0.0100, so ΔH = -13 669/0.0100 = -1367 kJ mol^-1.
Q19Standard enthalpies of combustion: C2H4 = -1411 kJ mol^-1, H2 = -286 kJ mol^-1, C2H6 = -1560 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy change for the reaction C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g)?
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Correct: (D)
Using a Hess cycle with combustion data, ΔH = [(-1411) + (-286)] – (-1560) = -1697 + 1560 = -137 kJ mol^-1.
Q20Bond enthalpies: C-H = 413 kJ mol^-1, O=O = 498 kJ mol^-1, C=O (in CO2) = 805 kJ mol^-1, O-H = 464 kJ mol^-1. What is the enthalpy change for the combustion of methane, CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O, calculated from these bond enthalpies?
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Correct: (C)
Bonds broken = (4 × 413) + (2 × 498) = 1652 + 996 = 2648 kJ mol^-1. Bonds formed = (2 × 805) + (4 × 464) = 1610 + 1856 = 3466 kJ mol^-1. ΔH = 2648 – 3466 = -818 kJ mol^-1.
Q21A reaction is endothermic and has a positive entropy change (ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0). Under which conditions is the reaction feasible?
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Correct: (B)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. With both ΔH and ΔS positive, ΔG becomes negative only when TΔS exceeds ΔH, which happens at high temperature.
Q22A reaction has ΔH = -50 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS = -100 J K^-1 mol^-1. What is ΔG at 298 K?
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Correct: (D)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = -50 – (298 × -0.100) = -50 + 29.8 = -20.2 kJ mol^-1, so the reaction is feasible at 298 K.
Q23The enthalpy change of neutralisation of any strong acid by any strong alkali is always about -57 kJ mol^-1. This is because in every case the reaction that actually takes place is…
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Correct: (A)
Strong acids and strong alkalis are fully ionised in solution, so the only chemical change in every such neutralisation is hydrogen ions combining with hydroxide ions to form water.
⏱ Kinetics & Rate Equations
Q24For a reaction with rate = k[A]^2[B], the concentration of A is halved and the concentration of B is doubled. What happens to the rate?
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Correct: (C)
Halving A multiplies the rate by (1/2)^2 = 1/4; doubling B multiplies the rate by 2. The overall factor is 1/4 × 2 = 1/2, so the rate halves.
Q25A reaction is second order with respect to A and zero order with respect to all other reactants. When [A] = 0.10 mol dm^-3, the initial rate is 4.0 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3 s^-1. What is the value of the rate constant?
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Correct: (B)
k = rate/[A]^2 = (4.0 × 10^-3)/(0.10)^2 = (4.0 × 10^-3)/0.010 = 0.40 mol^-1 dm^3 s^-1.
Q26What are the units of the rate constant for a first order reaction?
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Correct: (A)
For a first order reaction, k = rate/concentration, so the units are (mol dm^-3 s^-1)/(mol dm^-3) = s^-1.
Q27A graph of ln k against 1/T for a reaction is a straight line with a gradient of -9000 K. What is the activation energy? (R = 8.31 J K^-1 mol^-1)
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Correct: (D)
Gradient = -Ea/R, so Ea = 9000 × 8.31 = 74 790 J mol^-1, approximately 74.8 kJ mol^-1.
Q28The half-life of a reaction is measured at several different starting concentrations and is found to be constant. What is the order of the reaction?
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Correct: (C)
A constant half-life that does not depend on the starting concentration is the characteristic feature of a first order reaction.
⚖ Chemical Equilibria (Kc & Kp)
Q29Ethanoic acid and ethanol react to form an ester: CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O. At equilibrium, a mixture contains 0.30 mol of acid, 0.30 mol of ethanol, 0.70 mol of ester and 0.70 mol of water, all in the same volume. What is the value of Kc?
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Correct: (B)
Kc = (0.70 × 0.70)/(0.30 × 0.30) = 0.49/0.09 = 5.4. Because all the amounts are in the same volume, the amounts can be used directly, and Kc has no units here because there are equal numbers of molecules on each side of the equation.
Q30In the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), the equilibrium mixture at a total pressure of 200 kPa has a mole fraction of 0.25 for N2O4 and 0.75 for NO2. What is the value of Kp?
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Correct: (A)
Partial pressures: p(N2O4) = 0.25 × 200 = 50 kPa; p(NO2) = 0.75 × 200 = 150 kPa. Kp = p(NO2)^2/p(N2O4) = 150^2/50 = 22 500/50 = 450 kPa.
Q31A catalyst is added to a mixture of reactants and products that has already reached equilibrium. Which statement is correct?
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Correct: (D)
A catalyst speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally, so it does not change Kc or the equilibrium composition; it only shortens the time needed to reach equilibrium.
Q32For the equilibrium PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), what are the units of Kc?
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Correct: (C)
Kc = [PCl3][Cl2]/[PCl5], so the units are (mol dm^-3 × mol dm^-3)/(mol dm^-3) = mol dm^-3.
Q33Carbon monoxide and steam react: CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g). Initially 1.00 mol of CO and 1.00 mol of H2O are placed in a 1.00 dm^3 vessel. At equilibrium, 0.60 mol of CO2 is present. What is the value of Kc?
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Correct: (B)
At equilibrium, [CO] = [H2O] = 0.40 mol dm^-3 and [CO2] = [H2] = 0.60 mol dm^-3. Kc = (0.60 × 0.60)/(0.40 × 0.40) = 0.36/0.16 = 2.25.
🔋 Redox & Electrode Potentials
Q34What is the average oxidation number of sulfur in sodium thiosulfate, Na2S2O3?
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Correct: (D)
2(+1) + 2x + 3(-2) = 0, so 2x = +4 and x = +2.
Q35Standard electrode potentials: Ag^+ + e^- ⇌ Ag, E = +0.80 V; Cu^2+ + 2e^- ⇌ Cu, E = +0.34 V. What is the EMF of a cell combining these two half-cells?
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Correct: (A)
EMF = E(more positive half-cell) – E(more negative half-cell) = 0.80 – 0.34 = 0.46 V. Copper is oxidised at the negative electrode.
Q36Standard electrode potentials: Br2/Br^- = +1.09 V; I2/I^- = +0.54 V. Which reaction is feasible?
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Correct: (C)
Bromine has the more positive E value, so Br2 is the stronger oxidising agent and oxidises iodide ions to iodine; the EMF for this reaction is 1.09 – 0.54 = +0.55 V, so it is feasible.
Q37A current of 2.0 A is passed through silver nitrate solution for 965 s. What mass of silver is deposited at the cathode? (Faraday constant = 96 500 C mol^-1; Ar(Ag) = 107.9)
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Correct: (B)
Q = It = 2.0 × 965 = 1930 C = 1930/96 500 = 0.0200 mol of electrons. Ag^+ + e^- → Ag, so moles of Ag = 0.0200 and mass = 0.0200 × 107.9 = 2.16 g.
Q38Which set of conditions applies when standard electrode potentials are measured using a standard hydrogen electrode?
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Correct: (D)
Standard conditions are a temperature of 298 K, a pressure of 100 kPa and all solutions at a concentration of 1.00 mol dm^-3.
🧫 Acids, Bases & Buffers
Q39A solution has a hydrogen ion concentration of 2.5 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3. What is its pH?
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Correct: (A)
pH = -log(2.5 × 10^-3) = 2.60.
Q40A 0.100 mol dm^-3 solution of a weak acid HA has a pH of 3.00. What is the value of Ka for the acid?
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Correct: (C)
pH 3.00 means [H^+] = 1.0 × 10^-3 mol dm^-3. Ka = [H^+]^2/[HA] = (1.0 × 10^-3)^2/0.100 = (1.0 × 10^-6)/0.100 = 1.0 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3.
Q41A strong acid is titrated against a strong alkali and the pH is measured throughout. Which statement about this titration is correct?
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Correct: (B)
The large vertical section of the curve means that any indicator changing colour within about pH 3 to pH 11 will give an accurate end point.
Q42A buffer solution contains 0.100 mol dm^-3 ethanoic acid and 0.300 mol dm^-3 sodium ethanoate. The Ka of ethanoic acid is 1.8 × 10^-5 mol dm^-3 (pKa = 4.74). What is the pH of this buffer?
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Correct: (D)
pH = pKa + log([salt]/[acid]) = 4.74 + log(0.300/0.100) = 4.74 + log 3 = 4.74 + 0.48 = 5.22.
Q43What is the pH of 0.020 mol dm^-3 potassium hydroxide solution? (Kw = 1.00 × 10^-14 mol^2 dm^-6 at 25 °C)
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Correct: (A)
pOH = -log(0.020) = 1.70, so pH = 14.00 – 1.70 = 12.30.
⚗ Inorganic Chemistry
Q44Which statement about the sulfates of the Group 2 elements is correct?
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Correct: (C)
Group 2 sulfate solubility decreases down the group; BaSO4 is insoluble, which is why acidified barium chloride solution is used as a test for sulfate ions.
Q45A white precipitate forms when silver nitrate solution is added to a solution containing chloride ions, after acidifying with dilute nitric acid. How can this precipitate be confirmed as silver chloride?
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Correct: (B)
Silver chloride is a white precipitate that dissolves in dilute ammonia solution; silver bromide is cream and dissolves only in concentrated ammonia, and silver iodide is yellow and does not dissolve in ammonia.
Q46A few drops of sodium hydroxide solution are added to a solution containing Fe^3+ ions. What is observed?
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Correct: (D)
Fe^3+(aq) + 3OH^-(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s). Iron(III) hydroxide forms as an orange-brown (rust-coloured) precipitate. Fe^2+ ions give a green precipitate instead.
Q47Which of these ligands is bidentate?
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Correct: (A)
Ethane-1,2-diamine has two nitrogen atoms, each with a lone pair, so it forms two coordinate bonds to a central metal ion and is a bidentate ligand.
Q48What colour is a solution containing VO2^+ ions (vanadium in oxidation state +5)?
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Correct: (C)
The vanadium oxidation states have characteristic colours: +5 (VO2^+) is yellow, +4 (VO^2+) is blue, +3 is green and +2 is violet.
🛢 Organic Chemistry I
Q49Methane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light by free radical substitution. Which step is the initiation step?
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Correct: (B)
In initiation, ultraviolet light supplies the energy for homolytic fission of the Cl-Cl bond, forming two chlorine radicals. Steps (A) and (C) are propagation steps and step (D) is a termination step.
Q50Bromoethane is heated with potassium cyanide dissolved in ethanol. What is the organic product, and why is the reaction useful?
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Correct: (D)
The cyanide ion acts as a nucleophile and replaces the bromine: CH3CH2Br + CN^- → CH3CH2CN + Br^-. The nitrile product has one more carbon atom than the starting halogenoalkane.
Q51Ethanol is manufactured industrially by the hydration of ethene. Which conditions are used?
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Correct: (A)
Ethene reacts with steam at about 300 °C and high pressure over a phosphoric(V) acid catalyst to give ethanol. Conditions (B) describe fermentation, which is a different route to ethanol.
Q52What is the monomer used to make poly(propene)?
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Correct: (C)
Addition polymers are made from alkene monomers; in poly(propene) the double bonds of propene molecules open up and the molecules join into a long chain.
Q53Which alcohol is NOT oxidised when heated with acidified potassium dichromate(VI)?
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Correct: (B)
2-methylpropan-2-ol is a tertiary alcohol; the carbon atom carrying the -OH group has no hydrogen atom attached, so it resists oxidation and the mixture stays orange. Primary alcohols are oxidised to carboxylic acids and secondary alcohols to ketones.
Q54Ethanol vapour is passed over heated aluminium oxide. What is the organic product?
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Correct: (D)
The alcohol is dehydrated in an elimination reaction; a molecule of water is removed and the alkene ethene is formed.
🔬 Organic Chemistry II & Analysis
Q55Fehling's solution is warmed with an aldehyde. What is observed?
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Correct: (A)
Aldehydes reduce the blue Cu^2+ ions in Fehling's solution to brick-red copper(I) oxide, Cu2O; ketones give no reaction. A silver mirror is formed with Tollens' reagent instead.
Q56Chloroethanoic acid is a stronger acid than ethanoic acid. This is because…
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Correct: (C)
The negative inductive effect of the chlorine atom spreads out (disperses) the negative charge on the ethanoate ion, making the anion more stable and shifting the ionisation equilibrium to the right.
Q57Which ester is formed when methanol reacts with propanoic acid?
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Correct: (B)
In the name of an ester, the first part comes from the alcohol and the second part from the carboxylic acid, so methanol and propanoic acid give methyl propanoate (plus water).
Q58Benzene does not decolourise bromine water, but cyclohexene does. Which statement explains this difference?
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Correct: (D)
Addition to benzene would destroy the stable delocalised pi system, so benzene undergoes electrophilic substitution (with bromine it needs an FeBr3 catalyst), whereas the localised double bond in cyclohexene reacts by addition.
Q59Glycine (aminoethanoic acid) is dissolved in a strongly acidic solution. Which form of glycine is present in the greatest amount?
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Correct: (A)
Glycine normally exists as the zwitterion H3N^+CH2COO^-. In strong acid, the hydrogen ions protonate the -COO^- group, giving the cation H3N^+CH2COOH.
Q60How many peaks are there in the carbon-13 (^13C) NMR spectrum of propanone, CH3COCH3?
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Correct: (C)
The two CH3 groups are in identical environments and give one peak, and the carbonyl carbon gives a second peak, so there are two peaks in total.
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